FULL TEST (FT) : FT # 03 (NEET PATTERN)
Target Medical Batch
Academic Session : 2020 - 21
Date : 28
thFebruary, 2021 | Duration : 3 Hours | Max. Marks : 720
Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.
COURSE : Dropper, Target, DLP., ANTS
Potential & Concept Educations
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POTENTIAL & CONCEPT EDUCATIONS
Most Trusted Institute of North-East
PHYSICS
FT - 03Medical1. Which one of the following represents displacement time graph of two objects A and B moving with zero relative velocity ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2. A person in an elevator acclerating upwards with an acceleration of 2 ms–2, tosses a coin vertically upwards with a speed of 20 ms–1. After how much time will the coin fall back into his hand ? (Take g = 10 ms–2)
(A) 5
3s (B) 3
10s
(C) 10
3 s (D) 3
5s
3. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown in the figure.
The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 8 m is
(A) Zero J (B) 80 J
(C) – 40 J (D) 40 J
4. For a given material, the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that of the modulus of rigidity. Its Poisson’s ratio is.
(A) 2.4 (B) 1.2
(C) 0.4 (D) 0.2
5. A U tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury . The mercury columns in the two arms are at the same level with 10 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other as shown in figure. The relative density of the spirit is.
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.8
(C) 1.0 (D) 1.25
6. A charge Q is divided into two parts q and Q–q and separated by a distance R. The force of repulsion between them will be maximum when :-
Target Batch
7. Two point charges +8q and –2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a point on the x-axis at which net electric field due to these two point charges is zero, is :-
(A) 8 L (B) 4 L
(C) 2 L (D) L/4
8. There are two wires of the same length and of the same material and radii r and 2r. The ratio of their specific resistance is :-
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
9. Reading of ammeter in ampere for the following circuit is :-
(A) 33 (B) 3.3
(C) 0.33 (D) 0
10. The value of equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in figure between the points P and Q. Value of C is 4µC :-
(A) 24 µC (B) 12 µC
(C) 6 µC (D) 4 µC
11. A magnetised wire of moment 3.14 A-m2 is bent in the form of a semi-circle; then the new magnetic moment will be :-
(A) 3.14 A-m2 (B) 2 A-m2 (C) 6.28 A-m2 (D) None of these 12. An aluminium ring B faces an electromagnet
A. The current I through A can be altered. Then which of the following statement is correct :-
(A) If I decreases A will repel B
(B) Whether I increases or decreases, B will not experience any force
(C) If I increases, A will repel B (D) If I increases, A will attract B
13. The speed of electromagnetic radiation in vacuum is :-
(A) µ00 (B) 0 0
(C)
0 0
1
(D)
0 0
1
14. Ratio of masses and radii of two circular rings are 1 : 2 and 2 : 1 respectively then ratio of moment of inertia will be -
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 :1
15. A disc of mass M and radius R is rolling with angular speed on a horizontal plane as shown.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the disc about the origin O is -
(A) 1 2
2MR (B) MR2
(C) 3 2
2MR (D) 2MR2
16. Masses and radii of earth and moon are M1, M2 and R1, R2 respectively. The distance between their centre is ‘d’. The minimum velocity given to mass ‘M’ from the mid point of line joining their centre so that it will escape:- (A) 4G M
1 M2
d
(B)
1 2
1 2
4G M M
d M M
(C)
1 2
1 2
M M
2G
d M M
(D)
1 2
2G M M
d
17. The diameters of two planets are in ratio 4:1.
Their mean densities have ratio 1:2. The ratio of gravitational acceleration on the surface of planets will be :–
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
18. A tube is bent into L shape and kept in a vertical plane. If these three liquids are kept in
(A) (1h1 + 2h2 + 3h3)g (B) (1h1 + 22 + 3h3)g (C) (2h2 + 3h3)g (D) (22 + 3h3)g
19. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A B
C A, as shown in the figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is 5 J, the work done by the gas in the process C A is :-
(A) –5 J (B) –10 J
(C) –15 J (D) –20 J
20. A rod of length l with thermally insulated lateral surface is made of a material whose thermal conductivity K varies as K = C/T, where C is a constant. The ends are at temperatures T1 and
(C) C ln T T
1 2
l (D) 2
1
C ln T T
l
21. Two tanks A and B contain water at 30°C and 80°C respectively. Calculate the amount of water that must be taken from each tank to prepare 40 kg water at 50°C :-
(A) 24 kg, 16 kg (B) 16 kg, 24 kg (C) 20 kg, 20 kg (D) 30 kg, 10 kg 22. The coefficient of apparent expansion of
mercury in a glass vessel is 132 × 10–6/oC and in a steel vessel is 114 × 10–6/oC. If for steel is 12 × 10–6/oC, then that of glass is :-
(A) 9 × 10–6/oC (B) 6 × 10–6/oC (C) 36 × 10–6/oC (D) 27 × 10–6/oC 23. Two springs, of force constants k1 and k2 are
connected to a mass m as shown. The frequency of oscillation of the mass is f. If both k1 and k2 are made four times their original values, the frequency of oscillation becomes :-
(A) 2f (B) f
2 (C) f
4 (D) 4f
24. A sufficiently long closed organ pipe has a small hole at its bottom. Initially, the pipe is empty.
Water is poured into the pipe at a constant rate.
The fundamental frequency of the air column in the pipe :-
(A) continuously increases
(B) first increaes and then becomes constant
(C) continuously decreases
(D) first decreases and then becomes constant 25. If L1 and L2 are the lengths of the first and second resonating air columns in a resonance tube, then the wavelength of the note produced is :-
(A) 2(L2 + L1) (B) 2(L2 – L1)
(C) 2 1
2(L –L )
2 (D) 2 1
2(L L )
2
26. A tuning fork of unknown frequency makes 3 beats/sec with a standard fork of frequency 384 Hz. The beat frequency decreases when a small piece of wax is put on the prong of the first. The frequency of the fork is :-
(a) 387 Hz (B) 381 Hz
(C) 384 Hz (D) 390 Hz
27. A light beam is traveling from Region I to Region IV (Refer Figure). The refractive index in Region I, II, III and IV are n0, n0
2 , n0 6 and n0
8 , respectively. The angle of incidence for which the beam just misses entering Region IV is :-
(A) –1 3 sin 4
(B) –1 1
sin 8
(C) –1 1 sin 4
(D) –1 1 sin 3
28. Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined together in three different ways as shown in the adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal lengths in three cases will be :-
(A) 2 : 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 : 2 (D) 2 : 1 : 1
29. In the propagation of light waves, the angle between the direction of vibration and plane of polarization is :-
(A) 0° (B) 90°
(C) 45° (D) 80°
30. The wavefront of a distant source of unknown shape is approximately :-
(A) Spherical (B) Cylindrical (C) Elliptical (D) Plane
31. If Alpha, Beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength:- (A) Alpha rays
(B) Beta rays (C) Gamma rays
(D) None, all have same wavelength
32. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron. The energy released during this process is (mass of neutron = 1.6745 × 10–27 kg. Mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg) :-
(A) 0.73 MeV (B) 7.10 MeV (C) 0.62 MeV (D) 5.4 MeV
33. A and B are two radioactive substances whose half lives are 1 and 2 years respectively. Initially 10 g of A and 1 g of B is taken. The time (approximate) after which they will have same quantity remaining is :-
(A) 6.62 years (B) 5 years (C) 3.2 years (D) 7 years
34. The current through an ideal PN-junction shown in the following circuit diagram will be :-
(A) zero (B) 1 mA
(C) 10 mA (D) 30 mA
35. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B and the output Y are as given :-
The logic gate is
(A) NOR gate (B) OR gate (C) AND gate (D) NAND gate 36. A gas is heated through 1°C in a closed vessel.
Its pressure is increased by 0.5%. The initial temperature of the gas is :-
(A) 250°C (B) 100°C
(C) –73°C (D) –23°C
37. A string is wrapped around the rim of a wheel of moment of inertia 0.20 kg-m2 and radius 20 cm. The wheel is free to rotate about its axis and initially the wheel is at rest. The string is now pulled by a force of 20N.The angular velocity of the string after 5 seconds will be-
(A) 90 rad/s (B) 70 rad/s (C) 95 rad/s (D) 100 rad/s
38. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77ºC.
To have a 30% efficiency. It must take heat at:-
(A) 127ºC (B) 227ºC
(C) 327ºC (D) 673ºC
39. A particle of mass 10 gm moves in a field where potential energy per unit mas is given by expression v = 8 × 104 x2 erg/gm. If the total energy of the particle is 8 × 107 erg then the relation between x and time t is :-
(A) x = 10sin(400t + ) cm (B) x = sin(400 t + ) m (C) x = 10 sin(40 t + ) cm
(D) x = 100 sin(4t + ) m [ = constant]
40. If the distance between the centres of Earth and Moon is D and mass of Earth is 81 times that of Moon. At what distance from the centre of Earth gravitational field will be zero?
(A) D
2 (B) 2D
3 (C) 4D
5 (D) 9D
10
41. Young’s double slit experiment the amplitude of two sources are 3a and a respectively. The ratio of intensities of bright and dark fringe will be -
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 9 : 1
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
42. Nuclear forces are :-
(A) Short ranged attractive and charge independent
(B) Short ranged attractive and charge dependent
(C) Long ranged repulsive and charge independent
(D) Long ranged repulsive and charge dependent
43. The variation of acceleration due to gravity g with distance d from centre of the earth is best represented by (R = Earth’s radius) :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
44. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of water are 39°W and 239°W respectively. What will be the temperature on the new scale, corresponding to a temperature of 39°C on the Celsius scale?
(A) 200°W (B) 139°W
(C) 78°W (D) 117°W
45. Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal gas are as shown in figure. Choose the wrong statement :-
(A) Density of gas is increasing in graph (i) (B) Density of gas is decreasing in graph (ii) (C) Density of gas is constant in graph (iii) (D) None of the above
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is not substitution reaction.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
47. Insulin has :-
(A) 51 amino acid (B) 41 amino acid (C) 31 amino acid (D) 101 amino acid 48. Which of the following is most reactive
towards SN2
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. Which of the following is not addition ploymer (A) Polythene (B) Teflon
(C) Poly acrylonitrile (D) Terylene 50. Major product will be :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Target Batch FT - 03
Medical
51. Secondary alcohol Tertiary alcohol
For above dehydration reaction rate of reaction will be a and b are
(A) a > b (B) a < b
(C) a b (D) None
52.
B will be :
(A) CH3 – COOH (B) CH3 – CH2 – OH (C) CH3 – CHO (D)
53. will be
(A) Ph – OH + Ph – CH2 – I (B) Ph – I + Ph – CH2 – I (C) Ph – I + Ph – CH2 – OH (D) Ph – OH + Ph – CH2 – OH 54. has correct IUPAC name.
(A) 3 – Methyl hexanal (B) 2 – Methyl hexanal
(C) Hexane – 1 – Carbaldehyde (D) Hexane – 2 – Carbaldehyde 55.
Above reaction is known as : (A) Stephen reaction
(B) Rosenmund reduction
(C) Etard reaction (D) Mendius reaction
56. Which of the following can show Geometrical isomerism.
(A) Ph – CH = CH – CH3 (B)
(C)
(D) All of above
57.
(A) 3 – Nitro benzoic acid (B) 3 – Nitro benzaldehyde (C) 3 – Amino benzoic acid (D) 3 – Amino benzaldehyde
58. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils is
(A) Fe (B) Ni
(C) Pt (D) V2O5
59. Which of following can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction :-
(A) CH3–NH–CH3 (B)
(C)
60. Which of following show lucas test instantaneously ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
61. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wavelength is :-
(A) Ultraviolet (B) Radio wave (C) X ray (D) Infra red
62. A litre contains 2 moles of PCl5 initially. If Kc is found to be 1, the degree of dissociation of PCl5 is : PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(A) 1 (B) –1
(C) 1/2 (D) 0.25
63. In a closed pack structure of mixed oxides, the lattice is composed of mixed oxide ions.
One eighth of tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent cations (A+2) while one half of octahedral voids are occupied by trivalent cations (B+3). The formula of mixed oxide is (A) A2BO3 (B) AB2O3
(C) A2BO4 (D) AB2O4
64. Enthalpy of dilution of 4M HCl to 2M HCl is –2.5 kJ/mol. Find enthalpy change when 500 ml of HCl is diluted from 4M to 2M
65. The conjugate acid of H PO2 4 is :- (A) H3PO4 (B) H PO2 4 (C) H PO2 42 (D) H PO2 43
66. In the closest packing of atoms, there are :- (A) One tetrahedral void and two octahedral
voids per atom
(B) Two tetrahedral void and one octahedral void per atom
(C) Two of each tetrahedral and octahedral voids per atom
(D) One of each tetrahedral and octahedral voids per atom
67. Number of moles of oxygen gas evolved by electrolysis of 180 g of water ?
(A) 2.5 (B) 5.0
(C) 7.5 (D) 10.0
68. Assuming the reaction
2NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2NOCl(g)
occurs in a single elementary step, we can say that :-
(A) the order of the reaction is less than the molecularity
(B) the molecularity of the reaction cannot be determined from the information given.
(C) the order of the reaction is greater than the molecularity.
(D) the order of the reaction is equal to the molecularity.
69. Molar conductance m is plotted against c (mol litre–1) for three electrolytes (NaCl, HCl, NH4OH) :-
Which of the following is correct ?
1 2 3
(A) NaCl HCl NH4OH
(B) HCl NaCl NH4OH
(C) NH4OH NaCl HCl
(D) NH4OH HCl NaCl
70. Z vs P graph of four gases is given below at same temperature
Which of the gases will have the highest value of critical temperature.
(A) D (B) C
(C) B (D) A
71. Half cells Zn|Zn2+ (1 litre, 0.1 M) and Cu|Cu2+
(1 litre, xM) are connected to form cell.
Calculate the concentration of Cu+2 in solution when cell potential is 0.8 volt.
Eocell 1.1V
(A) 1.0 × 10–11 (B) 2.2 × 10–10 (C) 3.3 × 10–12 (D) 1.1 × 10–12
72. In the adsorption of a gas solid, Freundlich isotherm is obeyed. The slope of the plot is zero. Thus the extent of adsorption is :- (A) directly proportional to the pressure of
the gas
(B) inversely proportional to the pressure of thegas
(C) independent of the pressure of the gas (D) proportional to the square of the pressure
of the gas
73. Which of the following will not coagulate starch sol :-
(A) NaCl (B) C2H5OH
(C) BaCl2 (D) CaSO4
74. How many moles of CO(NH2)2 are present in 1200g water, given the freezing point of the solution is – 4.02°C ? kf(H2O) = 1.86 K. kg mol–1 :-
(A) 1.86 moles (B) 2.59 moles (C) 2.10 moles (D) 3.02 moles
75. Atom (A) present in ccp form, atom (B) are present in all the octahedral void and atom (C) are present in all the tetrahedral void, if one of the body diagonal axis removes all the touching particle then find out empirical formula of solid :-
(A) A15B12C24 (B) A5B2C3 (C) A5B4C3 (D) A5B4C8
percentage of 'B' is 92, then the total vapour pressure is observed to 0.95 atm. Which of the following is true for this solution ? (A) Vmix > 0 (B) Hmix < 0 (C) Vmix = 0 (D) Hmix = 0
77. Consider the following gas-phase reaction.
2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
and the following experimental data obtained at 555 K, What is the order of the reaction with respect to HI (g) ?
(A) 1.0 (B) 2.0
(C) 2.5 (D) 3.0
78. Which of the following Compounds has peroxide linkage ?
(A) S O2 32 (B) S O2 82 (C) S O2 52 (D) S O2 72
79. In extraction of Al chemical used in serpeck's process is :-
(A) NaOH (B) C + N2
(C) CaC2 + CaCl2 (D) Na2CO3 80. Artificial smoke screens are made by :
(A) Aluminium oxide (B) Lead oxide
(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO3 (C) Cr2(SO4)3 (D) CrO5
82. Most acidic among given compound is :- (A) Pr(OH)3 (B) Gd(OH)3 (C) Sm(OH)3 (D) Er(OH)3 83. Consider following statements
(a) R2SiO is repeating unit of linear silicones (b) R SiCl3 on hydrolysis followed by dehydration
gives linear silicones
(c) Silicones can be used as heat insulator (d) Silica is soluble in HF
The correct statement(s) is/are (A) a, b, c and d (B) a, c and d (C) a, b and d (D) a and c
84. Effective atomic number of Co(CO)4 is 35, hence it is less stable. It attains stability by (A) Oxidation of Co (B) Reduction of Co (C) Dimerization (D) Both (B) & (C) 85. Complex which show linkage isomerism is :-
(A) [Co (en)3] Cl3 (B) [Co (NH3)6] [CrCl6] (C) [Co (en)2 NO2 Cl] Br (D) [Co (NH3)5 Cl] Br
86. Which of the following order is not correct ? (A) [Co(H2O)6]+2 < [Fe(H2O)6]+3 < [Fe(CN)6]–3
0 order (B) [Fe(CN)6]–4 > [Fe(CN)6]–3 Fe-C Bond
length
(C) CN– < CO -accepting tendency (D) C2H4 > K[PtCl3(C2H4)] C-C bond length
87. Correct match of following is :
(A) A-ii, B-v, C-iv, D-iii (B) A-ii, B-v, C-iv, D-i (C) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (D) A-ii, B-iv, C-v, D-iii
88. An element with atomic mass 100 has a bcc structure and edge length 400 pm. The density of element is :-
(A) 10.37 g cm–3 (B) 5.19 g cm–3 (C) 7.29 g cm–3 (D) 2.14 g cm–3 89. Which of following in not match with other ?
(A) Isoprene (B) Gutta purcha (C) Neoprene (D) Natural Rubber 90. Which of following is/are correct ?
(A) Nucleotide form from nucleoside and phosphate group by ether linkage (B) In nucleoside, nitrogenous base link with
hexose sugar of DNA or RNA
(C) DNA and RNA are differ in only nature of sugar
(D) A = T & C G are hydrogen bond between nitrogenous base
(A) A,B,C,D (B) A,C,D
(C) A,C (D) only D
91. Width of a young leaf is increase is due to the activity of ?
(A) Intra Fascicular cambium (B) Apical meristem
(C) Vascular cambium (D) Marginal meristem
92. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all the correct ones only :-
(A) Cotton fibres are false fibres because these are outgrowth of testa
(B) Fruit wall of nut is made up of sclerenchyma (C) Collenchyma provides mechanical support
to the petiole of leaf
(D) Hypodermis of young dicot stem is made up of sclerenchyma
(A) Statements (B) and (C) (B) Statements (A) (B) (C) (C) Only statement (C)
(D) Statements (A) (B) (C) (D)
93. The roots, which are originate from lower nodes of the stem of maize and sugarcane are :- (A) Prop roots (B) Stilt roots
(C) Tuberous roots (D) Hygroscopic roots 94. Geocarpic fruit is :-
95. Archebacteria can survive in extremely harsh habitat due to presence of :-
(A) Eukaryotic core histone like proteins (B) Primitive r-RNA
(C) Prokaryotic cellular organisation (D) Complex cell membrane
96. Which is not correct about pteridophyta ? (A) They are vascular plants
(B) They are embryophyte plants (C) They are siphonogamous plants (D) They are reptiles of plant kingdom 97. Rich source of Iodine is :-
(A) Laminaria (B) Chara (C) Volvox (D) Nostoc
98. Study the following statements carefully and give answer :-
(A) Biological names are generally in latin and written in english
(B) The first word in biological names represents the genus
(C) Both the words in a biological name are separately underlined when printed.
(D) The first word of biological name starts with capital letter when given in memory of a person otherwise with small latter.
(A) B-correct, A,C,D-incorrect
BOTANY
Target Batch FT - 03
Medical
99. Find incorrect match from the columns :-
100. Select the correct statement :-
(A) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
(B) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(C) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees (D) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well
adapted to extremes of climate.
101. Which of the following organisms have cell wall made up of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate ?
(A) Fungi (B) Plant
(C) Algae (D) Bacteria
102. How many of the following are not the part of endomembrane system Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosome, Chloroplast, Mito- chondria, Peroxisome.
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 2
103. Following diagram shows modification of the meiosis I. Identify A, B, C, D :-
(A) A-Telophase I, B-Anaphase I, C-Metaphase I, D-Prophase I
(B) A-Prophase I, B-Metaphase I, C-Anaphase I, D-Telophase I
(C) A-Metaphase I, B-Telophase I, C-Prophase I, D-Anaphase I
(D) A-Anaphase I, B-Prophase I, C-Telophase I, D-Metaphase I
104. Chromosome can be counted best at the stage of :-
(A) Prophase (B) Anaphase (C) Metaphase (D) Telophase 105. The appearance of brown spots surrounded by
chlorotic veins is the prominent symptom of:- (A) Copper deficiency
(B) Molybdenum deficiency (C) Magnesium toxicity (D) Manganese toxicity
106. The reaction given below is related to which process:-
(A) Nirtorgen fixation
(B) Amino acid synthesis by reductive amination (C) Nitrification
(D) Amino acid synthesis by transamination 107. How many statements are correct about the
given figure ?
(a) Water potential of chamber B is more negative
(b) Diffusion of solute will take place from chamber B to chamber A
(c) Diffusion of solvent will take place from chamber A to B
(d) Osmotic pressure of chamber B is higher than chamber A
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 3
108. The water potential and osmotic potential of pure
109. (A) PGRs are complex, organic and inter cellular factors.
(B) PGRs are nongenetic factors (A) Both (A) and (B) are correct (B) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (C) Only (A) is correct
(D) Only (B) is correct
110. How many cell types does the leaf have that fix CO2 in C3 and C4 plants respectively ?
(A) 1 and 1 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 1 (D) 2 and 2
111. Which one of the following condition does not account for photorespiration?
(A) High O2 concentration (B) Low CO2 concentration (C) High light intensity (D) Low temperature
112. In hypogeal germination the elongation of :-
(A) Plumule (B) Radicle
(C) Hypocotyl (D) Epicotyl
113. Which of the following option is incorrect about contrasting traits studied by mendel ?
(A) Stem height – Tall/Dwarf (B) Pod colour – Green/Yellow (C) Pollen shape – Round/wrinkled (D) Seed colour – Yellow/green
(C) Eurythermal (D) Euryhaline 115. Read the following statements with respect to
chemiosmosis :
(A) Splitting of water molecules takes place on the inner side of the thylakoid membrane (B) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the
stroma side of thylakoid membrane
(C) Energy is used to pump proton from stroma to lumen
(D) During photophosphorylation pH decrease in the lumen of thylakoid
Which of the above are correct ?
(A) Only A & B (B) Only B & C (C) A, B, C & D (D) Only C & D 116. In Morgan’s experiment, what will be percent-
age of recombination in case of body colour and eye colour ?
(A) 37.2 % (B) 1.3 %
(C) 98.7 % (D) 27.3 %
117. Which of the following is an example of total stem parasite :-
(A) Santalum (B) Cuscuta (C) Raflessia (D) Viscum
118. Which of the following enzymes catalyse the conversion of pyruvic acid to CO2 and ethanol ? (A) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol
decarboxylase
(B) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase.
(C) Pyruvic acid dehydrogenase and alcohol decarboxylase.
(D) Pyruvic acid dehydrogenase and alcohol dehydrogenase
119. In Drosphila sex is determined by :-
(A) x
Aratio (B) A
x ratio (C) n-2n method (D) y
Aratio
120. Pollination in Nymphea, Nelumbo, water hyacinthus and Alisma through:-
(A) Air (B) Water
(C) Insect (D) Carrion flies 121. Which one of the following is wrong statement
regarding mutations ?
(A) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens (B) Change in single base pair of DNA does not
cause mutation
(C) Delection and insertion of base pairs cause frame shift mutation
(D) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberration
122. Germplasm collection is the collection of : (A) Germ cells
(B) Semens
(C) Plants/seeds with all the diverse alleles for all genes
(D) Egg cells
123. What is common in wheat, mammals, poaceae and animals :-
(A) These are all taxa at different levels (B) These all taxa belong to same category
(C) These are all taxa at same level in Linnaeus hierarchy
(D) These are all categories at different levels 124. Double ferilization occurs in
(A) Pinus (B) Selaginella (C) Funaria (D) Capsella
125. Yellow mosaic virus resistant variety “Parbhani Kranti” belongs to :
(A) Bhindi (B) Barley
(C) Chilli (D) Cauli flower
126. In gymnosperms, the endosperm is formed by the :
(A) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(B) Fusion of one male gamete with one polar nuclei
(C) Fusion of male gamete with the egg (D) Germination of a megaspore
127. Which of the following are correctly matched ? Element Characteristic/Role
A. Magnesium Component of energy related chemical compound
B. Manganese Nitrogen metabolism C. Copper Pollen germination
D. Calcium Formation of mitotic spindle Options :-
(A) only A and D (B) only B and C
128. In a monohybrid cross what will be percentage of heterozygous offspring in F4 – generation -
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 12.5% (D) 6.25%
129. Which microbes used as a Biofertilizer ? (A) Streptococcus
(B) Yeast (C) Rhizobium
(D) Pseudomonas putida
130. Natural ageing of lake due to mineral enrich- ment known as :-
(A) Biomagnification (B) Eutrophication (C) Startification (D) Diapause
131. Which of the given condition is exhibited by the diagrams given below ?
(A) Developmental heterophylly (B) Environmental heterophylly (C) Heteroblastic development (D) Redifferentiation
132. Which one of the following is not applicable to single stranded DNA ?
(A) Chargaff’s rule
133. Which of the following technique used for development of pomato ?
(A) PCR - technique (B) DNA cloning
(C) Somatic hybridisation (D) Somatic embryogenesis
134. The productivity of whole biosphere and terrestrial ecosystem respectively :-
(A) 170, 55 (B) 115, 170
(C) 170, 115 (D) 55, 115 135. Green muffler technique helpful in control :-
(A) Water pollution (B) Air polution (C) Noise pollution (D) Soil pollution
136. About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBC remaining 3% is :-
(A) Dissolved in plasma & transported (B) Retained in lungs
(C) Attached to cell membranes (D) Found inside mitochondria 137. What is true about "Mule" ?
(A) It is obtained from interspecific hybridisation between male horse and female donkey.
(B) It is obtained from interspecific hybridization between female horse and male donkey.
(C) It is an inbreeding product.
(D) It is an out crossing product.
138. During blood clotting which of the following is used
(A) Co (B) Ca++
(C) Na+ (D) Cl–
139. "Alary muscles" are present in – (A) Pericardial sinus of cockroach (B) Perivisceral sinus of cockroach (C) Perineural sinus of cockroach (D) All of the above
ZOOLOGY
Target Batch FT - 03
Medical
140. Select the correct statement among following (A) Osphradium is chemoreceptor in molluscs (B) Organ of Bojanus is excretory structure
in arthropoda.
(C) Sponging type mouth parts are found in honey bee.
(D) Only (A) and (C) are correct
141. An organism having radial symmetry diploblastic having 8–ciliary comb plates, performing only sexual reproduction, most probably organism is –
(A) Pleurobrachia (B) Schistosoma (C) Pheretima (D) Carcharodon 142. Which type of simple epithelium is made up
of single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries
(A) Squamous (B) Cuboidal (C) Compound (D) Columnar
143. Starch forms helical_______ structure that can hold_______ molecule and gives blue colour :-
(A) Primary, I2 (B) Secondary, I2 (C) Tertiary, I2 (D) Quaternary, I2 144. The folds of kerkring are developed in :-
(A) Jejunum (B) Stomach
145. Select the mismatch between a vitamin and its dificiency disease, among the following :- (A) Riboflavin - slow clotting of blood (B) Niacin - damage to skin and lining of
intestine
(C) Ascorbic acid - scurvy
(D) Thiamine - damage to nerve and Heart 146. If for some reason our goblet cells are
nonfunctional, this will adversely affect.
(A) Smooth movement of food down the intestine (B) Production of somatostatin
(C) Secretion of sebum from sebacious glands (D) Maturation of R.B.Cs
147. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option
(A) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv (B) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii (C) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii (D) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
148. Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme secreted by (A) Gall bladder (B) Stomach
(C) Pancreas (D) Salivary gland
149. Read the following statement (A–D) with regards to muscles –
(A) I–bands are isotrophic bands and made by actin filaments.
(B) A–bands are anisotrophic bands and made by both actin and myosin filaments (C) In between I-bands thin fibrous M-line is
present.
(D) In between A-bands, thin fibrous M-line is present.
How many of the above statement are correct ?
(A) Four (B) Three
(C) Two (D) One
150. Feature of cervical vertebrae is :- (A) They are twelve in number (B) Neural spine is absent (C) They are seven in number (D) Vertebrarterial canal is absent
151. Read the following four statements (a - d) :- (a) Patella is a cup like bone which covers
knee joint from dorsal side
(b) Bones of limbs and their girdles together forms appendicular skeleton
(c) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and clavicle are associated to form "rib cage"
(d) Clavicle is a long, thin bone and having two curvature and it is called as collar bone.
According to above statements, select the option which includes all the correct ones only ?
(A) Statements (b), (c) and (d) (B) Statements (b) and (d) (C) Statements (c) and (d) (D) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
152. Blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of :-
(A) Thyroxine (B) Calcitonin (C) Parathormone
(D) Both calcitonin and parathormone 153. Glucocorticoids stimulates ?
(A) Gluconeogenesis (B) Lipolysis
(C) Proteolysis
(A) Only A and B (B) Only A
(C) Only B (D) All A, B and C 154. The main mineralocorticoid in our body :-
(A) Cortisone (B) Aldosterone (C) Corticosterone
(D) both cortisone and Aldosterone
155. Spinal cord and brain are wrapped in protective membranes known as :-
(A) Myelin sheath (B) Menix/meninges
156. If Chlorolable cone of retina is damaged which colour can not be visualised ?
(A) Green (B) Red
(C) Yellow (D) Many colours 157. GLUT–4 is:-
(A) Transport protein (B) Receptor
(C) Enzyme (D) Antibody
158. In a vector which of the following is helpful in selection of Recombinants ?
(A) Restriction site (B) Ori site
(C) Selectable marker (D) Rop site
159. If first three nucleotide of recognization sequence for restriction enzyme is GAT. then next three nucleotide is :-
(A) TTC (B) ATC
(C) AAA (D) AAC
160. Choose the correct match :- (A) Western blotting – RNA (B) Southern blotting – DNA (C) Northern blotting – Protein
(D) Gel electrophoresis – Amplification of DNA 161. The cranial capacity of homo erectus :-
162. Which of the following disease is not transfered from one person to another through sexual route ?
(A) Syphilis (B) Hepatitis-B (C) SARS (D) Trichomoniasis 163. Which one of the following statements about
human sperm is correct ?
(A) Acrosome serves no particular function (B) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation
(C) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope for fertilisation (D) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure
leading the sperm towards the ovum 164. The valves of the heart are attached to
papillary muscles by :-
(A) Columnae carnae(B) Chordae tendinae (C) Tendinae (D) Pectinate muscles 165. What is the figure given below showing in
particular ?
(A) Tubectomy (B) Vasectomy (C) Ovarian cancer (D) Uterine cancer
166. Picture shown below represents :-
(A) Convergent evolution of mole and mouse (B) Divergent evolution of mole and
marsupial mole
(C) Adaptive radiation of wolf and Tasmanian wolf
(D) Convergent evolution of Anteater and Numbat
167. In human deoxygenated blood flows from :–
(A) Left auricle to left ventricle during auricular systole
(B) Right auricle to right ventricle during atrial systole
(C) Right ventricle to aorta during ventricular systole
(D) Pulmonary vein to left auricle during auricular systole
168. How many secondary spermatocytes will form 400 spermatozoa :-
(A) 100 (B) 400
(C) 40 (D) 200
169. Match the column-I with column-II.
(A) (i) - a, (ii) - b, (iii) - c (B) (i) - b, (ii) - a, (iii) - c (C) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - a (D) (i) - c, (ii) - b, (iii) - a 170. Aschelminthes are :-
(A) Coelomate, triploblastic (B) Acoelomate, triploblastic
171. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized ?
172. Which of the following is a connecting link between two phyla ?
(A) Echidna (B) Peripatus (C) Chameleon (D) Archaeopteryx 173. Balance organ in arthropoda are known as :-
(A) Blastocyst (B) Statocyst (C) Spicules (D) Conidia 174. What is not correct about lipid ?
(A) compounds of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen (B) compounds of glycerol and fatty acid (C) insoluble in water
(D) they always form heteropolymer 175. Which pair is correct from following ?
(A) Scapula – Coracoid process (B) Atlas – Odontoid process
176. Bt-cotton is a GM crop. It is resistant against:- (A) Nematode (B) Insect
(C) Fungi (D) Bacterium
177. is structure of amino acid.
Based on different R groups the following amino acids are formed. Select the correct amino acid according to different R group :- (A) R H (alanine)
(B) R CH3 (glycine) (C) R CH2OH (serine)
(D) R CH3CH2COOH (valine)
178. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme will :- (A) Increase Km without affecting Vmax (B) Decrease Vmax without affecting Km (C) Increase Vmax without affecting Km (D) Decrease both Vmax & Km
179. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below :-
(A) Hallucinogen (B) Depressant (C) Stimulant (D) Pain - killer 180. "Pashmina Wool" is obtained from :
(A) Gaddi goat
(B) Kashmiri and Tibbetian goat (C) Jamunapuri goat
(D) Bengal goat
(NEET PATTERN) Target Medical Batch Date : 28 - 02 - 2021
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Point Pen. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. When you are directed, fill in the particulars of the Answer Sheet carefully.
3. The test is 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
5. There are three parts in the question paper Biology having 90 questions and Physics and Chemistry having 45 questions each.
6. For each question, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) correspondind to the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, 1 (one) marks will be deducted.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be decucted accordingly as per instructions 6 above.
Filling the ORS (Optical Response Sheet) :
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel/lnk pen as it might smudge the ORS.
8. Write your Roll no. in the books given. Also darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no in the space provided.
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper.
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darkening the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12. Neither try to erase/rub/scratch the option nor make the Cross(X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.
13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS the bubbled data will be taken as final.
Name of the candidate Roll Number :
