1) Disposal of vegetable and animal waste by
natural decomposition is called:
a) composting
b) surface impoundment
c) land application
2) The figure on the right indicate the types of
material that went into landfills in 2001. Which piece of the landfill pie (a, b, c, d, or e)
3) Leachate is a major environmental hazard
associated with solid waste disposal sites. How is leachate most commonly produced?
a) leachate is gas that leaks from a hazardous waste disposal site
b) nuclear decay of otherwise harmless material in a dump site
c) leakage from deep-well disposal sites
d) chemical reaction between waste material and the bedrock
4) An option for waste management that has
the greatest negative impact on air quality is:
a) composting
b) recycling
c) source reduction
d) alchemy
5) Disposing of biodegradable toxic waste by land
application is a cheap and efficient method because: a) the concept of dilute and disperse is adequate for
toxic waste
b) these materials are degraded by the microorganisms in the soil
c) there is no limit to the amount of waste that can be applied to the soil
d) the waste is a good fertilizer
6) Why has Europe been more successful in recycling than the U.S.?
I. landfill fees in Europe are much higher than in the U.S.
II. the manufacturers are responsible for the disposal cost of packaging and industrial goods they produce
III. recycling is required by law in almost all European countries a) I only
7) The four main characteristics of hazardous
waste that make it hazardous, according to
the Resource Conservation & Recovery Act
of 1979 include all of the following except:
a) reactivity
b) corrosivity
c) ignitability
d) toxicity
8) Love Canal, near Niagara Falls, New York, illustrates which of the following principles or problems?
a) disposal of hazardous chemical waste in an uncontrolled site
b) economic mineral reserves from sewage sludge
c) wild species re-establishing themselves in an urban setting
9) Microbial breakdown refers to:
a) the use of living organisms to clean up hazardous substances in the environment
b) the use of living organisms to perform chemical processing or to produce material such as animal food
c) the concentration of toxic chemicals in an organism higher than are normally found in the environment d) the process of converting biomass into energy
through fermentation
10) The phenomenon in which city centers are
hotter on average than surrounding areas is
called:
a) green belt
b) heat island
c) situation
11) The location on a river that has many
advantages for early cities, including: water
power, navigation potential, and potential for
bridge building
a) green belt
b) heat island
c) situation
12) In a natural ecosystem, evaporation is an
important mechanism for:
a) storing solar energy
b) producing energy
c) getting rid of too much surface water
d) heating the surface
13) Cities tend to be warmer than rural areas because of:
I. reduced evaporation and transpiration II. burning of fossil fuels
III. increased albedo of the ground surface a) I only
14) What does the “tragedy of the commons”
lead to?
a) indirect costs
b) policy instruments
c) marginal costs
14) Use of DDT as a pesticide in the 1940s and 50s led to widespread damage to various wildlife
species, from sharks to eagles. Which of the
following terms most closely describes the adverse environmental impact of DDT use:
a) direct cost
b) environmental intangible c) discount factor
d) externality
15) Biological resources are threatened by the
so-called “tragedy of the commons” when they occur in: a) Third World countries
b) land owned by multinational corporations, with no specific national loyalty
c) areas with access open to many different parties d) privately owned land
16) The Chagos Archipelago contains the Great
Chagos Bank, the largest atoll structure in the world. What the major function of the Great Chagos Bank that makes it a global commons?
a) home to rare reptile species b) tuna fishery
c) international boat racing events d) eco tourism
17) In a total free-market system, commercial
enterprises maximize profits by paying only
____________ costs and ignoring
_____________ .
a) indirect; direct costs
b) intangible; externalities
c) direct; externalities
18) Mineral deposit that forms as rough
spheres on the ocean floor are called:
a) secondary enrichment
b) sulfide deposit
c) biohydrometallurgy
d) mineral reserve
19) Artificial enrichment of mineral ores by
injection of microscopic organisms into the
rock is called:
a) secondary enrichment
b) sulfide deposit
20) Minerals may be concentrated by
crystallization within a magma chamber.
What force concentrates the crystallized
minerals?
a) heat
b) pressure
c) gravity
d) fission
21) Mineral resources are:
a) infinite
b) nonrenewable
c) chemical byproducts
22) Evaporites form:
a) in nutrient-rich open ocean water
b) in enclosed or semi-enclosed saline waters
by evaporation
c) under high pressure
23) Which of the following refers to the
persistent weather pattern that concentrates
ozone-destroying chemicals in the
stratosphere over Antarctica:
a) polar stratospheric clouds
b) hydrofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
c) Dobson unit
24) Which of the following refers to 1 part
ozone per billion particles of atmosphere:
a) polar stratospheric clouds
b) hydrofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
c) Dobson unit
d) polar vortex
25) Which range shown (a, b, c, d, or e)
represents the position of the stratosphere? a
26) Chloroflourocarbons (CFCs) that travel to
the stratosphere pose a threat because:
a) they are highly reactive and caustic
b) they contribute to photochemical smog
c) they are a major greenhouse gas
27) Name the international agreement that
required the phase-out of ozone-depleting
chemicals:
a) Geneva Convention
b) Rio Conference
28) Ozone is the only known gas that absorbs:
a) UVA radiation
b) UVB radiation
c) UVC radiation
d) all of the above
29) What is the natural source of ozone in the
stratosphere?
a) photochemical reaction
b) combustion of fossil fuels
c) volcanic eruptions
30) Ozone blocks ultraviolet light. What
becomes of the UV radiation afterwards?
a) it becomes heat in the stratosphere
b) it becomes infrared radiation
c) it is reflected to space
d) it is scattered so that its effects on the
surface are reduced
31) Ozone is the _________ variety of oxygen.
a) ionic
b) diatomic
c) inert
32) This is an ailment caused by long-term
exposure to air with high concentrations of
soot or carbon-rich dust:
a) formaldehyde
b) sick building syndrome
c) chimney effect
33) Twelve days after a sample of radon gas
(with a half-life of about four days) is emitted
into a sealed room, __________ of the
original amount remains.
a) 1/2
33) Reduced air circulation on aircraft has all of the following effects, dangers, or tradeoffs except: a) increased CO2 levels
b) decreased fuel efficiency
c) increased danger of the transmittal of bacterial infections
d) decreased on-board humidity
34) Which of the following indoor air pollutants contains NOx, CO, hydrogen cyanide, etc. and results in an estimated 43,000 deaths per year in the U.S. from lung cancer and heart disease?
a) mold
b) cleaning solvents
35) All of the following are methods to reduce
the concentration of radon in a home
except
:
a) sealing cracks or openings in foundation
b) ventilation or suction beneath foundation
c) better insulation and weatherization
d) filtering of well water
36) In a large office building, a number of
employees begin complaining of headaches,
dizziness, and nausea at about the same
time. This is an example of:
a) Legionnaires’ disease
b) high concentrations of radon gas
c) chimney effect
37) Asbestos is hazardous to human health because: a) if releases toxic fumes
b) if trapped in the lungs, it decays and damages DNA c) it is composed of small fibers, which damage skin
or lung tissue
d) if trapped in the lungs, if can be carcinogenic e) it is a potent toxin, damaging the neurological
38) General class of pollution that
characterizes urban area with frequent,
strong sunshine
a) atmospheric inversion
b) fugitive sources
39) This class of pollution is produced only at
certain times, such as when the wind is
blowing
a) atmospheric inversion
b) fugitive sources
c) photochemical smog
d) primary pollutants
40) Atmospheric inversion conditions over urban areas pose a problem primarily because:
a) the conditions are conducive to photochemical smog
b) pollutants are trapped and concentrated c) the inhabitants can be cut off from oxygen
41) Sulfur dioxide emissions are caused by: I. burning coal
II. automobile emissions
III. photochemical break-down of ozone in the stratosphere
a) I only b) II only c) III only d) I and II
42) Particulate pollutants introduced into the atmosphere may have which of the following effects?
I. reflect incoming sunlight, lowering the temperature at the surface
II. absorb incoming sunlight, raising the temperature in the atmosphere
III. act as condensation nuclei, decreasing precipitation a) I only
43) Ozone is of great benefit in the stratosphere but of great harm to humans in the lower troposphere.
Which of the following is not an effect on people? a) strong eye irritant
b) aggravates asthma
c) reduces the ability of the circulatory system to transport oxygen
44) Tall smokestacks on power plants were designed to:
a) allow exhaust to cool before entering the atmosphere
b) disperse pollutants, so they wouldn’t cause harmful effects in the immediate area
c) trap sulfur emissions
45) Sulfur dioxide is:
a) a yellow-brown gas that contributes to photochemical smog
b) a colorless and odorless gas that binds to hemoglobin in blood
c) a colorless and odorless gas that damages the lungs
d) a gas with a “rotten egg” odor that is highly toxic and corrosive
