358- Incision for palatal tori = Y-Shaped (Some people say double Y)
359- Medication for Asthma control = albuterol (short acting) and theophylline (long-term) 360- Muscle in maxillary frenum = orbicularis oris, elevator angular oris
361- Muscle in mandibular frenum = traingularis\depressor anguli oris, buccinator
362- To prevent eye damage, the protective eyewear that u wear should effectively filter which light rays below: 500 or 509 (both correct)
363- After how long of wearing does a face mask become useless = 1 hour 364- Which muscle is pierced during IAN block = buccinator
365- When draining purulent exudate from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space using an intraoral approach = buccinator muscle
366- Kennedy’s class-III, Tooth supported RPD rest towards the ridge
367- Main function of indirect retainer? Prevent dislodgement of RPD vertically
368- A dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patients with different background. Dentist is doing what kind of research? Case-Series
369- Under which principles of informed consent of treatment, a dentist is NOT required to inform a patient about which of the following?
a) Alternative treatments available by a specialist b) The risk associated with non-treatment
c) Potential risks of treatment
D) insurance co-payment for treatment
370- Combination clasp = The combination clasp is similar to the cast circumferential clasp with the exception that the retentive arm is fabricated from a round wrought wire (platinum-gold-palladium alloy or chrome-cobalt alloy)
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371- Nutrient canals seen radiographically most common where? Mandibular incisors
Nutrient Canal
372- Advantage of distraction osteogenesis = Less relapse
373- After IAN block, patient has facial paralysis. Which ligament = Sphenomandibular ligament 374- Cheek biting occurs due to = insufficient HORIZONTAL overlap in molars
375- Cheek biting corrected by = increasing the HORIZONTAL overlap in molars 376- Kennedy’s Class-III gets support from = Occlusal rest (tooth supported) 377- Kennedy’s class-4 is also tooth supported
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378- The most stable elastic impression in moisture environment? a. polyether b. additional silicone c. condensation silicone d. polysulfide
379- Patient is given oral habit reducing appliance to prevent an oral habit, what is this considered? – Negative reinforcement POSITIVE PUNISHMENT
380- Axial walls on an MOD cavity for a cast gold onlay should = Converge from the gingival walls to pulpal walls
381- Best allograft = FDBA Cadaver 382- Breathing rate in a kid = 22 to 30 383- With age, CHROMA increases
384- While doing external bevel incision the curette is touching which structure apically: JE
385- Reversal occlusal plane can be seen in a given pano. why? Chin tilted too much upwards
386- What is an allograft – transplant from one human to another 387- Crowing sounds are seen with. Acute asthmatic attack, COPD.
388- Blood transfusion before surgery should be done when the platelet concentration falls below. 20,000, 50,000 , 100,000 etc
389- Normal bleeding time = 1-9 min
390- Normal prothrombin time = 11-16 seconds 391- Normal platelet count = 150,000 to 450,000
392- Normal Partial Thromboplastin Time = 32-46 seconds
393- The most effective method of caries reduction = Systemic water fluoridation 394- 5 A’s of cancer prevention: Ask, assess, advise, assist, arrange
395- Ectodermal dysplasia = sparse hair 396- Max. nitrous oxide in kids = 30%
397- Long-term nitrous = Symptoms similar to multiple sclerosis 398- For thiazide diuretics = Give K-supplements
399- In multiple sclerosis = LA with epinephrine is CONTRAINDICATED 400- A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after an injection of 4ml of
lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow and
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steady. The respiration is slow. The blood pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable diagnosis? Incipient syncope
401- Most common respiratory emergency = Hyperventilation 402- Most common CNS emergency = Syncope
403- Patient has a petit mal seizure in your office, what do you do? Protect patient from hurting themselves.
404- Strep mutans: lives in a non-shedding surface
405- Short story about a patient with candida, what medicine can we give that can be given orally (systemically) and locally with efficiency: Miconazole (in can be used as cream and tablets)
406- Maximum allowable dose of EPI that can be administered to a cardiac-risk patient is 0.04mg.
407- Lidocaine may show cross-allergy with = Mepivacaine (Dentin)
408- Which drugs when administered intravenously, is LEAST likely to produce respiratory depression? Diazepam
409- Side effect of nitroglycerin = Orthostatic hypotension and headache 410- First sign of lidocaine toxicity = CNS stimulation/Nervousness 411- Trismus is most commonly caused by = Tetanus
412- High-flow 100% 02 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope EXCEPT
= Hyperventilation syndrome
413- What antiviral drug is used for influenza A and Parkinson’s = Amantadine 414- Ganglionic blocking agents cause = orthostatic hypotension
415- Atropine poisoning = burning dry mouth and orthostatic hypotension (as it is anticholinergic) 416- Cause of death by irreversible cholinesterase = Respiratory paralysis
417- Cholinergic crisis = lacrimation, bradycardia, extreme salivation, weakness voluntary muscle
418- Levodopa crosses brain barrier to treat Parkinson’s disease 419- Hallmark of anticholinergic drug = Mydriasis (pupil dilation) 420- Cocaine overdose = mydriasis (dilated pupil)
421- Opioid overdose = miosis (constricted pupil)
422- MOA of levodopa = replenish deficiency of dopamine in patients with parkinson’s
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423- Alpha1 stimulate – vasoconstriction, mydriasis 424- Alpha1 block – vasodilation
425- Stimulate beta – increase HR, bronchodilation, vasodilation 426- Block beta – decrease HR, brocho constriction
427- Epi - to reverse give – prazosin or chlorpromazine
428- MOA of reserpine – stabilize the axon terminal membrane preventing release norepiephine, Used for treatment of hypertension
429- Amphetamine – indirect acting drug
430- MOA of Naloxone: non-selective and competitive opioid receptor antagonist in case of opioid overdose
431- MOA of Clonidine: centrally acting sympatholytic (α2 adrenoceptor agonists) 432- MOA of Zoloft: Sertraline - Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
433- Serotonin syndrome = Tramadol (narcotic pain killer like morphine) + SSRI
434- Immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face
becomes quickly and visibly swollen. the immediate treatment should be to = Use pressure followed by cold packs over swelling
435- For codeine allergy = use meperidine, tramadol or pentazocine
436- Each of the following is an advantage of midazolam over diazepam EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? Less potential for respiratory depression
437- Nitrous oxide sedation should be postponed in pt. with: Sinusitis, GI obstructions, Middle ear disturbances and Nausea (all of them)
438- Occlusal reduction for fixed crowns: flat and round for porcelain….similar to natural contours for metal
439- Color is usually described according to the Munsell color space in terms of hue, value, and chroma. Hue is the attribute of a color that enables the clinician to distinguish between different families of color, whereas value indicates the lightness of a color. Chroma is the degree of color saturation. When color is determined using the Munsell system, value is determined first followed by chroma. Hue is determined last by matching with shade tabs of the value and chroma already determined.
440- Wavelength of color = Hue
441- Who regulate temperature of the autoclave? FDA (DD)
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442- The most frequent respiratory complications following oral and maxillofacial surgery are:
1-pulmonary atelectasis (in smokers).
2-aspiration pneumonia (manifest in pt right lung).
3-pulmonary embolus (originate in deep venous system of lower extremities especially in non-ambulatory patient).
443- 50% NO/50% O2 and pt feels nausea. what should dentist do? Stop NO and start 100% O2
444- Least incidence of oral cancer = Native Americans
445- Best prognosis of cancer = SCC (that’s what the group people said) 446- Most common location of SCC = Posterior lateral borders of tongue
447- A 40 years old patient bilateral posterior crossbite. How to correct the problem? Maxillary ostectomy
448- Prevalence of cleft lip and palate in US is 1 to : A. 600 B. 700 C.1000 D. 1200 449- Stridor: laryngospasm
450- Which one does not affect the tactile sensitivity of dentist? = Material composition 451- Male extracted his lower left third molar, on the second day he feels feverish, with
sublingual swelling that elevate his tongue, affects the swallowing and breathing, diagnosis:
Ludwig angina
452- Cellulitis A. Neutrophilia B. Neutropenia C. Lymphocytosis D. leukocytosis (Both C and D)
453- Immunoglobulin IgG: A. Decreases phagocytosis B. Antigens receptor C. Produces macrophages and neutrophils
454- Flabby tissues in anterior maxilla for a complete denture impression = Passive
455- Recurrence is least in: A. Ameloblastoma B. OKC C. Odontogenic myxoma D.
Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst
456- MOST COMMON complication associated with the use of LA = Vasaovagal syncope 457- LA with epinephrine is contra-indicated with = TCA, propranolol, amphetamine, MAO
inhibitors such as Isocarboxazid and Phenelzine (All of them)
458- Failure of tubercular impar to retract prior to fusion of lateral halves of tongue result in A median rhomboid glossitis B cleft bifid tongue C geographic tongue
459- X-ray with radiolucent /radiopaque lesion in the left posterior molar ramus area, diagnosis:
A. Ameloblastic fibrodontoma B. Ameloblastic fibroma
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460- x ray of Dentigerous cyst (impacted tooth with radiolucency around the CEJ) 461- Which of the following lesion is strictly diagnosed from microscopic features
A. Ameloblastoma B. OKC C. Fibroma
462- Pic of prescription: name of pt...., date..., Rx : Motrin 800 mg/ 2 TABLETS, every 8 HOURS, for dental pain, name of Dr..., Bill... Q: what is the wrong of this prescription : A. Frequency of dose B. Number of tables per dose
463- Diazepam uses in all Except : A. Emesis B. Anxiety C. Muscle spasm D. Seizures 464- Epinephrine is NOT used in = Hyperthyroidism as it causes hypertension
465- What is NOT important for biohazard container = made up of metal 466- Cells most frequently found in granuloma = lymphocytes
467- Most common benign tumor occurring in the oral cavity = Fibroma 468- Uncontrolled diabetes = inhibits osteoblastic activity
469- Pear-shaped radiolucency causing displacement of the roots of vital maxillary lateral incisor and canine = Globulomaxillary cyst
470- Horizontal and vertical angulation causes what type of distortion of image?
- Horizontal-overlap
- Vertical -elongation or shortening
471- In Emphysema, the anteroposterior of the lung is = Lengthened.
472- Capitation is with = Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) 473- Lesions that occur in the alveolar ridge of infants = Bohn’s nodules
474- Multiple neurofibromas with café-au-liet spots on skin = Vonrecklinghausen disease of skin 475- Chemical disintegration of enamel = Erosion
476- Mottled enamel is produced by = Fluorine
477- Structure of enamel more resistant to acids = enamel cuticle
478- Most common route through which infection reaches pulp is = Dental caries 479- Cells responsible for root resorption = osteoclasts
480- Patient had a root canal 2 years ago and now you see an apical radiolucency. What to do pt asymptomatic = Retreatment if the tooth becomes symptomatic
481- Dry socket is a form of = periostitis
482- Pathophysiology of dry socket = Fibrinolysis
483- Which one is not for provider protection = Rubber dam
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484- Placement of rubber dam affects color selection by? Dehydration of tooth 485- Dentist is not behaving with staff. Which ethical is violated? = Beneficence
486- Intraoral dental sinus = parulis (made up of granulation tissue, also called “gum-boil”) 487- Inflammation of lips is called = Cheilitis
488- Delayed side effect of corticosteriod treatment of TMJ = Blurred vision 489- Most common oral cancer = SCC (mostly lower lip)
490- Which index is irreversible = DMFT
491- In cardiac pacemaker patient, what can be used safely = Radiographic equipment 492- Most common cause of mucocele = trauma
493- Best radiograph for mandibles symphysis fracture = Occlusal 494- Xylitol is best used as = chewing gum
495- Crystals are deposited in TMJ in gouty arthritis =Monosodium urate 496- Dens-in-Dente most commonly occurs in = Maxillary lateral incisors 497- Paralysis of tongue is called = Glossoplegia
498- What passes through foramen ovale = Trigeminal nerve
499- Pt had fracture and numbness on side on nose cheeks...fracture site? Floor of the orbit 500- Most common site of basal cell carcinoma = middle third of face
501- Cells of dental pulp most capable of transforming into other cells = undifferenced mesenchymal cells
502- Patient had trauma 2 year back now u see radio in anteriomand. What to do = Check vitality and start RCT for non-vital teeth
503- Most common site of osteofibrosis (cementoma) = Mandibular anteriors 504- Wharthin’s tumor (Cystadenomalymphomatosum) = only occurs in PAROTID
505- Cells found in chronic pulp inflammation = Lymphocytes, Macrophages and Plasma cells 506- Cells most often found in granuloma = Lymphocytes
507- Diagnosis of OKC = histology
508- Prominent forehead, dwarf, disproportionate arms and legs and retruded maxilla = Achondroplasia
509- Blood of a patient with acute infection shows = leukocytosis 510- Herpes causes = Chicken pox
511- Third order bend = Torque
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512- You must give a long buccal injection to extract all molars and 2nd premolars.
513- which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross membranes=non-ionized and high lipid solubility
514- Pseudocyst = Traumatic bone cyst. Common in 20s yrs. Scallops around teeth 515- Pierre Robin Syndrome = an inherited disorder that presents as micrognathia and
retrognathia of the mandible, glossoptosis (posterior displacement of tongue), and cleft palate. Often seen with respiratory problems.
516- Papillon Lefvre Syndrome = periodontitis, Hyperkeratosis hand/feet, premature tooth loss (4 years old)
517- Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia seen on = Granular cell tumor. More common on tongue and in females
518- Crouzon syndrome=beaten metal appearance of skull+Hypertelorism + midface deficiency.
Cranial bones fuse too soon
519- Steven Johnson syndrome = Disease of skin and mucous membrane, begins like flu-like symptoms, top skin layer dies and sheds off, burning eyes
520- 'Coast of Maine' like border is seen in pigmented lesions of: McCune Albright syndrome 521- Atrophy of gastric and pharyngeal mucosa, spoon nails (koilonycias) and predisposal to
oral carcinoma in postmenopausal females = Plummer Vinson syndrome
522- Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, which occurs exclusively in the parotid gland is called = Wathin’s tumor
523- In Angina, DO NOT put patient in Trendelburg position
524- You raise a full mucoperiosteal flap to instrument in the pocket, after reposition of the flap where resorption occurs more = interdental crest
525- In early caries, the first structure to show destruction is = interprismatic substance 526- Bence Jones proteins, punched out lesions, plasma cell infiltrate and skeletal
radiolucencies = multiple myeloma
527- Bisphosphonates are NOT used for = Osteomyelitis and multiple myeloma 528- First sign of multiple myeloma = bone pain
529- Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia and loss of lamina dura = Hyperparathyroidism 530- All developmental cysts are radiolucent except = Nasoalveolar
531- Koplik’s spots = Rubella
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532- Bullae or vesicles of mucous membrane and skin are seen in all except: Agranulocytosis 533- Peak incidence of gingivitis in children occurs at = 10-13 years
534- Irradiation to head region does not cause = Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
535- Ramsay Hunt syndrome= caused by Herpes zoster. Associated with shingles, facial nerve damage and loss of hearing in affected side
536- Most common benign tumor of the oral cavity = Fibroma
537- Most common cyst of the oral cavity = Peri-apical (radicular) cyst 538- Which cyst has the highest rate of recurrence = OKC
539- Most common malignancy of the oral cavity = SCC 540- Excessive formation of scar tissue = Keloid
541- Abnormally large pulp chambers = Regional odontodysplasia 542- Thinning of hair = Hypothyroidism
543- Rubella encephalopathy = Acquired
544- Strawberry tongue = Scarlet fever and fungiform papillae involved
545- Most common tumor of minor salivary glands = Adenoid cyctic carcinoma
546- Not a differential diagnosis in dentinogenesis imperfecta = Enamel hypoplasia (seen in Type 1 Amelogenesis imperfecta)
547- Ectopic eruption most common in = Max. 1st Molars
548- Triad of hand-schuler-christian disease includes lesions of bone, exophthalmos and = diabetes insipidus
549- For balancing side = 3 cusps should touch but not canine 550- Protrusive record is made for = horizontal condylar guidance
551- Christensen phenomenon = Space that forms in the posterior teeth during anterior movement of mandible
552- Oral cytology is not useful in the diagnosis of = Lipoma 553- Split papule on lower lip = mucous patch
554- Stigmata of congenital syphilis does NOT include = Cleft lip 555- What is disadvantage of autograft? Second surgery 556- For big osseous defects= autograft
557- Intra-oral carcinoma does not present as = Abscess
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558- Melkersson Rosenthal syndrome = facial paralysis, chelitis granulomatosa and SCROTAL TONGUE
559- Ghon complex = Primary of childhood tuberculosis 560- Striae of Wickham = Lichen planus
561- Which fluoride for porcelain something = Neutral Sodium fluoride 562- Green and orange stains on teeth = Poor oral hygiene
563- Primary canines have a longer MESIAL cusp ridge compared with permanent canines in which, DISTAL cusp ridge is longer.
564- Curve of Spee = Anterior-posterior curvature of the mandibular occlusal plane 565- Curve of Wilson = Medio-lateral U-shaped curve of upper and lower posterior teeth 566- Compensating curve = is under dentists’ control. Helps provide a balanced occlusion 567- In centric position = bilateral balanced occlusion. All cusps interdigitate.
Contacts in a Balanced Occlusion:
► Cusp-to-fossa contact in centric occlusion (MICP) in an ideal Class I occlusion.
► During lateral excursions, opposing cusps contact on the WORKING SIDE. BULL
► During lateral excursions, on the balancing side, maxillary lingual cusps (lingual inclines) contact mandibular facial cusps (lingual inclines). LUBL
568- PID length changed from 8 inch to 16 inch, so the resultant beam is ¼ as intense.
569- PID length changed from 16 inch to 8 inch, so the resultant beam is 4 times intense 570- Base of incision in gingivectomy = coronal to mucogingival junction
571- Serial extraction is done when arch length discrepancy is over 10 mm 572- Normal maxilla and retruded mandible = SNA 82o and SNB <80o
573- 8 yr old, both second primary molar missing. How to maintain space? Lingual arch 574- 40 years old patient bilateral posterior crossbite , what would be the way to correct the
problem Quad Helix or surgery
575- In young patients (mixed dentition), what is used to correct cross-bite = Quadhelix (it causes expansion of jaw)
576- Tongue blade appliance used in = anterior crossbite
577- Causes of anterior crossbite = Skeletal (mandibular hyperplasia and maxillary hypoplasia) 578- Hypercementosis = Most common in premolars and in Paget’s disease
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579- Ground glass appearance = Fibrous dysplasia
580- In molar area, the lingual flange of mandibular denture is determined by = Mylohyoid 581- The mandibular flange (lateral to retromolar area) is determined by = Masseter
582- Occlusal morphology determinants, what is correct: Increased overjet, flatter posterior cusps
583- Pt had fracture and numbness on side on nose cheeks...fracture site? Floor of orbit 584- If kid complained and whined in the beginning but at the end were very good: you
compliment
585- Aversive conditioning= punishment to deter unwanted behavior ex. Hand over mouth 586- The free gingival graft receives its nutrients from the viable connective tissue bed.
587- Free gingival graft is used for root coverage and increasing the zone of attached gingiva.
588- Main reason for failure of free gingival graft = failure of blood supply. The second reason is infection
589- Most common donor site for free gingival graft = Palate.
590- First Endo done and then Perio treatment
591- Porphyria (Diagnosis) = Child presents with red urine, purplish-brown teeth, sensitivity to sunlight, blisters and swelling on face and hands when exposed to sunlight
592- Discolored teeth are seen in all these = Porphyria (purplish-brown), cystic fibrosis (yellowish-brown) and erythroblastosis fetalis (blue-greenish)
593- RH hump = Green or blue hue seen in teeth of erythroblastosis fetalis
594- Emergency treat of a kid that has ingested large amount of fluoride: induce vomiting and call 911, have him drunk lots of milk or Ca containing liquid. DO NOT give sodium
bicarbonate
595- For adults, the average LETHAL dose of fluoride is = 4-5 grams
596- Incisal and coronal parts to be matched in porcelain metal crowns done by = Firing under high temperature
597- Lethal dose of fluoride in infants is = 0.25 g (250 mg) 598- Most fluoride is absorbed from = Stomach
599- Fluoride is excreted via = Kidneys
600- Patient is very young and fearful first time you meet them – try to talk to them going down at their height
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601- Pits and fissure sealants are best retained on = Maxillary and mandibular bicuspids 602- A patient says that, “Even if there is some pain, it will be brief. I have effective methods of
coping.” The patient reminds himself of this during dental procedures. This patient’s statement exemplifies which strategy? Rational response
603- Band and loop is most often use when the primary 1M is lost and the distal shoe is for unilateral primary 2M lost
604- Which of the following describes ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)? Effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
605- A patient has a smooth! red! protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue. Microscopic examination reveals a stratified squamous epithelium covering loose! fibrous connective tissue with many thin-walled vascular spaces. What is it? Hemangioma
606- A 77 years old female 110 lbs. weight requires removal of mandibular teeth under local anesthesia. She is apprehensive. The appropriate dose of IV diazepam to sedate her? 5 mg
607- Most common tooth to get plaque: Mandibular incisors 608- Stippling of gingiva indicates = degree of keratinization
609- Stratification specific keratins present in gingival epithelium are: K5 and K14 610- The gingival fiber group which inserts in two adjacent teeth is the: Trans-septal
609- Stratification specific keratins present in gingival epithelium are: K5 and K14 610- The gingival fiber group which inserts in two adjacent teeth is the: Trans-septal