Mid Term Exam
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The granulations that appear during the healing of a large, open wound are composed mainly of
A. blood clots.
B. phagocytic cells.
C. fibroblasts surrounding blood vessels. D. scar tissue.
E. dead keratinocytes.
2. Which term refers specifically to the structures that provide information about conditions in the internal environment?
A. setpoints
B. effectors
C. receptors
D. homeostasis E. metabolism
3. Which of the following directly cause the changes in the internal environment needed to maintain homeostasis?
A. receptors
B. effectors
C. setpoint
4. Which of the following causes conditions in the body to move away from the normal state?
A. negative feedback B. homeostasis
C. metabolism
D. positive feedback
E. setpoint
5. Which of the following is true of positive feedback mechanisms?
A. They are the primary means of maintaining homeostasis. B. They stabilize conditions.
C. They cause unstable conditions, at least temporarily.
D. They maintain the internal environment.
E. They move conditions toward a setpoint.
6. The axial portion of the body includes
A. the cranial cavity only.
B. the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities only.
C. the cranial cavity, vertebral canal, thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity. D. the thoracic cavity only.
E. the abdominopelvic cavity only.
7. The mediastinum separates
A. the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. B. the thoracic cavity into right and left parts.
C. the thoracic cavity from the pelvic cavity.
D. the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.
8. Which of the following best describes the smaller cavities in the head?
A. the paranasal sinuses
B. the oral cavity
C. the nasal cavity
D. the middle ear cavities E. all of the above
9. Which of the following organs is found in the pelvic cavity?
A. urinary bladder B. kidneys
C. liver
D. spleen
E. gallbladder
10. The membrane on the surface of the lung is called the
A. visceral pleura.
B. parietal pleura.
C. visceral pericardium. D. parietal pericardium.
E. visceral peritoneum.
11. A part that is above another part is said to be
A. anterior.
B. posterior. C. superior.
D. inferior.
12. When a body is in the anatomical position, it is
A. standing erect with the face forward
B. standing erect with face turned to the side
C. lying on the back with the face forward
D. lying on the back with the face turned to the side
E. standing erect with the upper limbs reaching over the head
13. Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues?
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Connective tissue C. Eye tissue
D. Muscle tissue
E. Nervous tissue
14. A basement membrane anchors
A. muscle tissue to nervous tissue.
B. epithelial tissue to connective tissue. C. connective tissue to muscle tissue.
D. brain tissue to nervous tissue.
E. blood cells to plasma.
15. Epithelial tissue functions in
A. secretion.
B. absorption. C. protection.
D. excretion.
16. The tissue through which gases are exchanged between the blood and the air in the lungs is
A. stratified squamous epithelium. B. simple squamous epithelium.
C. simple cuboidal epithelium.
D. simple columnar epithelium.
E. stratified columnar epithelium.
17. The tissue that forms the inner lining of the respiratory passages is
A. pseudostratified.
B. ciliated.
C. mucus-secreting.
D. columnar epithelium. E. all of these.
18. A carcinoma is a cancer originating from
A. epithelium.
B. connective tissue. C. muscle tissue.
D. nervous tissue.
E. bone.
19. The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and many urinary passageways is
A. squamous.
B. cuboidal.
C. columnar.
D. transitional.
20. Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of
A. adipose tissue.
B. dense connective tissue. C. muscle tissue.
D. areolar tissue.
E. epithelial tissue.
21. Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because
A. cartilage cells cannot divide.
B. cartilage tissues lack direct blood supplies. C. the intercellular matrix is semisolid.
D. cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids.
E. they don't function often.
22. Bone cells are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes in cylinder-shaped units called
A. osteons.
B. central canals. C. lacunae.
D. canaliculi.
E. lamellae.
23. Permanent wrinkling of skin is usually due to changes caused by excessive exposure to
A. water.
B. heat.
C. dry air.
24. Membranes lining body cavities that lack openings to the outside are called
A. synovial membranes.
B. mucous membranes.
C. serous membranes.
D. cutaneous membranes. E. cell membranes.
25. Of the four major types of membranes, the one consisting of fibrous connective tissue overlying loose connective tissue is
A. synovial membrane.
B. serous membrane.
C. mucous membrane.
D. cutaneous membrane. E. cell membrane.
26. The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is
A. smooth muscle tissue.
B. skeletal muscle tissue.
C. intercalated muscle tissue. D. cardiac muscle tissue.
E. none of these.
27. Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the
A. stomach.
B. intestine.
C. urinary bladder. D. heart.
28. Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the
A. stomach.
B. intestine.
C. kidney.
D. kidney and liver.
E. stomach and intestine.
29. Which of the following cell types are least likely to reproduce?
A. Endothelial cells that line the digestive system. B. Fibroblasts of connective tissue.
C. Skeletal muscle cells.
D. Red bone marrow cells.
E. Epithelial cells of the outer layer of the skin.
30. When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by
A. new cardiac muscle cells. B. new smooth muscle cells. C. connective tissue cells.
D. epithelial cells.
E. nerve cells.
31. The tissue through which gases are exchanged between the blood and the air in the lungs is
A. stratified squamous epithelium. B. simple squamous epithelium.
C. simple cuboidal epithelium.
D. simple columnar epithelium.
32. The tissue that forms the inner lining of the respiratory passages is
A. pseudostratified.
B. ciliated.
C. mucus-secreting.
D. columnar epithelium. E. all of these.
33. A carcinoma is a cancer originating from
A. epithelium.
B. connective tissue. C. muscle tissue.
D. nervous tissue.
E. bone.
34. The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and many urinary passageways is
A. squamous.
B. cuboidal.
C. columnar.
D. transitional.
E. pseudostratified.
35. Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of
A. adipose tissue.
B. dense connective tissue. C. muscle tissue.
D. areolar tissue.
36. Bone cells are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes in cylinder-shaped units called
A. osteons.
B. central canals. C. lacunae.
D. canaliculi.
E. lamellae.
37. Permanent wrinkling of skin is usually due to changes caused by excessive exposure to
A. water.
B. heat.
C. dry air.
D. sunlight. E. collagen.
38. Membranes lining body cavities that lack openings to the outside are called
A. synovial membranes.
B. mucous membranes.
C. serous membranes.
D. cutaneous membranes. E. cell membranes.
39. Of the four major types of membranes, the one consisting of fibrous connective tissue overlying loose connective tissue is
A. synovial membrane.
B. serous membrane.
C. mucous membrane.
40. The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is
A. smooth muscle tissue.
B. skeletal muscle tissue.
C. intercalated muscle tissue. D. cardiac muscle tissue.
E. none of these.
41. Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the
A. stomach.
B. intestine.
C. urinary bladder. D. heart.
E. blood vessels.
42. Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the
A. stomach.
B. intestine.
C. kidney.
D. kidney and liver.
E. stomach and intestine.
43. Which of the following cell types are least likely to reproduce?
A. Endothelial cells that line the digestive system. B. Fibroblasts of connective tissue.
C. Skeletal muscle cells.
D. Red bone marrow cells.
44. When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by
A. new cardiac muscle cells. B. new smooth muscle cells. C. connective tissue cells.
D. epithelial cells.
E. nerve cells.
45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of nerve tissue?
A. It is found in the brain, spinal cord and nerves.
B. It contains cells that respond by transmitting impulses.
C. Its intercellular spaces are filled with collagen.
D. Its functional cells are sensitive to changes in their surroundings. E. Some of its cells send electrochemical messages.
46. Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because
A. cartilage cells cannot divide.
B. cartilage tissues lack direct blood supplies. C. the intercellular matrix is semisolid.
D. cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids.
E. they don't function often.
47. An organ contains
A. skin and bones.
B. two or more tissues grouped together that function together. C. at least four tissues grouped together that function together.
D. one variety of each of the four tissue types.
48. The human integumentary system includes
A. skin, nails, hair follicles, and glands.
B. just the skin.
C. the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer. D. muscles and bones.
E. skin, hooves, and horns.
49. Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with
A. hair, oil glands, and sweat glands.
B. bone, tendons, and muscles.
C. the subcutaneous layer.
D. muscles, glands, and sensory receptors. E. fingernails and toenails.
50. Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin?
A. The dermis is usually thicker than the epidermis.
B. The epidermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelium.
C. The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and the epidermis. D. The dermis contains smooth muscle and nerve tissue.
E. The skin contains some immune cells.
51. As cells are pushed from the deeper part of the epidermis toward the surface
A. they divide continually.
B. their supply of nutrients improves. C. they die.
D. they become dermal cells.
52. The skin
A. retards water loss from deeper tissues. B. excretes wastes.
C. regulates body temperature.
D. synthesizes vitamin D.
E. all of these.
53. The major blood vessels that supply skin cells are found in the
A. epidermis.
B. epidermis and dermis. C. dermis.
D. subcutaneous layer.
E. bone.
54. Skin cancer cells are most likely to develop from
A. pigmented epithelial cells.
B. pigmented melanocytes.
C. nonpigmented epithelial cells. D. nonpigmented melanocytes.
E. nonpigmented dermal cells.
55. Which of the following is not a method for helping prevent pressure ulcer formation?
A. Massaging the skin
B. Eating foods rich in proteins
C. Providing adequate fluid intake D. Maintaining one body position
56. The main function of melanocytes is to
A. remove dead cells by phagocytosis. B. help control body temperature.
C. produce melanin.
D. produce vitamin D.
E. act as sensory receptors.
57. Epidermal cells are supplied with nutrients from blood vessels located in the
A. epidermis.
B. dermis.
C. subcutaneous layer. D. stratum corneum.
E. stratum basale.
58. Pressure ulcers are usually associated with skin overlying
A. bony projections.
B. skeletal muscles.
C. a thick layer of fat. D. nerve fibers.
E. the hands.
59. Cutaneous carcinomas are most commonly caused by exposure to
A. X rays.
B. gamma radiation.
C. ultraviolet light.
D. mutagenic chemicals.
60. Which of the following is a characteristic of the person most likely to develop a cutaneous carcinoma?
A. Over forty years of age
B. Often works outdoors
C. Light-complexioned skin D. Often plays outdoors
E. All of these
61. Injections that are administered into the tissues of the skin are called
A. subcutaneous. B. intradermal.
C. intramuscular. D. hypodermic.
E. intravenous.
62. Skin cells play an important role in the production of vitamin
A. A. B. B. C. D. D. E. E. C.
63. Exposure to ultraviolet light darkens the skin by stimulating production of
A. melatonin.
B. carotene.
C. hemoglobin. D. cyanin.
64. The shaft of a hair is composed of
A. dead epidermal cells.
B. living epidermal cells. C. dead dermal cells.
D. living dermal cells.
E. living fibroblasts.
65. A nail consists of a
A. nail fork and nail spoon.
B. nail bed and nail plate.
C. nail rail and nail groove.
D. nail follicle and nail papilla. E. none of the above.
66. Eccrine sweat glands
A. are most common in the armpits and groin.
B. respond primarily to elevated body temperature. C. respond primarily to emotional stress.
D. usually are associated with hair follicles.
E. are examples of holocrine glands.
67. Acne is a disorder involving the
A. sweat glands.
B. hair follicles.
C. sebaceous glands. D. apocrine glands.
68. The regulation of body temperature is of vital importance because
A. it should remain close to 37 degrees C.
B. slight shifts in temperature can disrupt the rates of metabolic reactions. C. it is the product of chemical reactions.
D. the skin plays an important role in pigment production.
E. a person needs to feel comfortable in any environmental temperature.
69. Which of the following is a normal response to excess loss of body heat in a cold environment?
A. Dermal blood vessels constrict.
B. Sweat glands become inactive.
C. Skeletal muscles contract involuntarily. D. Less blood flows to dermal vessels.
E. All of these
70. Which of the following examples illustrates a homeostatic mechanism?
A. shivering in response to a drop in body temperature
B. increasing body temperature during exercise
C. decreasing body temperature during prolonged exposure to cold conditions D. dehydration from lack of water intake
E. frostbite on exposure to cold
71. Which of the following increase the risk of developing osteoporosis?
A. Low intake of dietary calcium B. Lack of physical exercise
C. Smoking
D. Low intake of vitamin D
72. An osteocyte is a _______
A. bone forming cell.
B. cell that breaks down bone.
C. bone cell surrounded by matrix. D. bone marrow cell.
E. nerve cell in the bone.
73. The microscopic bony chambers that house mature bone cells are called _______
A. lacunae.
B. central canals.
C. osteons.
D. perforating canals. E. canaliculi.
74. The salts that are abundant in the extracellular matrix of bone tissue consist largely of _______
A. calcium phosphate.
B. sodium chloride.
C. calcium carbonate.
D. calcium sulfate.
E. sodium bicarbonate.
75. Which of the following is NOT a step in the formation of endochondral bone?
A. Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
B. Periosteum forms from connective tissue on the outside of the developing bone. C. Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
D. Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
76. Bone that develops within sheetlike layers of connective tissue is called _______
A. endochondral bone.
B. intramembranous bone. C. cartilaginous bone.
D. osteoclastic bone.
E. appendicular bone.
77. Red bone marrow functions in the formation of _______
A. osteocytes.
B. red blood cells only.
C. white blood cells only.
D. red and white blood cells only.
E. red and white blood cells and platelets.
78. The cells responsible for removing excess bone tissue after the fracture repair process are _______
A. fibroblasts.
B. chondrocytes. C. osteoblasts.
D. osteoclasts.
E. osteocytes.
79. Which of the following bones is NOT included within the lower limb?
A. Ulna
B. Femur C. Tibia
80. Which of the following is NOT included in the appendicular skeleton?
A. Pectoral girdle
B. Vertebral column C. Upper limbs
D. Pelvic girdle
E. Lower limbs
81. Which of the following is included in the pectoral girdle?
A. Hip bone B. Sternum
C. Sacrum
D. Scapula
E. Coccyx
82. The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of the _______
A. zygomatic and temporal bones. B. zygomatic and maxilla bones.
C. maxilla and temporal bones.
D. temporal and parietal bones.
E. zygomatic and sphenoid bones.
83. Which of the following is part of the facial skeleton?
A. Parietal bone
B. Maxillary bone C. Sphenoid bone
84. A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the _______
A. palatine bones. B. maxillae.
C. mandible.
D. vomer bone.
E. frontal bone.
85. Cervical vertebrae can be distinguished from other types by the presence of
A. transverse foramina.
B. transverse processes.
C. articulating processes. D. vertebral foramina.
E. intervertebral discs.
86. Which of the following bones has an acromion process?
A. Sternum
B. Scapula
C. Clavicle
D. Humerus E. Vertebra
87. A hip bone includes a (an) _______
A. ilium.
B. ischium.
C. pubis.
88. The joints between the vertebrae of the backbone are best described as _______
A. immovable.
B. slightly movable. C. freely movable.
D. synovial.
E. fibrous.
89. The degenerative joint disease osteoarthritis may develop as a result of damage to the _______
A. articular cartilage. B. diaphysis.
C. epiphyseal plate.
D. periosteum.
E. medullary cavity.
90. A bone includes _______
A. bone tissue.
B. blood.
C. dense connective tissue. D. cartilage.
E. all of these.
91. Which of the following is not a function of bone?
A. To protect soft tissues
B. To house blood-producing cells
C. To provide nervous communication from bone to muscle D. To store inorganic salts
92. The zygomatic bone is an example of a (an) _______
A. long bone.
B. short bone.
C. flat bone.
D. irregular bone.
E. sesamoid bone.
93. Articular cartilage is _______
A. hyaline cartilage.
B. fibrocartilage.
C. elastic cartilage.
D. found only in the knees and elbows.
E. located on the diaphysis of long bones.
94. The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that _______
A. the bone is broken.
B. the bone is dead.
C. the bone is increasing in diameter. D. the bone is lengthening.
E. the bone is no longer lengthening.
95. Sinuses are found within all of the following bones except the _______
A. frontal bone.
B. maxillae.
C. zygomatic bones. D. ethmoid bones.
96. Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
A. The distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less. B. The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
C. The female iliac bones are less flared.
D. The female pelvic cavity is narrower.
E. The female coccyx is less movable.
97. The femur _______
A. is the longest bone in the body.
B. extends from the hip to the knee. C. has a large rounded head.
D. articulates with the patella.
E. is all of these.
98. Which of the following terms and descriptions is correctly paired?
A. Extension-bending the leg at the knee or decreasing the angle between the femur and tibia
B. Adduction-lifting the upper limb horizontally to form a right angle with the side of the body or moving a part away from the midline
C. Pronation-turning the hand so the palm is downward or facing posteriorly (in anatomical position)
D. Retraction-moving a part forward or thrusting the head forward
E. Elevation-lowering a part or drooping the shoulders
99. A sarcomere is best described as _______
A. a part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum B. a group of fascicles
C. a group of myofibrils
D. a unit within a myofibril
100. Myofibrils are composed primarily of
A. actin and myosin
B. ATP and ADP
C. troponin and tropomyosin
D. fascia and tendons
E. perimysium and endomysium
101. A motor unit typically includes
A. muscle fibers only
B. motor neurons only
C. several motor neurons and one muscle fiber
D. one motor neuron and several muscle fibers
E. several motor neurons and several muscle fibers
102. The electrical impulse that triggers a contraction travels deep into a skeletal muscle fiber by means of
A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. transverse tubules
C. mitochondria
D. motor end plates
E. gap junctions
103. Neurotransmitter molecules are stored in vesicles within
A. myofibrils
B. motor units
C. motor end plates
104. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase causes acetylcholine to
A. bind to actin
B. be secreted from the motor end plate C. decompose
D. form cross bridges
E. none of the above
105. Creatine phosphate
A. causes the decomposition of ATP
B. causes the decomposition of ADP
C. supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP
D. supplies energy for the breakdown of ATP to ADP E. binds to Ach receptors
106. Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross bridges with molecules of
A. ATP
B. myosin
C. troponin
D. tropomyosin E. creatine
107. The amount of oxygen needed to support the conversion of lactic acid to glucose by the liver is called the
A. refractory quantity B. oxygen debt
C. anaerobic value
108. A muscle cramp is most likely due to a temporary lack of
A. actin
B. myosin
C. ATP
D. ADP
E. motor neurons
109. An example of a partial but sustained contraction of a whole muscle is
A. eye blinking
B. tetanic contraction of a muscle fiber C. a twitch
D. muscle tone
E. fatigue of a motor unit
110. The characteristic reddish brown color of skeletal muscle comes from which substance?
A. actin
B. myosin
C. myoglobin
D. calcium
E. muscle glycogen
111. The threshold stimulus is the
A. minimum strength of stimulus required to cause muscle fiber contraction to occur B. the maximal amount of force a muscle can exert
C. the amount of oxygen a muscle needs for repeated contractions
D. the minimal amount of force a muscle can exert
112. The botulinum toxin that causes botulism acts by blocking acetylcholine receptors on the motor end plate. Which of the following would result from such an action?
A. uncontrolled muscle contraction B. muscle weakness or paralysis
C. increased muscle strength
D. inability of the muscle to relax
E. tetanic contraction
113. Rigor mortis that occurs in skeletal muscles a few hours after death is due to
A. excessive ATP decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions B. lack of ATP increased membrane permeability to calcium ions
C. persistent stimulation by motor neuron
D. a decrease in the number of muscle fibers
E. none of the above
114. The increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation is called
A. latency
B. recruitment
C. threshold stimulation D. all-or-none response
E. summation
115. In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the
A. refractory period
B. relaxation period
116. Activities such as distance swimming and distance running are most likely to stimulate development of
A. slow fatigable muscle fibers
B. fast fatigable muscle fibers
C. slow fatigue-resistant muscle fibers D. fast fatigue-resistant muscle fibers
E. none of the above
117. When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse,
A. there is a reduction in capillary networks
B. the number of mitochondria decreases
C. the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases D. the muscle gets smaller
E. all of the above
118. Multiunit smooth muscle
A. is composed of sheets of muscle cells
B. tends to display rhythmicity
C. occurs in the walls of the stomach and intestines
D. responds to stimulation by neurons and certain hormones E. none of the above apply
119. The term "muscle" can refer to
A. a cell
B. a tissue
C. an organ
D. all of the above
120. Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle
A. contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly
B. contracts more slowly and relaxes more rapidly
C. contracts more rapidly and relaxes more slowly
D. contracts more rapidly and relaxes more rapidly E. is under voluntary control
121. Functions of muscle include
A. the heartbeat
B. muscle tone
C. production of heat
D. moving body parts E. all of the above
122. The moveable end of a muscle is attached at its
A. origin
B. fulcrum
C. insertion
D. motor end plate E. source
123. The muscle primarily responsible for opposing a particular action is called the
A. antagonist
B. prime mover C. synergist
D. agonist
