BP Aviation Audit Checklist

(1)

15 April 2013

S&OR Audit

Aviation Audit Protocol

Conformance to Requirements questions

(‘Checklist’)

(2)

Programme: Group Defined Practice Last Revision Date: _{15 April 2013} Programme Element: Aviation – Annex 1

Conformance to requirements Page 2 of 56

Section 3 Safety Management

3.1 Regulatory requirements

1. Has the operator, for the grant of an air operator’s certificate established a safety management system appropriate to the size and complexity of the operation, for the proactive management of safety, that integrates the management of operations and technical systems with financial and human resource management, and that reflects quality assurance principles? (Section 3.1)

3.2 OGP requirements

2. Are SMS requirements in place at the time a Contract for Aviation Services, or effective Call Off Contract, or prior to a One Time flight being conducted? (Section 3.2)

3. Does the contracted operator comply with applicable national safety management system regulations? (Section 3.2)

4. As a minimum or where national regulations have not yet been mandated for safety management systems, do the owned or contracted aircraft operators meet the SMS requirements detailed in table 1 of the GDP? (Section 3.2)

3.3 Safety management system elements

5. Does the contracted operator’s SMS contain the following required elements and relationships listed? (Section 3.3.A)

a) Leadership Commitment – Active SMS involvement and support from an informed company leadership.

b) Policy, accountabilities & KPI’s – A defined HSE policy, based on a “Just” culture, defined responsibilities for safety management and Key Performance Indicators (KPI’s).

c) Documented Procedures - Documented, detailed procedures covering all SMS activities and processes and more broadly documented procedures for safety critical tasks related to aircraft operations, including flight operations, aircraft maintenance and ground operations.

d) Personnel & Competence – Appointment of key safety personnel, with defined competence requirements. Sufficient resources to manage and operate an effective SMS.

e) Safety Communications – A range and hierarchy of safety communication processes to enable an effective, two way flow of safety information

throughout the company.

f) Safety Reporting & Investigation – Safety reporting procedures covering regulatory required reports and lower level incidents and occurrences and an investigation process to generate and follow to closure, internal

(3)

g) Management of Change – A defined procedure to manage the risks

associated with significant change related to aircraft operations, including key personnel.

h) Hazard/Risk Management – See section 3.4 for more detail.

i) Quality Assurance (QA)– An internal process focused on providing confidence that the risk controls specified through regulation, company operating procedures and the risk management process are effective within all flight operations, maintenance and ground operations activities. See Section 3.6 for more details.

j) Senior Management Review – A management review process based on a defined meeting schedule, that gives senior managers visibility of the SMS activity, in particular safety reporting, hazard management and QA issues. 6. Have the relevant elements been coordinated to ensure actions complement one

another and support the effectiveness of the whole SMS? (Section 3.3.A)

7. Does the contracted operator conduct and communicate regularly scheduled safety meetings, not less that quarterly? (Section 3.3.B)

8. Does the contracted operator conduct informal post-flight debriefings by crewmember? (Section 3.3.C)

9. Does the contracted operator’s SMS apply to flight operations, maintenance and facilities, as well as any other areas deemed appropriate by the operator? (Section 3.3.D)

3.4 Hazard/risk management process

10. Does the contracted operator maintain hazard/risk management process that contains the elements identified in section 3.4.A? (Section 3.4.A)

11. Does the Hazard/ Risk management process identify and address both generic, mission specific and location specific hazards? (Section 3.4.A)

12. Are the hazards recorded in a format that shows the risk assessment score assigned to each hazard? (Section 3.4.A)

13. Are the hazards recorded in a format that links the hazards to specific (bowtie) recovery measures? (Section 3.4.A)

14. Are the hazards recorded in a format that provides a document reference for the control and recovery measures? (Section 3.4.A)

15. Are the hazards recorded in a format that assigns a responsible individual to each control? (Section 3.4.A)

16. Is the Hazard/Risk Management process demonstrably linked to the operators Safety Reporting and Investigation process, its Management of Change process, and to the QA function? (Section 3.4.A)

(4)

17. Is the process subjected to periodic management review? (Section 3.4.A)

18. Has the contracted operator conducted a safety and operational risk assessment associated with the service to be provided under the contract? (Section 3.4.B) 19. When there is a requirement to land offsite, has the contracted operator conducted a

risk assessment to assure safe operations to, from and within the operating area? (Section 3.4.C)

20. Does the contracted operator have a written mitigation plan implemented to address the identified risks? (Section 3.4.D)

21. Does the contracted operator’s risk assessment include the following? (Section 3.4.E)

a) Emergency response planning.

b) Aircraft performance and equipment fit. c) Passenger handling.

d) Flight following.

e) Operations and maintenance facilities used in support of the contract. f) Spares required for the contracted operation.

g) Operating environment, hostile versus non-hostile. h) Route to be flown from origin to destination.

Note: When portions of a flight already have documented requirements addressing risk (e.g., origins or destinations with defined approach and departure procedures) or portions of a flight are common with other flights (e.g., overwater routes) then generic risk assessments may be applied to those portions.

i) Management structure for the contracted operation. j) Employee competence and training.

3.5 Incident and accident reporting requirements

22. Does the contracted operator report all of the following, whether or not they occurred while under contract for aviation services with BP? (Section 3.5.A)

a) Aircraft accidents. b) Injuries.

c) Serious incidents. d) Near misses.

3.6 Quality assurance

23. Does the contracted operator have a documented quality assurance system? (Section 3.6)

(5)

24. Does the QA system have an internal evaluation/audit programme encompassing all safety and quality critical activities within flight operations, ground operations and maintenance. (Section 3.6)

25. Does the QA system include the auditing of processes, procedures, documentation,

training and records. (Section 3.6)

26. Are Audit activities scheduled and conducted at planned intervals that establish conformity with regulatory and management system requirements? (Section 3.6) 27. Are the results of previous audits, including the implementation and effectiveness of

corrective action, included within the scope of the program? (Section 3.6)

28. Is the internal audit program managed at the local operational level? (Section 3.6) 29. Is the internal audit program subject to periodic management review? (Section 3.6) 30. Are the QA departmental procedures, duties, responsibilities and reporting

relationships described in the Operations Manual, Maintenance manual or a separate QA manual? (Section 3.6)

3.7 Environmental management

31. Is the contracted operator at all times compliant with local and/or national regulatory requirements related to Environmental management controls? (Section 3.7)

32. Does the operator have an effective procedure to effectively manage the hazard of aircraft noise? (Section 3.7)

(6)

Notes:

_____________________________________________

____________________________________________

(7)

Section 4 Aircraft Operations General

4.3 Pilots

4.3.1 Qualifications and experience levels

1. When pilots do not meet the recommended flying experience and qualifications detailed Appendix 5A, is there a mechanism to obtain a dispensation providing mitigating factors in place? (Section 4.3.1.A)

2. When dispensation is requested, are full details of an individual’s experience and qualifications under the headings shown in the tables submitted to the Aviation Advisor for assessment and consideration prior to agreeing or otherwise such a dispensation? (Section 4.3.1.A)

3. Has the guidance of the Aviation Advisor been sought to ensure the validity of captaincy under supervision”, or “P1 U/S” as it is sometimes called, to count towards captaincy time, usually counting as half captaincy time. Before such an arrangement can be agreed during the progression of a co-pilot towards captaincy? (Section 4.3.1.A)

4. Does the contracted operator use only crewmembers who meet the experience and qualifications outlined in the OGP AMG, Appendix 5A? (Section 4.3.1.B)

5. If using Appendices 5B and 5C in the OGP AMG, has deviation been obtained using the deviation process outlined in GDP 0.0-0001? (Section 4.3.1.C)

4.3.2 Alternative to OGP recommended experience levels

6. If an approved operators competency based training management system is used as

an alternative to pilot experience levels how are the following conditions met? (Section 4.3.2)

a) Establishment of a formal modular competency based progression scheme based on guidance in Appendix 5B and 5C.

b) Inclusion of ATPL Theory examination and elements for role specific training. c) Use of an ‘in depth’ audit of the operator’s training system that addresses

specified topics.

d) Use of an Aviation Advisor audit plan.

e) Provisions for addressing total time on type for new aircraft, as applicable. f) Conditions for competency based training management system.

4.3.3 Use of freelance pilots

7. If the freelancer’s time between engagements exceeds time between required OPCs, has the training programme applicable to all company pilots been applied? (Section 4.3.3.A)

(8)

8. Has the freelance pilot’s competence and suitability been formally endorsed by the senior management of the contracted company? (Section 4.3.3.A)

4.3.4 pilots flying more than one aircraft type

9. Are pilots prohibited from flying more than one type or variant during any duty day? (Section 4.3.4)

4.3.5 Medicals

10. Do all pilots hold a valid medical certificate? (Section 4.3.5)

11. Does the maximum interval between examinations exceed 12 months? (Section 4.3.5)

4.3.6 Payroll/salary

12. Are Aircrew personnel remunerated on the basis of hours or miles flown? (Section 4.3.6)

4.4 Maintenance personnel 4.4.1 Qualifications

13. Does the contracted operator only use maintenance personnel who meet the experience and qualifications outlined in the OGP AMG, Appendix 5D1-3, when contracted for aviation services that are in scope of GDP 3.7-0001? (Section 4.4.1)

4.4.2 Experience levels

14. If the contracted operator employs a mix of licenced and unlicensed or recently licenced personnel, is the proportion of personnel having Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) privileges to others, sufficiently high to ensure adequate supervision of work is provided at all times? (Section 4.4.2.1)

15. Is there a documented maintenance personnel training plan? (Section 4.4.2.2.a) 16. Does the plan include formal training? (basic educational qualifications for entry into

regulator approved maintenance training course(s) in respect of the license categories desired). (Section 4.4.2.2.a)

17. Is the training provided by an approved training organisation? (Section 4.4.2.2.a) 18. Is there a relevant and adequately supervised ‘On-the-job training’ program? (Section

(9)

4.4.3 Avoidance of fatigue in maintenance personnel

19. Have the following been applied to all engineering staff?

a) Total work periods do not exceed 12 hours in a 24 hour period? (Section 4.4.3.1)

b) If necessary, does the Head of Maintenance approve work period extensions on a case-by-case basis? (Section 4.4.3.1)

c) If night maintenance is necessary, is the bulk of work completed by the shifts on duty up to midnight, with the residue completed by a swing shift covering the period from approximately 2300 to 0700 hours? (Section 4.4.3.2)

d) Is each work shift followed by a minimum 8 hour rest period? (Section 4.4.3.3) e) If working a working a 24-hour split shift on line operations, is at least 6 hours

rest provided excluding travel? (Section 4.4.3.3)

f) Is entitlement for days off a minimum of 7 per month of which at least 4 in a minimum of 2-day periods? (Section 4.4.3.3)

g) When the location or climate is arduous has this been increased to minimize fatigue? (Section 4.4.3.3)

h) Has the “time on site, time off site” routine been set up to ensure that

maintenance personnel working under these conditions do not stay in the field for prolonged periods in locations such as seismic camps, where it is not feasible to provide other than the bare accommodation necessities? (Section 4.4.3.4)

4.5 Maintenance requirements

4.5.1 Quality assurance and quality control

20. Are aircraft operated on a BP contract maintained in accordance with a maintenance program approved by the national legislative authority? (Section 4.5.1.A)

21. If an aircraft has been repaired following an accident, has it been repaired or overhauled to Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEM) specifications? (Section 4.5.1.B)

4.5.2 Requirement for duplicate inspections/required inspection items (RII)

22. Does the contracted operator have a duplicate inspections/Required Inspection Items (RII) programme applicable to all aircraft? (Section 4.5.2.B)

23. Does the operator contract require duplicate inspections? (Section 4.5.2.B)

24. When away from main operating &/or maintenance bases are pilots utilized for RII? If yes, is this procedure documented in the MPM? (Section 4.5.2.B)

25. Does the contracted operator utilize pilots to perform inspection duties? (Section 4.5.2.B)

(10)

4.5.3 Aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

Do flight crews and maintenance personnel have an aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Minimum Departure Standard (MDS) for the appropriate aircraft type

available for reference? (Section 4.5.3)

26. Has the MEL been approved by the local airworthiness authority? (Section 4.5.3)

4.6 Drugs and alcohol policy

27. Does the contracted operator and sub-contractors have a formally documented policy on the use/abuse of alcohol, medical drugs and narcotic? (Section 4.6)

28. Does the contracted operator give guidance to staff on which commonly available medical drugs, prescribed or otherwise, may impair an individual’s ability to perform in the cockpit or workplace? (Section 4.6)

29. Does the contracted operator comply with National legislation/ guidelines regarding drugs and alcohol? (Section 4.6)

(11)

Notes:

_____________________________________________

____________________________________________

(12)

Section 5 Helicopter Operations

5.1 Helicopter standards

1. Has the BP Entity in consultation with the EAA assessed the aircraft equipment fit listed in OGP AMG appendix 7 and 10, and any other equipment required for the operational area of the aircraft to produce an aircraft specification for the contract? (Section 5.1.1.A)

2. Has this assessment been approved by the SAA? (Section 5.1.1.B)

3. Are the contracted operator’s aircraft equipped with the “M and R”, minimum and recommended equipment as noted in the AMG Appendix 7? (Section 5.1.1.C) 4. Has, new technology that provides an equivalent capability and functionality, for a

particular system, been approved for use following a risk assessment? (Section 5.1.1.D)

5. Are piston-powered aircraft prohibited from carrying passengers? (Section 5.1.2) 6. Are Multi-engine helicopters capable of sustaining a 1% net climb gradient at or

above the lowest safe altitude with One Engine Inoperative (OEI) being used? (Section 5.1.3.A)

7. Has the BP entity contracted for twin-engine turbine powered helicopters that are equipped and currently certified to operate in instrument meteorological conditions? (Section 5.1.3.B)

8. Has the BP entity contracted for two pilots who are current and certified to operate the helicopter in instrument meteorological conditions? (Section 5.1.3.C)

9. Are all of the following prohibited under the GDP 3.7-0001:

a) Multi-engine helicopters without single-engine climb performance. (Section 5.1.4.A)

b) Single-engine helicopters. (Section 5.1.4.B)

c) Single pilot operated helicopters. (Section 5.1.4.C)

10. Has a Risk Assessment been completed to determine if exposure suits are to be worn if the sea temperature is less than 10°C? (Section 5.1.5)

5.2 Helicopter performance classes

11. If the contracted operator is using Performance Class 2 helicopters, has the operation demonstrated, either separately, or as part of its Safety Case that the probability of power unit failure during the exposure time at take-off and landing from

(13)

5.3 Fuel planning

12. For IFR operations, does the contracted operator plan a fuel reserve to be sufficient for the leg to the destination, plus the leg to an alternate plus 10% trip fuel plus 30 minutes with an allowance for start-up and taxi? (Section 5.3.1)

13. Is this fuel computation, to the alternate, calculated at the low altitude cruise fuel consumption? (Section 5.3.1)

14. For VFR operations, does the contracted operator plan a fuel sufficient for the

proposed route plus 30 minutes at the cruising speed consumption with an allowance made for start-up and taxi? (Section 5.3.2)

5.4 Use of offshore alternates

15. Has the BP entity conducted a Risk Assessment for “Use of offshore alternates” and put in place mitigations to identified risks? (Section 5.4.A.1 and 5.4.A.2)

16. Has this Risk Assessment and mitigation plan been agreed by the EAA? (Section 5.4.B)

17. Are the following conditions met regarding the use of offshore alternates? (Section 5.4.B)

a) An offshore alternate shall be used only after a Point of No Return (PNR). Prior to PNR, onshore alternates shall be used.

b) One engine inoperative landing capability shall be attainable at the alternate. c) Deck availability shall be guaranteed. The dimensions, configuration and

obstacle clearance of individual helidecks or other sites shall be assessed in order to establish operational suitability for use as an alternate by each helicopter type proposed to be used.

d) Weather minima shall be established taking accuracy and reliability of meteorological information into account.

e) The helicopter Minimum Equipment List shall reflect essential requirements for this type of operation.

f) An offshore alternate shall not be selected unless the operator has published a procedure in the Operations Manual approved or accepted by the regulatory Authority.

5.6 Flight and duty time

18. Unless more stringent limits are imposed by regulatory authorities, are the limits listed in the guide applied for both flight and duty time? (Section 5.6.1)

19. Do the pilots’s flight and duty time, including time that might be flown in support of other companies/customers exceed? (Section 5.6.3)

a) 10 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period. b) 60 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.

(14)

c) 120 hours in any 28 consecutive day period. d) 1,200 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.

20. Does the contracted operator schedule rotating crews to duty upon their arrival to the base of operation after prolonged travel flights? (Section 5.6.5)

21. After a prolonged travel flight as a minimum are the requirements of paragraph 5.6.4 met? (Section 5.6.5)

5.7 Offshore helicopter life jackets and aircraft homing devices

22. Are constant wear life jackets worn for all offshore operations? (Section 5.7.A) 23. Do flight crew constant wear life jackets have homing devices with voice capability

and GPS? (Section 5.7.B)

5.8 Rotors running refueling/helicopter rapid refueling

24. For Rotors Running Refueling (RRRF) has the contracted operator conducted a risk assessment and completed risk mitigations for the following? (Section 5.8.B)

a) Need for RRRF. b) Procedures to be used. c) Emergency planning.

25. When rotors running refuelling is authorised for both on and offshore operations, are, local management made aware of the additional risks involved and seek the OGP Member’s Aviation Advisor advice, giving sufficient notice for comment or to render practical assistance? (Section 5.8.B)

26. If it is an operational requirement to carry out rotors running refuelling does the operator ensure that there are written procedures and stipulate that all staff involved have formal training? (Section 5.8.B)

5.11 Specialist roles

27. Are only approved helicopter types, operated by Contractors approved by the OGP Member’s Aviation Advisor, used in support of seismic operations? (Section 5.11.1) 28. Are winching operations, including training, only undertaken when judged

operationally essential, and then strictly in accordance with specified procedures? (Section 5.11.2)

29. Are twin-engine helicopters always used for winch operations? (Section 5.11.2) 30. Is Out of Ground Effect (OGE) hover capability used at all stages of the operation

(15)

31. Are Marine support operations e.g. ship pilot transfer conducted in accordance with the recommendation of the International Chamber of Shipping Guide? (Section 5.11.2)

32. Is training for winch operations always conducted with full single-engine hover capabilities at the operator-designated heights ASL/ AGL? (Section 5.11.2)

(16)

Notes:

_____________________________________________

____________________________________________

(17)

Section 6 Fixed Wing Operations – public transport and aerial work

6.1 Fixed-wing aircraft standards

1. Has the entity in conjunction with the EAA assessed the aircraft equipment fit listed in the OMG AMG Appendix 7 and other equipment required for the operational area of the aircraft to produce an aircraft specification for the contract? (Section 6.1.1.A) 2. Has the assessment been approved by the SAA? (Section 6.1.1.B)

3. If new technology exists that provides an equivalent capability and functionality, for a particular system, has the new technology been approved for use by the SAA

following a risk assessment? (Section 6.1.1.C)

4. Does the contracted operator utilize multi-engine aircraft that are capable of sustaining a 1% net climb gradient at or above the lowest safe altitude with One Engine Inoperative (OEI)? (Section 6.1.3.A)

5. Does the contracted operator utilize twin-engine turbine powered aeroplanes that are equipped and currently certified to operate in instrument meteorological conditions? (Section 6.1.3.B)

6. Does the entity contract for two pilots who are current and certified to operate the aeroplane in instrument meteorological conditions. (Section 6.1.3.C)

7. Are multi engine aeroplanes without single engine performance prohibited? (Section 6.1.4)

8. Are piston powered multi engine aeroplanes prohibited? (Section 6.1.5)

6.2 Airfields

9. Does the contracted operator have a risk assessment in place in consultation with the BP entity for airfields or field landing strips, other than those certified by the National Aviation Authority (NAA)? (Section 6.2.B)

10. Does the contracted operator have mitigation measures to address the identified risks for airfields or field landing strips, other than those certified by the National Aviation Authority (NAA)? (Section 6.2.C)

6.3 Fuel planning

11. Is the contracted operator’s IFR fuel planning sufficient for the leg to destination plus the leg to an alternate, plus 10% of the above as a navigation contingency, plus 45 minutes holding fuel (30 minutes for turbine aircraft) with a contingency allowed for start-up and taxi? (Section 6.3.1)

(18)

12. Is the contracted operator’s VFR fuel planning sufficient for the proposed route plus 10% of the route fuel, plus 30 minutes at the cruising speed consumption? (Section 6.3.2)

6.4 Composition of flight crew

13. Are single pilots prohibited on BP flights? (Section 6.4)

6.5 Flying hour limits – recommended maximum

14. Does the contracted operator utilize augmented crews on transoceanic or long-range flights within national regulations? (Section 6.5.B)

15. Unless more stringent flying time, total hours of duty and mandatory rest

requirements are imposed by regulatory authorities, are the limits listed in this guide applicable to both flight and duty time? (Section 5.6.1)

16. Do pilots flight and duty times exceed? (Section 5.6.3)

• Single Pilot

8 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period. 35 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.

100 hours in any 28 consecutive day period. 1,000 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.

• Dual pilot

10 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period. 45 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.

120 hours in any 28 consecutive day period. 1,200 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.

17. Does the contracted operator schedule rotating crews to duty upon their arrival to the base of operation after prolonged travel flights? (Section 5.6.5)

18. After a day duty period, does each pilot have a minimum of 12 hours rest? (Section 5.6.6)

(19)

Notes:

_____________________________________________

____________________________________________

(20)

Section 7 Fuel system design and management

7.1 Design, operation & inspection references

1. Does the contracted operator use National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 407 and/or UK CAP 437 for design/inspection/operational considerations and

construction or major rework of existing airbases where no local guidance exists? (Section 7.1.B.2)

7.2 Design & periodic review

2. Has the Aviation Advisor been incorporated into all preliminary and critical design processes for BP airbase refuelling system construction or modifications? (Section 7.2)

3. Has the Aviation Advisor or appropriate regulatory authority conducted an annual safety, technical and quality assurance reviews of all fuel and supporting fire suppression systems, including those provided by airports or fixed base operators? (Section 7.2)

4. Has the contracted operator conducted six month safety, technical and quality assurance reviews of all fuel and supporting fire suppression systems, including those provided by airports or fixed base operators? Are these reviews documented and any remedial actions taken? (Section 7.2)

7.3 Variances

5. Are any variances to requirements covered by the deviation process? (Section 7.3)

7.4 Fuel quality control

6. Are All fuel delivery systems fitted with filtration capable of the water blocking (Go-No-Go) type meeting the specifications of API 1583, which locks fuel flow when water is present? (Section 7.4.1)

7. Are the fuel filter canisters clearly marked with the next date of change or inspection cycle, and data recorded in an appropriate inspection record? (Section 7.4.1) 8. Are all filters replaced at nominated pressure differentials annotated as

recommended by the manufacturer, but as a minimum annually? (Section 7.4.1) 9. Are all fuel storage supplies, including drums, allowed to settle 1 hour for each 1 foot

of fuel depth after the tanks have been resupplied or barrels moved to vertical, before samples are taken and fuel is approved for use? (Section 7.4.1)

10. Are sign(s) placed on the tank(s) during settling, indicating the time at which the tank(s) can be used (settling is complete)? (Section 7.4.1)

(21)

11. Are all steel tanks lined with an approved epoxy liner unless the tanks are constructed of stainless steel? (Section 7.4.1)

12. Are all fuel supply tanks installed with a slope and have a sump drain at the tank low point for sampling purposes? (Section 7.4.1)

13. Are all fuel supply tanks equipped with a fuel quantity sight gauge? (Section 7.4.1) 14. Have all personnel involved in fuelling aircraft received formal documented initial and

recurrent training for refuelling aircraft? (Section 7.4.1)

15. Are the below listed fuel samples retained in a clear jar with a screw top, each tested for water and marked with the sample source until flights are completed for the day? (Section 7.4.2)

a) Aircraft fuel tank sumps drained and sampled into one container prior to the first flight of each day (½ litre minimum sample size, unless specified

differently by the airframe or water detection device manufacturer).Each fuel tank sump (2.0 litres).

b) Each fuel filter and monitor (2.0 litres).

c) Each fuel nozzle, prior to first refuelling of the day (2.0 litres).

16. Is fuel going into transport fuel tanks certified and has a water test been completed? (Section 7.4.2)

17. Is fuel that does not pass the water test or is not certified, rejected for use? (Section 7.4.2)

18. Does the fuel quality control system contain as a minimum guide and a daily log record the following items (Section 7.4.3)

a) The age and delivery date of storage fuel.

b) Sample and water test results from the fuel tank sumps, all filters and monitors, and all fuel nozzles.

c) Differential pressure readings.

d) Fuel Filter changes – annual as a minimum.

e) Certification of fuel, accompanied by a Certificate of Release. Has the fuel been sampled, visually inspected for appearance and contaminates, chemically tested for water and measured for density, before delivery into storage tanks. Maximum variance of the density compared to the density on the Certificate of Release not in excess of 0.003?

19. Are the interior of all tanks, tank seals, and pressure relief valves inspected on an annual basis? (Section 7.4.3)

20. Are all gauges/ pressure relief valves calibrated annually unless the manufacturer specifies differently? (Section 7.4.3)

21. Has the primary supply tank(s) and several mobile tanks (if used) been tested for microbe growth as noted below? (Section 7.4.3)

(22)

• Microbe growth testing

a) Initial testing to establish “normal” microbe level: adopt a random routine testing of a few tanks on a quarterly basis.

b) Long-term testing: once the “normal” microbe level is established as noted above, it is recommended that fuel supplies be tested on a six-month interval. c) Fuel quality indicators: if any contra-indications from tank drains are apparent,

such as dark coloured (brown, black) water, sulphide smells, water and fuel with a frothy or lacy interface, immediately conduct a test, as these strongly indicate microbial activity within the recent time span.

22. If the microbe growth test is positive, as use of the affected tank(s) suspended and the following protocol followed.

• Microbe growth treatment

a) Bulk or transport tanks: fuel tank cleaning including disinfecting the tank surfaces with Chlorex bleach (or equivalent) followed by fresh water rinsing, inspect and replace all downstream contaminated filter elements.

b) Aircraft tanks and filters: filters replaced and tanks drained and cleaned following the manufacturer recommendations.

c) Use of microbes treatments: any microbe treatments, such as “BioBar” or equivalent being used with caution and the aircraft manufacturer contacted to determine is use of such treatments are allowed for that model aircraft’s fuel. 23. Once the protocol has been followed, is a repeat microbe presence test then

completed?

24. Are the following precautions in place that involve the use and storage of drummed fuel? (Section 7.4.4)

a) Drums are tight with no broken seals prior to use.

b) Drum stock consumed within 12 months of packaging date.

c) Drums are stored with the bungs horizontally at the 9 and 3 o’clock positions, with the bung end tilted slightly lower than the opposite end (non-opening), to prevent moisture/rust formation inside the bung end of the barrel.

d) Each drum of fuel sampled and tested with water detector capsules or an approved paste to confirm no water contamination is present and visually inspected for proper colour and contaminates.

e) Pumps used for drum refuelling equipped with water blocking filtration system.

f) Pump standpipes extend no closer than 50mm (2 inches) of the drum bottom. g) Before fuelling the aircraft, a small amount of fuel pumped into a container to

remove any contaminants from the hose and nozzle.

h) The standard marking for a contaminated drum is an “X” marked on the bung end.

7.5 Rapid refuelling (refuelling with engines running)

(23)

26. Has the contracted operator’s management approved the specific circumstances in which rapid refuelling may be conducted? (Section 7.5.1)

27. Does the contracted operator’s Operations Manual include written procedures to be followed for the refuelling operation? (Section 7.5.1)

28. Have the aircrew and ground support staff completed the Operator’s training programme before refuelling is considered? (Section 7.5.1)

29. In addition to any local regulatory requirements, are the following minimal guidelines be used for rapid refuelling? (Section 7.5.2)

a) A pilot shall remain at the controls at all times.

b) A minimum of three individuals are required for the refuelling operation, one for refuelling, one for pump shut-off, and one for fire watch (with appropriate extinguisher).

c) Passengers are to disembark prior to the refuelling operation commencing. d) If for safety reasons the Pilot-in-Command decides to refuel with the

passengers on-board the aircraft, are the passengers informed of this decision and actions to take in the event of a fire?

e) Are all seat belts opened, the main exit door away from the side where refuelling is occurring be opened, and no smoking allowed?

f) Are all radios and all anti-collision lights, radar, radio altimeter, transponder and DME equipment be switched OFF?

g) Prior to removing the fuel cap and inserting the fuel nozzle into the aircraft fuel tank are grounding wires running from the fuel station and from the fuel hose to the aircraft be connected?

h) Does the Pilot-in-Command verify that all equipment is removed, the fuel cap has been securely replaced and the aircraft is properly configured for flight when the fueling procedure is completed?

7.6 Portable offshore fuel transport tanks

30. On portable offshore fuel transport tanks, does the data plate on the transporter tank state the test pressure requirement? (Section 7.6.1)

31. Is the tank within the 5 year hydrostatic test date? (Section 7.6.1) 32. Is the pressure relief valve tested annually? (Section 7.6.1)

33. Does the 12 month inspection include the following? (Section 7.6.1) a) Check for build-up of sediment or evidence of microbial growth.

b) If inspection reveals such growth or build-up of sediment exceeding 1/10 of the area of the tank bottom surface, has cleaning been accomplished? c) If the tank has an internal epoxy coating, inspect coating for evidence of

(24)

34. Are jet fuel tanks cleaned with high pressure water or steam only? (Section 7.6.1) 35. Are solvents, chemicals or detergents used to clean tanks? (Section 7.6.1)

36. Are the dates indicating the inspection/test dates stenciled on the tank? (Section 7.6.1)

(25)

Notes:

_____________________________________________

____________________________________________

(26)

Section 8 Training and Experience

8.1 Flight crew training

1. Does the contracted operator conduct flight crew training in a Synthetic Training Device (STD) that replicates the model of aircraft being flown as closely as possible? (Section 8.1.2)

2. Do the contracted operator’s pilots flying on a BP contract attend flight simulator training every 12 months? (Note: This interval may be extended to 14 months to accommodate scheduling issues). (Section 8.1.2.2)

3. Does the content of the contracted operator’s Integrated Structured Training program conform to the requirements of Appendix 5A and 5C? (Section 8.1.2.3)

4. Does the contracted operator’s Integrated Structured Training program include STD Training? (Section 8.1.2.3)

5. Does the contracted operator’s Integrated Structured Training program include a minimum of 25% in the simulator and 25% in the actual aircraft? (Section 8.1.2.3) 6. Do all contracted pilots receive annual recurrent training to the standards of

appropriate civil aviation authorities, and flight checks at not less than a frequency of every six months for long-term operations? (Section 8.1.3)

7. Do these checks include an annual instrument rating proficiency check/ renewal (where applicable), a proficiency check (including emergency drills) and an annual route check? (Section 8.1.3)

8. Do all crewmembers receive as a minimum a documented Line Check, which includes an orientation of local procedures/ policies before being scheduled for flight duties in a new location? (Section 8.1.3)

9. Does the contracted operator have an acceptable crew resource management (CRM) training programme for all two pilot operations in airplanes? (Section 8.1.4) 10. Does the contracted operator have a Dangerous Goods Awareness training program

for all pilots to ensure that they are aware of the requirements for the carriage of hazardous materials including relevant legislation, limitations and documentation? (Section 8.1.5)

11. Does the contracted operator utilize ICUS, PICUS, or P1US, for the gaining of pilot command time? (Section 8.1.6)

12. Is the ICUS, PICUS, or P1US flight time logged while flying in the Captain’s designated position? (i.e. RHS for RW and LHS for FW) (Section 8.1.6)

13. Are pilot training records and the pilot’s personal log books maintained documenting each flight performed? (Section 8.1.6)

(27)

14. Does the contracted operator have a written ICUS training program establishing the syllabus and progression program? (Section 8.1.6)

15. Does the contracted operator have an established, appropriate training program where there is a requirement to carry out routine (or emergency) flights at night? (Section 8.1.7)

16. Does the contracted operator only use dual pilot crews and are both pilots qualified and hold a current instrument rating for the helicopter type being flown? (Section 8.1.7)

17. Does the contracted operator, for night operations, utilize Captains that, in the addition to the requirements specified in Appendix 5 of this guide, have the following qualifications? (Section 8.1.7)

a) Minimum of 25 hours of night offshore time.

b) Completed within the last 12 months initial or recurrent offshore night/ IFR/ CRM/ deck landing proficiency training.

18. Does the contracted operator have all pilots maintain night/ instrument recency of 3 offshore approaches and departures, including takeoff and landing, every 90 days? (Section 8.1.7)

19. Is HUET training conducted to the OPITO standard or equivalent? (Section 8.1.8) 20. Does the contracted operator complete HUET using an underwater escape simulator

for all aircrew and frequent flying offshore passengers at intervals not to exceed 4 years if engaged in floatplane or offshore helicopter operations? (Section 8.1.8) 21. Is this training completed in conjunction with wet dingy drills using emergency

equipment similar to that installed on the aircraft? (Section 8.1.8) 22. Is the training scheduled for a minimum of one day? (Section 8.1.8)

23. Do the HUET training facilities have emergency exit mechanisms representative of the aircraft flown in offshore or water borne operations? (Section 8.1.8)

24. Where required by the BP, does the HUET also include training in the use of a ‘re-breather’ self-breathing device or other emergency air devices? (Section 8.1.8) 25. Has a risk assessment been conducted to determine the need for such breathing

devices? (Section 8.1.8)

26. Is there a documented record of the HEUT trained personnel? (Section 8.1.8) 27. Are single pilot operations not permitted? (Section 8.1.9)

28. If external load operations are likely to be required, has this been specified in the contract? (Section 8.1.10)

(28)

29. Have the pilots nominated for external load work had a competence check formally signed off by a designated check and training captain? (Section 8.1.10)

30. Do the Pilots have 300 hours of external load experience, or 300 hours of long-lining, whichever is applicable? (Section 8.1.10)

31. Was a competency recheck completed during Visual Base Check procedures or an External Load Competence Check (unless at least 10 hours of practical application has been achieved in the preceding six months)? (Section 8.1.10)

32. Do the contracted operator conducting spraying operations, for example in support of offshore oil spill response, have a written syllabus for conversion and recurrent training of aircrew engaged in spraying? (Section 8.1.10)

33. Has spray training and recency requirements been assessed by the BP’s Aviation Advisor? (Section 8.1.10)

34. Have the contracted operator’s Pilots completed a formal and recorded training scheme, plus a minimum of 10 hours of winching operations (50 hours where an exclusive SAR contract exists)? (Section 8.1.10)

35. Does the recurrent winch training include a minimum of three winch rescue

operations every 90 days utilizing a winch operator and the recovery of equipment such as a “cruciform” by grappling hook? (Section 8.1.10)

36. Have all contracted winch operators, whether full or part time met the following? (Section 8.1.10)

a) Is an employee or direct contractor of the helicopter operator?

b) Have completed a formal and recorded training scheme specifically for winchmen, including the following items?

• Basic weight and balance.

• Aircraft safety and survival equipment.

• Emergency procedures – to include winch problems, fouling of the cable, severing of the cable, use of bolt croppers etc.

• Technical details of winch operation.

• First-Aid and cold water recovery techniques including cold shock and hypothermia.

• Wet dinghy drill.

• Search & Rescue/coastguard local organization.

37. Has the wet and dry winching practical instruction included at least twenty lifts as the winch operator and twenty lifts as the winchman, and have completed recurrent training every 90 days to include an aircraft safety and survival check? (Section 81.10)

38. Does the training include over water training for pilots and crewmen to practice the approach and lower into position in reduced visual reference conditions? (Section 8.1.10)

(29)

39. Does the contracted operator carry out recency checks for all pilots after 28 or more days absence from flying? (Section 8.1.11)

8.2 Support and technical personnel requirements

40. Do the contracted operator’s technical and support personnel such as licenced/ unlicenced engineers, loadmasters, and dispatchers, helideck attendants, aerial observers, cabin crew and radio operators meet the minimum qualification and experience requirements presented in Appendix 5D1-3? (Section 8.2)

41. Does the aircraft operator provide formal, general and type training for its certifying maintenance staff to meet the minimum requirements of Section 4.4 and Appendix 5D in countries where this is not required by the national licensing authority to be licensed or type approved? (Section 8.2.1.1)

42. Does the contracted operator conduct continuation/ recurrent training at a minimum period of every three-years for maintenance personnel? (Section 8.2.1.2)

43. Does this training include but not be limited to the following? (Section 8.2.1.2) a) Changes in relevant regulatory requirements.

b) Organization procedures.

c) The standard for the products being maintained.

d) Human factors issues identified from any internal or external analyses of incidents.

e) Information on relevant airworthiness directives/bulletins or similar documents issues since the last training session.

44. Have personnel engaged on helideck related duties been provided with training that includes the provisions of the OPITO Training Guide and the experience as shown in Appendix 5D1-3? (Section 8.2.2)

45. Have refueling personnel completed a formal training course at an approved/ recommended training facility? (Section 8.2.3)

46. Do controllers undertake formal training in handling and recording radio

transmissions and any actions that may be required for normal and emergency operations? (Section 8.2.4)

47. Is there a log of air traffic control radio transmissions? (Section 8.2.4)

48. Are the contracted operator’s radio operators VHF/ HF licensed, where applicable? (Section 8.2.5)

(30)

50. When certified weather observers are required for operations under IFR or night conditions, do the observers attend periodic training to maintain certification in accordance with local requirements? (Section 8.2.6)

51. Have the contracted operator’s cabin attendants completed a formal and recorded course of training which includes coverage of the following items: (Section 8.2.7)

a) Safety Equipment. b) First Aid.

c) Aircraft knowledge. d) Emergency Procedures. e) Loading Procedures.

f) Documentation and the Handling of Dangerous Goods. 52. Is cabin attendant training carried out annually? (Section 8.2.7)

53. Is cabin attendant training recorded formally and a syllabus available for reference? (Section 8.2.7)

54. Does cabin attendants’ training include the full range of Emergency & Survival training as completed by pilots? (Section 8.2.7)

55. Are dispatchers / traffic clerks completely familiar with the operation of aeroplanes or helicopters? (Section 8.2.8)

56. Do dispatchers/traffic clerks have a good understanding of basic weight and balance problems and manifest documentation? (Section 8.2.8)

57. Are ‘load masters’ provided with the same basic training as that of the ‘crew’ and given crew status? (Section 8.2.9)

58. Are the load masters trained for load and balance on the aircraft type in use?(Section 8.2.9)

8.3 Training records and programmes

59. Does the aircraft operator maintain comprehensive training documentation including details of training programmes and frequency and individual records per person? (Section 8.3)

60. Has the aircraft operator provided the following to the OGP member for long term or sole use contracts: (Section 8.3)

a) A list of personnel that meet the OGP members requirements?

b) Details of personnel changes with review and acceptance by the OGP members aviation advisor?

61. Has the training records been reviewed periodically by the OGP member’s aviation advisor? (Section 8.3)

(31)

Notes:

_____________________________________________

____________________________________________

(32)

Section 9 Passengers and Freight

9.1 General

1. Does the contracted operator prohibit smoking on on-board all aircraft? (Section 9.1.1)

2. Are personnel not under medical supervision allowed to board an aircraft under the influence of alcohol or drugs? (Section 9.1.2)

3. Does the contracted operator’s pilot in command (PIC) verify that fuel and oil requirements are correct, and weight and centre of gravity limits of the aircraft have been calculated and within the limits for flight prior to take-off? (Section 9.1.4)

9.2 Cargo

4. Do ‘cargo only’ contracted operators carry passengers? (Section 9.2)

5. Does the contracted operator verify the contents of each piece of cargo offered for transport by air? (Section 9.2.1)

6. Is all cargo weighed separately and manifested? (Section 9.2.1)

7. If cargo is permitted on passenger-carrying flights is it either In a designated cargo compartment and/ or tied down with inspected and tracked cargo restraints? (Section 9.2.2.A)

8. When cargo is inside the passenger cabin, does the cargo impede access to emergency exits? (Section 9.2.2.B)

9. In those cases where freight is carried in the passenger compartment, is a risk assessment completed? (Section 9.2.2.C)

10. In those cases where freight is carried in the passenger compartment, are actions put in place to mitigate any risk? (Section 9.2.2.C)

11. Is loose paper or mail carried in a weighted bag and not loaded as a loose item? (Section 9.2.2.D)

12. Does the contracted operator provide pilots with guidance regarding all aspects of transporting dangerous goods? (Section 9.2.3)

13. Are these instructions contrary to any pertinent regulatory documents? (Section 9.2.3)

14. If hazardous materials are carried, is the Pilot-In-Command provided with a ‘Shippers Declaration of Dangerous Goods’ form and comply with the Operator’s Operations Manual? (Section 9.2.3)

(33)

9.3 Manifests

15. Is a passenger manifest raised by the contracted operator for each flight and have the following minimum information recorded? (Section 9.3.1)

a) Name of each passenger. b) Passenger’s company affiliation.

c) Passenger weight and that of personal baggage. d) Aircraft registration.

e) Weight of cargo.

16. If additions or deletions occur, is the manifest revised to accurately reflect the names of the persons on board? (Section 9.3.3)

17. Is this manifest left with or relayed to a responsible party, prior to departure, with instructions to retain until the trip is completed? (Section 9.3.3)

18. Do designated personnel check the actual passenger names versus the pre-planned listing of personnel to be transported? (Section 9.3.4)

9.4 Passenger weights

19. Does the contracted operator use actual body weights (including hand carried baggage) for aeroplanes with a maximum gross take-off weight (MGTOW) less than 5700kg? (Section 9.4.1)

20. Does the contracted operator use actual body weights (including hand carried baggage) for all helicopters regardless of MGTOW? (Section 9.4.1)

21. Does the contracted operator use actual weights for all checked baggage when preparing the manifests for all aircraft? (Section 9.4.3)

9.5 Passenger briefings

22. Does the contracted operator properly brief passengers on emergency procedures, and other safety matters, prior to flight? (Section 9.5.1)

23. Does the contracted operator provide a briefing in the local language as well as English? (Section 9.5.2)

24. Does the passenger safety briefing include, but not be limited to, the following? (Section 9.5.3)

a) A general description of the aircraft and the danger areas of jet engines, and turning propellers on aeroplanes, and the dangers of helicopter main and tail rotors.

b) Procedures for boarding and exiting the aircraft.

c) Smoking is not permitted around the aircraft/tarmac area, or during flight. d) Location of non-smoking and fasten seat belt illuminating signs.

(34)

e) Seat belts and shoulder harnesses, including the following: • Location and use of seatbelts.

• Inversion of the seatbelt.

25. Does the passenger safety briefing include the location and operation of oxygen masks as applicable? (Section 9.5.3)

26. Does the passenger safety briefing include means of communication between the crew and the passengers, and actions in the event of an emergency? (Section 9.5.3) 27. Does the passenger safety briefing include the following? (Section 9.5.3)

a) Location and operation of doors, emergency exits emergency and lifesaving equipment such as fire extinguishers, first aid kit(s), life vests, life rafts, survival gear, and emergency radio equipment (ELT and EPIRBs). b) Brace position for emergency landings.

c) Passengers to remain seated until the crew/ground crew open the doors and the captain tells them to disembark.

d) Location and review of passenger briefing card. Information contained in the briefing card shall focus on safety equipment and emergency procedures. e) Proper stowage of any hand carried items.

f) Use of personal electronic devices (laptops, personal organisers, etc.) and guidelines for use.

28. Does the briefing include the following additional points for all helicopter passengers? (Section 9.5.4)

a) Passengers shall not disembark until instructed by the pilot, Helideck Landing Officer (HLO) (or Helideck Attendant), or other designated personnel.

b) Never approach a helicopter from the rear. Do not proceed any further aft of the baggage compartment door than is necessary for the retrieval of baggage or freight.

c) Always approach and leave the helicopter from the side, within view of the pilot or crewmember.

d) Hand carry hats, glasses, and caps to prevent them from being blown away by the main rotor wash.

e) Long objects over 1 meter must be carried flat to avoid contacting the main rotor blade.

f) Under no circumstances will passengers depart or approach a helicopter on the up-slope (high) side when departing on slope landings.

g) Under no circumstance, depart or approach a helicopter during start-up or shutdown.

h) Passengers shall be provided hearing protection and be instructed on its use. i) Only small, soft items such as a paperback book shall be carried inside the

passenger cabin of helicopters; hard-cased items that could be missile hazards or loose items that could be blown away such as newspapers shall not be carried.

29. Have the following additional helicopter briefing items for offshore flights been covered? (Section 9.5.5)