15
th
Year 2012
Class 9
2
Mental ability
1. 9 3 3 3 3 1 4 r r r r k + − − ⋅⋅ = , then the value of k is_______.
(a) 3 (b) 32 (C) 33 (D) r3
2. if f(x) = x4 – 2x3 + 3x2 – ax + b is a polynomial such that when it is divided by (x – 1) and (x + 1), the
remainders are respectively 5 and 19. Determine the remainder when f(x) is divided by (x – 2).
(a) 5 (b) –8 (C) 10 (D) 8
3. Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other is a businessman. an advocate is standing to the right of a student. an author is to the left of the businessman. the student is between the professor and the advocate.
Counting from the left, the author is at place _______.
(a) First (b) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth
4. In the given figure, if AB || CD and EF || DQ, then ∠PDQ is _______.
(a) 48° P Q F E B A 78° 34° D C (b) 34° (C) 72° (D) 68°
5. in the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even number ?
1 2 3 4 6 3 4 2 5 9 3 6 7 4 1 2 3 6 7 6 5 4 3
(a) 3 (b) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
6. Find the value of 25 24
9 7 5 12 5 3 4 22 1 2 10 5 18 4 5 + ÷ − ÷ + × − . (a) 13 21 (b) 16 35 (C) 8 19 (D) 1
7. In the given figure, x + y = _______.
(a) 270° 80° 40° 70° C A B D O x° y° (b) 230° (C) 210° (D) 190°
8. a triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the same area. if the sides of the triangle are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm and the parallelogram stands on the base 14 cm, then the height of the parallelogram is _______.
(a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 10 cm
9. Select a figure from amongst the options which will continue the series established by Problem
Figures. Problem Figures
?
3
10. A retailer increases the selling price by 25% due to which his profit percentage increases from 20% to 25%. the percentage increase in cost price is _______.
(a) 20% (b) 30% (C) 25% (D) 50%
11. if a + b + c = 6, the value of (2 – a)3 + (2 – b)3 + (2 – c)3 – 3(2 – a) (2 – b) (2 – c) is ______.
(a) 1 (b) 0 (C) –1 (D) 2
12. Choose from the options which most closely resembles the water-image of the given combination. B K 5 0 R P 6 2
(a) B K 5 0R P92 (b) BK 5 0R P 9 2 (C) BK 5 0 R P 9 2 (D) BK 5 0 R P 9 2
13. In the adjoining figure, PQRS is square and MS = RN and A, P, Q and B lie on the same line. also AP = MS and AP is the radius of the circle. Find the ratio of the area of two circles to the area of the square.
(a) p : 3 (b) 2p : 3 (C) 3p : 2 (D) 6 : p
14. in DABC, E is the mid-point of median AD such that BE produced meets AC at F. if AC = 10 cm, then AF =
(a) 3 cm (b) 3.3 cm (C) 2.5 cm (D) None of these
15. A cosmetic company produces five different products. The sales of these five products (in lakh of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are shown in the given bar-graph.
What is the approximate ratio of the sales of nail enamels in 2000 to the sales of talcum powders in 1995 ?
(a) 7 : 2 (b) 5 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 2 :1
SCienCe
16. a force F1 acts on a particle to accelerate it from rest to a velocity v. the force F1 is then replaced
by force F2 which decelerates it to rest. Which of the following statements is true? (a) F1 must be equal to F2 (b) F1 may be equal to F2
(C) F1 must be unequal to F2 (D) None of these
17. a person sitting on a chair in a satellite feels weightless. it is because
(a) The normal force by the chair on the person balances the earth's attraction (b) The normal force is zero
(C) The person in the satellite is not accelerated (D) Cannot say
18. The velocity-time graph of a body is given in figure. the maximum acceleration in m/s2 is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
19. Which quantity of a two particles system depend only on the separation between the two particles?
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Total mechanical energy (C) Potential energy (D) Both (A) and (B)
4
20. an object of mass 10 kg is at a point A on a table. it is moved to a point B by a distance 5 m. if the line joining A and B is horizontal, then what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force?
(a) 50 J (b) 100 J (C) 60 J (D) Zero.
21. a plane lamina is freely suspended from point P.
the weight of the lamina is 2.0 n and the centre of gravity is at C. PC = 0.50 m, PQ = 0.40 m and QC = 0.30 m. the lamina is displaced to the position shown. What is the moment that will cause the lamina to swing?
(a) 0.60 Nm clockwise (b) 0.80 Nm anticlockwise
(C) 1.0 Nm clockwise (D) 1.0 Nm anticlockwise
22. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
Statement 1 : a person seated in a moving train is at rest with respect to another train moving in the opposite direction.
Statement 2 : if the train covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time then it moves with uniform acceleration.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
23. a sound wave passes from a medium A to a medium B. the velocity of sound B is greater than that in A. Assume that there is no absorption or reflection of the boundary. As the wave moves across the boundary, the ______.
(a) Frequency of sound will increase (b) Wavelength of sound will increase (C) Wavelength of sound will decrease (D) Intensity of sound will increase
24. the energy required to change liquid water into water vapour at the same temperature is called latent heat of vaporisation. What does this energy do?
(a) It increases the average separation of the water molecules. (b) It decreases the average speed of the water molecules. (C) It raises the temperature of the air near the water. (D) It splits the water molecules into their separate atoms.
25. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250 km. Find its speed if it takes 24 hours to revolve around the earth.
(a) 3.07 km s–1 (b) 5.67 km s–1 (C) 6.14 km s–1 (D) 1.57 km s–1 26. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
Statement 1 : the sun seems to rise before it actually rises above horizon and it seems to set after some time it actually sets below horizon.
Statement 2 : a light ray bends towards the normal when it passes from a rarer to denser medium.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
27. a man who is standing at a point X between two parallel walls as shown in the diagram, fires a starting pistol.
He hears the first echo after 0.6 s and another one after 0.8 s. How long after firing the pistol will he hear the next echo?
(a) 1.2 s (b) 1.4 s (C) 1.6 s (D) 2.4 s
28. in which conversion do H2O molecules lose speed? Steam
ice Water
(a) Ice → Water (b) Ice → Steam
5
29. the table shows the results of adding weighed pieces of iron to solutions M and S. What could the aqueous solutions M and S been?
M S Solution initial mass
of iron (g)
Mass of iron after 15 minutes (g)
M 5 4
S 5 4
(a) Copper(II) sulphate Silver nitrate
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid Sodium chloride
(C) Iron(II) chloride Calcium chloride
(D) Magnesium chloride Dilute sulphuric acid
30. Few properties of gases
X, y and Z are given. Gas X : an extremely suffocating and corrosive gas, released by burning coal and diesel. Gas y : Given off by petrol engines.
Gas Z : Produced by incomplete combustion of fuels. Gases X and y dissolve
in rain water and produce acid rain.
identify gases X, y and Z respectively on the basis of the given properties.
(a) CO2, H2, SO2 (b) SO2, NOx, CO (C) NOx, SO2, CO (D) H2, SO2, CO 31. two particles X and y have the composition as shown in the table.
the particles X and y are Particle number of
electrons number of neutrons number of protons X 10 8 8 y 18 18 17
(a) Metal atoms (b) Non-metal atoms (C) Negative ions (D) Positive ions
32. Mark the correct sequence of substances obtained during fractional distillation of petroleum in ascending order of their boiling points.
(a) Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Petrol, Diesel, Paraffin wax (b) Petrol, Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Light oil, Diesel
(C) Petroleum gas, Petrol, Kerosene, Diesel, Lubricating oil (D) Petroleum gas, Petrol, Lubricating oil, Diesel, Kerosene
33. Read the following statements and mark the correct answer.
I. Artificially prepared synthetic fibre which resembles silk is known as terylene. II. Rayon is not considered as a synthetic fibre as it is regenerated from cellulose. III. PET bottles and jars are made up of polyesters.
(a) Statement I is false, II and III are true. (b) Statement I is true, II and III are false. (C) Statements I and II are false, III is true. (D) Statement II is true, I and III are false.
34. a piece of charcoal is burnt and kept in a watch glass. the burning charcoal is covered by an inverted gas jar. it is observed that the charcoal stops burning after some time. take out the jar and add some water to it. test the solution with red and blue litmus paper. What do you observe?
(a) Solution turns red litmus blue, hence the oxide formed by burning of charcoal was basic oxide. (b) Solution turns blue litmus red, hence the oxide formed by burning of charcoal was acidic oxide.
(C) Solution does not change the colour of litmus paper, hence the oxide formed by burning charcoal was neutral. (D) Solution turns blue litmus red, hence the oxide formed by burning charcoal was basic oxide.
35. the relative atomic mass of naturally occurring chlorine is not a whole number. What is the reason for this?
(a) Chlorine atoms can have different numbers of neutrons. (b) Naturally occurring chlorine cannot be obtained pure.
(C) Chlorine is unstable. (D) The mass of the electrons has been included.
6
36. Match the Column-i with Column-ii and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-i (Mixture) Column-ii (technique used to separate the components)
(a) ammonium chloride and salt (i)
(b) iron in its ore (ii)
(c) Drugs in blood (iii)
(d) ethyl alcohol and water (iv)
(a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
37. the given diagram shows a boat made from iron. Some magnesium blocks are attached to the iron below the water line to prevent rusting. Why?
(a) Magnesium reacts in preference to the iron. (b) The magnesium forms an alloy with the iron.
(C) Magnesium reacts to form a protective coating of magnesium hydroxide on the iron. (D) The magnesium stops oxygen in the water from getting to the iron.
38. Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following features?
(a) Presence of two layers of membrane (b) Presence of green pigments (C) Presence of DNA
(D) Plastids are present in plant cell while mitochondria are present in animal cell.
39. Given below are four statements regarding external fertilization.
(i) the male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously. (ii) Only a few gametes are released into the medium.
(iii) Water is the medium of fertilization in majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilization. (iv) Offsprings developed from external fertilization have better chances of survival than those
developed from internal fertilization. Which of the given statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iii)
40. Harvesting in our country is either done manually by ___(i)_ or by a machine called ___(ii)_ . in the next step, the grain seeds are separated from the cut crop. this process is called ___(iii)__ . this is carried out with the help of a machine called ___(iv)__.
Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above paragraph.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Hoe Cultivator Winnowing Combine
(b) Sickle Cultivator Threshing Seed drill
(C) Hoe Harvester Winnowing Seed drill
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41. Select the incorrect statement regarding aiDS.
(a) It is an immunodeficiency disease. (b) HIV has RNA as its genetic material. (C) AIDS can be transmitted to an infant from the infected mother through her milk.
(D) The time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms may vary from week to month.
42. Which of the following options is correct about india alligator and indian giant squirrel?
(a) Both are examples of extinct species. (b) Both are found in Satpura National Park. (C) Both are examples of endemic species. (D) Both are examples of exotic species.
43. Inorganic fertilizers are applied each year to fields bordering a lake. The fertilizers run off into the lake and cause the following six changes which together cause high mortality of fishes.
(i) aerobic bacteria feed on dead plants. (ii) algae reproduce faster. (iii) light cannot penetrate the water. (iv) Oxygen level falls.
(v) Water becomes green. (vi) Plants under water die.
Which of the following shows the correct order of the changes taking place?
(a) (iv) → (vi) → (i) → (ii) → (v) → (iii) (b) (ii) → (v) → (iii) → (vi) → (i) → (iv) (C) (v) → (ii) → (iii) → (vi) → (i) → (iv) (D) (ii) → (iii) → (v) → (iv) → (vi) → (i)
44. the given box contains some diseases caused by different pathogens such as bacteria, virus, fungi and protozoa.
(i) typhoid, (ii) athlete’s foot, (iii) tuberculosis, (iv) anthrax, (v) Malaria,
(vi) Common cold, (vii) Amoebic dysentery, (viii) Yellow vein mosaic, (ix) Influenza, (x) Pneumonia Which of the following shows the correct category of diseases and their causative agents?
Viral Protozoan Bacterial Fungal
(a) (vi) (vii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (i) (vi) (iv) (iii)
(C) (v) (viii) (x) (ii)
(D) (x) (vi) (ix) (iii)
45. leech, Nereis, Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion all have segmented body organization, but still they cannot be classified in one group. Which of the following is the correct basis for the classification of these organisms into different groups?
(a) Leech and Nereis belong to the phylum annelida because they have metamerically segmented body. (b) Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion belong to phylum arthropoda, as they possess jointed appendages. (C) Leech, Nereis and Scolopendra belong to phylum annelida because they possess closed blood vascular
system.
(D) Both (A) and (B).
46. Refer the given figure and read the following statements.
(i) The part labelled P modifies into pseudopodia in WBC and helps in movement. (ii) the part labelled Q is absent in mature red blood cells in humans.
(iii) the parts labelled R and U help in production of energy. (iv) the part labelled S enlarges during maturity.
U P Q S T R
(v) the part labelled t is spindle shaped with pointed ends in muscle cells.
Which of the given statements are incorrect regarding this?
(a) (iii), (iv) and (v) (b) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (v) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
47. Goitre can occur either due to hypothyroidism (endemic goitre) or hyperthyroidism (exophthalmic goitre). Which of the following is a correct comparison among the both?
Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism
(a) High body temperature Low body temperature
(b) Low blood pressure High blood pressure
(C) Increased appetite Bulging of eye balls
(D) Bulging of eyeballs Tendency towards obesity
8
48. Given below are some characteristics of vessels and tracheids. (i) Multicellular with wide lumen (ii) Dead cells (iii) Cell walls are lignified
(iv) Discontinuous lumen due to presence of end walls
(v) long, cylindrical tube-like structure (vi) elongated cells with tapering ends
Categorize the above characteristics with vessels (X) and tracheids (y) and select the correct option.
(a) X – (i), (ii), (iii), (v); Y – (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi) (b) X – (i), (iii), (vi); Y – (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (C) X – (i), (iv), (v); Y – (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (D) X – (i), (ii), (v), (vi); Y – (i), (iii), (iv), (vi)
49. Which of the following is incorrect for the given
figure?
(a) It is a type of cropping pattern called intercropping.
(b) The given cropping pattern increases the productivity
of crops per unit area.
(C) The given cropping pattern helps in maintaining soil
fertility and makes better use of resources.
(D) None of these.
50. An ecologist studied the effects of sewage effluent
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Increase
(arbitrary
unit)
0
Point Y Distance down the stream (km) Oxygen concentration Key: Algae Bacteria (Entry of Sewage)
on the levels of oxygen concentration, bacterial population and algal growth in a fresh water stream. The given graph is plotted based on his findings. Select the correct statement regarding the given graph.
(a) There is a fall in oxygen concentration between
point Y and 4 km downstream because it is utilized by algae for respiration during day.
(b) There is a rise in oxygen concentration between 4 km
and 8 km downstream because bacterial usage of oxygen for respiration is lower.
(C) Bacterial population never recovers from 8 km onwards because all the oxygen is used up by algae. (D) There is decrease in the level of bacteria between 5 km and 7 km downstream because all the oxygen and
organic matter has been used up by algal population.
15
th
Year 2012
Class 9
meNtal ability
1. the value of 1 3 8 1 8 7 1 7 6 1 6 5 1 5 2 − − − + − − − + − is _________. (a) 1 (b) 2 (C) 0 (D) 52. Read the information carefully, then use it to answer the question that follows: i. Rahul, mohit, Rohit, amit and Karan all collect stamps.
ii. Rahul has twice as many as mohit. iii. amit and Karan have the same number.
iV. Rohit has fewer than amit. V. mohit has half as many as Rohit.
if the above statements are true, only one of the sentences below must be true. Which one is true?
(a) Rohit and Karan have same number of stamps. (b) Mohit has more stamps than Amit. (C) Rahul has fewer stamps than Amit. (D) Rahul have as many stamps as Mohit.
3. Given that 6x3 + 5ax – 12a leaves a remainder of – 4 when divided by (x – a), the possible value
of a is _______.
(a) –2 (b) 1
2 (C) −
2
3 (D) Both (A) and (B)
4. euclid stated that all right angles are equal to one another in the form of a/an _______ .
(a) Axiom (b) Definition (C) Postulate (D) Proof
5. Which of the following options will replace the question mark in the figure matrix?
(a) (b)
?
(C) (D)
6. if the code of ROUtiNe is VmRGFli, then the code of CRUelty is _______.
(a) VPVCZRL (b) VPCVZRL (C) WPCVZRL (D) None of these
7. In the given figure, if AB ^ BC, then x = _______ .
(a) 18° (b) 22° (C) 25° (D) 32°
8. The given question consists of two sets of figures.
Figures (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) constitute the Problem Set. there is a definite relationship between figures (i) and (ii). Establish a similar relationship between figures (iii) and (iv) by selecting a suitable figure from the options that would replace (?) in figure (iv).
(a) S (b) S
G (C)
S (D) S
9. a square ABCD has an equilateral triangle drawn on the side AB (interior of the square). the triangle has vertex at G. What is the measure of the angle DGC?
10. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle with co-ordinates of B and C as B(–3, 0) and C(3, 0). The co-ordinates of the vertex A are _______.
(a) (0, 3 3) (b) (0, 3) (C) ( 3, 3) (D) (3 3, 0)
11. the area of a rhombus whose perimeter is 80 m and one of whose diagonal is 24 m is _______.
(a) 364 m2 (b) 384 m2 (C) 483 m2 (D) 463 m2
12. Decimal expansion of a rational number cannot be ________.
(a) Non-terminating and non-recurring (b) Non-terminating and recurring
(C) Terminating (D) None of these
13. If the markup percentage of an article is 50% and discount is also 20%, then the profit percentage will be _______ .
(a) 10% (b) 0% (C) 30% (D) 20%
14. In the given figure, if AB || CD then the measure of x is ________.
(a) 28° (b) 18° (C) 10° (D) 15°
15. P and Q invest some amount under S.i. and C.i. respectively but for the same period at 6% per annum. each gets a total amount of ` 65,000 at the end of 6 years. Which of the following is definitely true?
(i) Q's initial principal is less than that of P. (ii) Q's initial principal is equal to that of P. (iii) P's percentage earnings is less than that of Q.
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii) (C) (iii) only (D) None of these
SCieNCe
16. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.Statement 1 : if an earth satellite moves to a lower orbit, the speed of satellite increases. Statement 2 : the speed of satellite is a constant quantity for all orbits of earth.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
17. Ships use sound waves to find the vertical distance to the seabed. A pulse of sound waves is sent out and the echoes are detected. a ship emits a pulse of waves lasting 0.50 s. the waves have a frequency of 3600 Hz. How many complete wavelengths does the pulse contain?
(a) 1800 (b) 3600 (C) 7200 (D) 18000
18. the given apparatus shows a heavy piston supported by gas trapped in a cylinder. the cross-sectional area of the piston is 4.0 × 10–4 m2. the pressure
of the gas inside the cylinder is 1.5 × 105 Pa and atmospheric pressure is
1.0 × 105 Pa. Find the mass of the piston (take g = 10 m s–2).
(a) 1 kg (b) 2 kg
(C) 3 kg (D) 4 kg
19. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a function of time t is given by
(a) 1 2 1 2 mv t t (b) m v t1 t 2 (C) 1 2 1 2 2 mv t t (D) 12 2 1 2 mv t t
20. the distance of a particle as a function of time is shown here. the graph indicates that
(a) The particle starts with certain velocity but the motion is retarded and finally the
particle stops
(b) The velocity of the particle is constant throughout
(C) The acceleration of the particle is constant throughout in the direction of motion
(D) The particle starts with some constant velocity, the motion is accelerated, and finally the particle moves
with some constant velocity
21. a truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. it travels a distance of 400 m in 20 s. Find the force acting on it if its mass is 7 metric tonnes.
(a) 7000 N (b) 14000 N (C) 28000 N (D) 3500 N
22. Two plane mirrors are arranged at right angles to each other as shown in figure.
a ray of light is incident on the horizontal mirror at angle q to the normal. For
what value of q the ray emerges parallel to the incoming ray after reflection from the vertical mirror?
(a) 60° only (b) 30° only (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
23. two identical balls are at rest side by side at the bottom of a hill. Sometime after ball A is kicked up the hill, ball B is given a kick up the hill. ball A is headed downhill when it passes ball B headed up the hill. at the instant when ball A passes ball B, it has the same _______.
(a) Position and velocity as ball B (b) Position and acceleration as ball B (C) Velocity and acceleration as ball B (D) Displacement and velocity as ball B
24. a boy dropped a stone in a well 45 m deep. if speed of sound is 340 m s–1, then after how much
time, he will hear the splash? (take g = 10 m s–2).
(a) 1.13 s (b) 2.13 s (C) 3.13 s (D) 4.13 s
25. a ball of mass 200 g is thrown with a speed of 20 m s–1. the ball
strikes a bat and rebounds along the same line at a speed of 40 m s–1. Variation of the interaction force, as long as the ball remains
in contact with the bat is as shown in the figure. What is the speed of the ball at the instant the force acting on it is, maximum?
(a) 40 m s–1 (b) 30 m s–1 (C) 20 m s–1 (D) 10 m s–1
26. a manometer is connected to a gas supply. Pressure can be measured in cm of water. the pressure of the gas is
(a) 8 cm of water more than atmospheric pressure
Air Connected togas supply
8
cm
4
cm
Water (b) 12 cm of water more than atmospheric pressure
(C) 8 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure (D) 12 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure
27. Which of the following reasons is true about the electric charge acquired by cloud?
(a) By the ultraviolet rays of sun falls on them. (b) Air molecules rub against water molecules. (C) Cold currents of air rub against hot currents of water. (D) Both (B) and (C)
28. See the figure given below and select the correct statements regarding polymers.
1. Figure (X) shows structure of a monomer while figure (Y) shows structure of a polymer. 2. Small boxes in the structure represent monomers which are joined to give a polymer. 3. Figure (X) shows structure of a linear polymer while (y) shows structure of a cross-linked polymer.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) All are correct.
29. the graph shows the change in temperature with time when ice at –20°C is heated to 120°C.
Which entry in the options shows the correct change taking place between the points?
Points Change
(a) P to Q Average energy of particles remains constant
(b) Q to R Ice melting
(C) R to S The volume of steam is increasing
(D) T to U Water boiling
30. Ritwik was given four inflammable substances P, Q, Substance ignition temperature
P 40°C
Q 38°C
R 52°C
S 59°C
R and S. He was asked to hand over them to Ramesh who was the resident of an hot area (temperature 46°C). Ritwik collected the data about the substances as shown in the table.
Which substances Ritwik should not carry to the hot area where Ramesh lives?
(a) P and Q (b) R and S (C) P and S (D) P, Q, R and S
31. Geeta poured 20 g of salt into 200 ml of water in a beaker. She stirred the water to dissolve the salt completely. then she heated the solution until it was reduced to half. How many grams of salt can be recovered from the remaining solution?
(a) 0 g (b) 10 g
Salt solution Bunsen burner
(C) 20 g (D) 40 g
32. each beaker contains two metal strips of same size fastened together and immersed in hydrochloric acid. after 5 minutes, which beaker contains the least amount of zinc ions?
(a) (b) (C) (D)
33. a spoon is kept in contact with ice cubes for sometime. later, the same spoon was held over the flame of a candle. The figure shows the observation. What do you infer from the figure?
(a) Spoon is an inflammable substance.
(b) Burning of candle is a spontaneous process. (C) CO2 is a product of combustion.
(D) Water vapour is a product of combustion.
34. Select the incorrect statements among the following. (i) bitumen is used for metalling the roads.
(ii) Some inexhaustible natural resources like coal, petroleum and natural gas formed from the dead remains of living organisms are known as fossil fuels.
(iii) many useful substances are obtained from coal (commercial importance), so it is also called as 'black gold'.
(iv) Natural gas is used as a starting material for the manufacture of a number of chemicals and fertilizers.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
35. Which element has the greatest number of electrons in the outermost shell (energy level) of its atoms?
(a) Fluorine (b) Helium (C) Lithium (D) Potassium
36. The given figure illustrates three experimental set up X, Y and Z to investigate the sacrificial protection of iron.
in which test-tube(s) will the iron rust?
(a) X only (b) Y only
Water Iron nail Copper Water Iron nail Magnesium Water Iron nail Zinc (X) (Y) (Z) (C) X and Z (D) Y and Z
37. an ionic compound of element m and chlorine has the formula mCl3. the molecular mass of mCl3 is 118.5. What is the molecular mass of the oxide of element M?
(a) 28 (b) 44 (C) 72 (D) 99
Ntal ability
38. Ali performed an experiment in which he put two different cells P and Q in pure water. Cell P swelled up and burst eventually while cell Q became tight and firm but did not burst.
Which of the following is the most appropriate inference?
(a) Cell sap of cell P is isotonic to the pure water. (b) Cell sap of cell Q is isotonic to pure water. (C) Cell P has been obtained from a plant. (D) Cell Q is a bacterium.
39. Observe the given figures of three different plant tissues and select the correct option.
(a) 'a' and 'b' consist of living cells while 'c' consists of dead cells. (b) Cytoplasm is present in cells of 'a' while it is absent in cells of 'b' and 'c'. (C) Cell walls of 'a', 'b' and 'c' bear uniform thickening of suberin.
(D) 'a' provides mechanical strength to the plant while 'b' and 'c' serve as storage tissues.
40. Study the given flowchart. Which of the following are the correct examples of W, X, Y and Z?
W X y Z
(a) Ulothrix Marsilea Selaginella Cycas
(b) Riccia Marsilea Cycas Ipomoea
(C) Lycopodium Marchantia Pinus Ipomoea
(D) Spirogyra Dryopteris Funaria Pinus
41. match Column-i with Column-ii and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-i Column-ii
(a) Hepatitis (i) Ulcers in stomach and duodenum
(b) typhoid (ii) Reduction in natural immunity of the body
(c) Helicobacter pylori (iii) tab vaccine
(d) aiDS (iv) Painful contraction of muscles of throat and chest
(e) Lyssavirus (v) Acute inflammation of liver caused by virus
(a) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), c-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v) (b) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), c-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv) (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), c-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(v) (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), c-(iii), (d)-(v), (e)-(i)
42. the given cycle represents circulation of nitrogen in the environment. identify X, y and Z in the cycle and
select the correct option.
(a) X - Denitrification, Y - Ammonification, Z - Nitrogen fixation (b) X - Nitrate, Y - Denitrification, Z - Ammonification (C) X - Nitrate, Y - Nitrogen fixation, Z - Ammonification (D) X - Nitrification, Y - Ammonification, Z - Denitrification
43. Complete the given statements by selecting the correct words from the options given below. (a) ___(i)_ is a traditional method of irrigation. (b) __(ii)___ is a common weedicide.
(c) in ___(iii)_____, water escapes from revolving nozzle and falls like rain on the crops.
(d) __(iv)___ is a technique for developing new varieties of crops by cross-breeding two different varieties.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Dhekli Agent orange Drip irrigation Broadcasting
(b) Dhekli DDT Chain pump Crop rotation
(C) Rahat Siniazine Moat Mixed cropping
(D) Rahat Metachlor Sprinkler system Hybridization
44. Read the following statements about four kinds of microorganisms P, Q, R and S. (i) P converts milk into curd.
(ii) Q is used for making antibiotics.
(iii) R contains RNa as genetic material and causes reduction in immunity of its host. (iv) S is used to manufacture wine and beer.
Identify P, Q, R and S and select the correct option.
(a) P is yeast and R is HIV. (b) Q is Lactobacillus and R is yeast. (C) P is Lactobacillus and Q is Penicillium. (D) Q is HIV and S is yeast.
45. Rohan conducted an experiment in which two visking tubes a and b made up of semi-permeable
membrane were filled with starch solution and kept in two separate test tubes containing water. these test tubes were then placed in water bath. Fresh saliva was added to visking tube a and boiled saliva was added to visking tube b. What result he would most likely obtain after 10 minutes of conducting experiment?
(a) Starch will be found outside visking tube A. (b) Maltose sugar will be found outside visking tube B. (C) Starch will be found outside visking tube B. (D) Maltose sugar will be found outside visking tube A.
46. the menstrual period of a woman, having regular 28 days, started on march 1st. When is she most
likely to ovulate and when will her next menstrual period start?
Ovulation menstrual period
(a) March 7th March 21st
(b) March 14th March 29th
(C) March 10th March 26th
(D) March 14th April 4th
47. the given Venn diagram represents the changes that occur at puberty in adolescents.
Which of the following options is correct regarding this?
(a) X represents male and Z represents female. (b) Z represents male and X represents female. (C) Y represents male and Z represents female. (D) Z represents male and Y represents female.
48. the given graph shows the amount of pollutants in four rivers P, Q, R and S. the river that can continue to support the most number of aquatic plants and animals is ________.
(a) P (b) Q Number of years Amount of pollutants P S QR (C) R (D) S
49. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Extensive use of fossil fuels poses dual problem, it increases air pollution and depletes fuel resources.
Statement 2 : Fossil fuels release oxides of nitrogen and sulphur on burning that cause acid rain and smog.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
50. the given graph shows changes in concentration of two substances X and y in a river polluted
by sewage. Which of the following options most appropriately identifies X and Y?
(a) X-Carbon dioxide, Y-Nitrogen compounds (b) X-Nitrogen compounds; Y-Carbon dioxide (C) X-Nitrogen compounds; Y-Oxygen (D) X-Oxygen; Y-Nitrogen compounds
16
th
Year 2013
Class 9
1. If a = 0.1001000100001... and
b = 0.101001000100001..., then which of the
following is true?
A. a and b are both irrational numbers and a > b.
B. Two irrational numbers between a and b are 0.1002000100001000001... and
0.10021001000100001... .
C. a and b both are rational numbers and a < b.
D. None of these
2. The polynomials ay3 + 3y2 – 3 and 2y3 – 5y + a when divided by (y – 4) leaves the remainder P1 and P2
respectively. Find the sum of digits of denominator of a if 2P1 – P2 = 0. A. 9 B. 10 C. 8 D. 127 3. If a3 + b3 + c3
= 3abc and a + b + c = 0, then ( ) ( ) ( ) ? b c bc c a ac a b ab + 2 + + 2 + + 2 = 3 3 3 A. 0 B. 1 C. – 1 D. Not defined
4. A solid metallic cylinder of base radius 3 cm and height 5 cm is melted to form cones, each of height 1 cm and base radius 1 mm. The number of cones is
A. 450 B. 1350 C. 4500 D. 13500
5. Select the correct answer. The three steps from solids to points are
A. Solids – surfaces – lines – points B. Solids – lines – surfaces – points C. Solids – surfaces – elements – points D. Solids – elements – surfaces – points 6. In the given figure, TR || VS,
TU || RS, ∠RPQ is twice of
∠UVS, then find a + b.
A. 165º P Q R S T b 90º a 25º U V B. 185º C. 225º D. 155º
7. Select the correct match for the statement. In DPQR, ∠P = 70º, ∠R = 30º, then
A. PQ > PR as ∠P > ∠R
B. PQ > QR as ∠P > ∠R
C. QR > PR as ∠Q > ∠R
D. PR > PQ as ∠Q is the greatest, greater angle has longer side opposite to it.
8. In a certain code language te da ka ni means
intelligence is in genes, se po lo ni means genes are not responsible and ba da fu te means intelligence is through experience. What does ka stand for in
that code language? A. genes
B. through
C. intelligence
D. in
9. Garima, Latika and Priya are standing at the corners of an equilateral triangle drawn in an open farm.
W N S E Garima Latika Priya
If they run along the sides in clockwise direction and stop after covering sides 11
2. Now which of the following statements is true?
A. Latika is to the west of Priya.
B. Garima is to the south-west of Latika. C. Garima is to the south-west of Priya. D. Latika is to the north-west of Garima.
10. Study the following information to answer the given question:
(i) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing centre.
(ii) F is between A and D. (iii) C is between E and B. (iv) E is not between D and C. (v) D is second to the left of C. Which of the following is D's position? A. Second to the right of A
B. Next to the right of B C. Third to the left of B D. Fourth to the right of A
11. How many m's are preceded and followed by m?
m n m n n m m n m n m m m u u m n m n n m m m n
A. 1 B. 2
C. None D. 3
12. Which of the following figures will complete the series given below ?
A. B.
C. D.
13. The co-ordinates of a point whose ordinate is 6 units below of origin and abscissa is 5 units right
of origin are _______ as point is _______. A. (– 5, 6), (– abscissa, – ordinate)
B. (5, 6), (ordinate, – abscissa) C. (– 5, – 6), (abscissa, – ordinate) D. (5, – 6), (abscissa, ordinate)
14. If the sides of a triangle are 60 m, 100 m, 140 m then length of the longest altitude is
A. 50 3 m B. 500 3 m C.
50 3
6 m D. 80 3 m
15. Four views of a cube are given below. Which symbol will be opposite to ?
1 2 3 4
A. B.
C. D.
16. A car covers one-third of its journey with speed x, next one-third with speed y and the last one-third with speed z. The average speed of the body during the entire journey is
A. 2xyz xy+yz+xz B. 3xyz xy+yz+xz C. xyz xy+yz+xz D. 3(x y z) xyz + +
17. The diagram shows a wave on a string with two points A and B marked on the string. If the wave is moving in the direction as shown then what will happen next ?
A. A will move to the right
B. A will move up
C. B will move to the right
D. B will move up
18. An athlete is doing push-ups. He applies a force of 300 N as he pushes up a distance of 0.5 m. He does
10 push-ups in 30 s. Find his average power output during this time interval.
A. 5 W B. 15 W C. 50 W D. 500 W
19. A girl stands between the two walls and claps her hands as shown in the figure. If S is less than 60 m and the time between the first and the second echo is 0.25 s, then find the value of S. Velocity of sound in air is 344 m s–1
. A. 17 m
B. 25 m C. 29 m D. 35 m
20. A motor cycle and a car are moving on a horizontal road with the same velocity. If they are brought to rest by the application of brakes, which provided equal retardation, then
A. Motor cycle will stop at shorter distance B. Car will stop at a shorter distance C. Both will stop at the same distance D. Nothing can be predicted.
Science
21. Three plane mirrors are mounted on the three walls forming an isosceles right triangle as shown in the figure. How many images of object A are formed in all?
A. 5 B. 6
C. 7 D. 8
22. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
Statement 1 : A hydrogen filled balloon stops rising after it has attained a certain height in the sky. Statement 2 : The atmospheric pressure decreases with height and becomes zero when maximum height is attained.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
23. A cluster of clouds at a height of 1000 m above the earth burst and enough rain fell to cover an area of 106 m2 with a depth of 2 cm. How much work have
been done in raising water to the height of clouds. (Take g = 9.8 m s–2 and density of water = 103 kg m–3)
A. 1.96 × 1011 J
B. 1.96 × 109 J
C. 1.5 × 1011 J
D. 2.5 × 1013 J
24. A block of mass M is supported by a cord A from a rigid support and another cord B is attached to the bottom of the block as shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is correct ?
A. If you give a sudden jerk to B, it will break.
B. If you give a sudden jerk to B,
A will break.
C. If you pull on B steadily, chord B will break. D. Both options A and C are correct.
25. Which of the following graphs between the square of the time period and cube of the distance of planet from the sun is correct ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option using the codes given below.
Column I Column II (a) A fibre obtained by (i) Melamine
chemical treatment of wood pulp.
(b) A fibre stronger (ii) Acrylic than steel wire
(c) A fibre known as (iii) Rayon artificial wool
(d) A fire-proof plastic (iv) Nylon A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
27. A flask containing a liquid X is heated until it boils as shown in the figure.
Heat
Choose the incorrect statement about the particles of the substance during the process.
A. Energy is absorbed by particles in the liquid X. B. The particles loss kinetic energy.
C. Eventually, the particles throughout the liquid have enough energy to overcome the forces holding them together.
28. Nandita has a substance Y which boils at 388 K and is immiscible with water. Y does not react with water. Which of the following separation methods will Nandita adopt to separate Y from a mixture containing another substance Z which boils at 278 K? (Both Y and Z are miscible).
A.
B.
C.
D.
29. In a science project, Aditya has to make a chart, illustrating various elements and their atomicity. Aditya decided to show elements of different atomicity by different shapes. Monoatomic → Diatomic → Triatomic → Tetratomic → Polyatomic →
Pick the element which is shown incorrectly.
A. Cl B. Al
C. P D. S
30. An element L has 9 protons and its valency is 1. Another element M has valency 3 and 5. What is the difference in the number of electrons in L and M? A. 6
B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
31. In Rutherford's a-particle scattering experiment, a very small fraction of a-particles were deflected by 180°. What did he conclude from this observation ? A. All the positive charge and mass of the atom
occupy very little space.
B. Most of the space inside the atom is empty. C. All the positive charge and mass of the atom were
concentrated in a very small volume. D. Both A and B.
32. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Hottest zone (i) Zone of unburnt wax of candle flame vapours
(b) Yellow zone of (ii) Non-luminous zone candle flame
(c) Black innermost (iii) Incomplete zone of the candle combustion zone flame
A. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii) B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii) C. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii) D. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)
33. Naphthalene balls used to repel moths and other insects are obtained from X .
These days, Y , a petroleum product, is used in place of X for metalling the roads.
What are X and Y respectively ? A. Coke, coal
B. Coal, coke C. Bitumen, coal tar D. Coal tar, bitumen
34. Schematic atomic structures of three elements are given below.
Which of the following is the correct formula of the compound formed by the given three elements ? A. Na3PO4
B. Na2CO3
C. Na2SO4
D. Na2SO3
35. Refer the given figure and select the correct option regarding it. P Q R S
A. P are dead sclerenchyma fibres that provide mechanical strength.
B. Q helps in maintaining pressure gradient. C. R is the main conducting part of the phloem formed
of cylindrical cells.
D. S is living parenchyma cell that stores food. 36. Study the following table regarding different species
and their status. Select the correct option for a-e.
Status Species
a Passenger pigeon
Endemic b
Critically endangered c
d Giant golden mole e Hippopotamus A. a - Extinct; b - Hog badger
c - Thick billed parrot; d - Endangered e - Vulnerable
B. a - Vulnerable; b - Thick billed parrot c - Hog badger; d - Extinct
e - Endangered
C. a - Endangered; b - Hog badger c - Thick billed parrot; d - Vulnerable e - Extinct
D. a - Extinct; b - Thick billed parrot c - Hog badger; d - Extinct e - Endangered
37. Agricultural fields must maintain their fertility in order to keep up productivity. Which among the following is the most effective method that farmers can adopt to keep the soil fertile?
A. Repeatedly growing the same crop in the field. B. Providing adequate irrigation facilities and drainage
system.
C. Regular tilling of the field so that it holds more air and water.
D. Rotating crops in the field.
38. Pasteurization is a technique for food preservation which was invented in 1862. It mainly involves A. Exposure of food to high temperature (around
135°C) to inactivate enzymes that spoil the food during storage
B. Using radiation technology to kill certain pathogens
C. Exposure of food to extremely low temperature to retard growth of microorganisms
D. Exposure of food to 70°C for short period and then cooling it quickly to destroy harmful microbes. 39. Read the following characteristics of an organism. (i) Soft, dorsoventrally flattened, leaf-like body.
(ii) Head lobe bears mouth surrounded by oral sucker.
(iii) Absence of digestive system and sense organs. (iv) Presence of excretory pore at the posterior end of
the body.
(v) Considerable osmotic adaptability.
Based on the above characteristics, identify the animal and select the correct option.
A. Taenia solium B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Leucosolenia
40. Acid rain is produced when rain mixes with gases such as sulphur dioxide. This will eventually result in
A. Lowering of pH and changes of temperature in ponds
B. Raising of pH in ponds, encouraging growth of microorganisms
C. Lowering of pH in ponds, limiting survival of aquatic organisms
D. Raising of pH in ponds, limiting development of organisms.
41. Mrs. Mehra, who is 32 years old, underwent a surgery to get her oviducts removed after having girl. Now she wants to have another baby. Do you think she can have another baby?
A. Yes, she can have another baby as her ovaries are still functional to produce eggs.
B. No, she cannot have another baby because fertilization of egg takes place in the oviduct. C. Yes, she can have another baby because the surgery
can be reversed.
D. No, she cannot have another baby as the hormones associated with the oviduct will not be present. 42. Bio fuels are the fuels which are obtained from
plants. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this?
A. Seeds of the plant Jatropha yield oil and are used to make bio-diesel.
B. Jatropha is a cultivated plant which requires only
certain specific soil to grow and also requires much irrigation.
C. Bio-fuels are an environment-friendly alternative to fossil fuels.
43. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II (a) Infectious disease causing (i) AIDS ulceration and inflammation
of intestinal tract
(b) Rapid and uncontrolled (ii) Chicken pox growth of cells
(c) Infection of respiratory (iii) Typhoid system causing inflammation
of lungs
(d) Communicable disease (iv) Cancer characterised by itchy rashes
and vesicles on body
(e) Viral infection leading to (v) Pneumonia severely low immunity
A. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv), (e) - (v) B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (v), (e) - (i) C. (a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii) D. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (v), (d) - (ii), (e) - (i) 44. Anaya took a few stalks of celery and immersed them
in solution X. After 10 minutes the stalks became swollen. Similarly she immersed some celery stalks in solution Y, which after 10 minutes became shrunken. What can you deduce from this observation? A. Solution X is hypotonic, while solution Y is
hypertonic for celery stalks.
B. Solution X is hypertonic, while solution Y is hypotonic for celery stalks.
C. Solution X is isotonic, while solution Y is hypertonic for celery stalks.
D. Solution X is hypotonic, while solution Y is isotonic for celery stalks.
45. Fill up the blanks and select the correct option from the codes given below.
(a) (i) is decomposed mixture of cattle excreta and urine along with straw and fodder.
(b) (ii) is made from vegetable wastes and animal wastes decomposed by aerobic and anaerobic microorganisms.
(c) (iii) is prepared by sowing certain crop seeds and then ploughing them back in the soil.
(d) (iv) is made by decomposition of plant and animal refuse with the help of earthworms.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. Vermi- Farmyard Green Compost compost manure manure
B. Farmyard Compost Green Vermi-manure manure compost C. Green Compost Farmyard
Vermi-manure manure compost D. Compost Green Farmyard
manure manure compost
achieverS Section
Direction (Q. 46 & 47) : Refer the given passage and answer the following questions.
At present the primary nutrient which limits the agricultural yield is nitrogen (N). Some plants are capable to produce more N2 than they consume. These plants show symbiotic relationship with N2-fixing bacteria such as Rhizobium. These bacteria produce root nodules in leguminous plants and convert atmospheric N2 into nitrogenous compounds.
Rhizobium bacteria are gram negative bacteria, which
show host specificity and fix N2 in the presence of a red
pigment called leghaemoglobin. It protects nitrogen fixing enzyme nitrogenase from oxygen.
46. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Leghaemoglobin functions as oxygen scavenger
during N2 -fixation.
B. Enzyme nitrogenase, which is required to fix atmospheric N2 is active in the presence as well as absence of oxygen.
C. N, P and K are referred to as critical elements for crop plants as they easily become deficient in soil due to higher plant requirement and repeated cultivation.
D. The coordinated activities of the legume and
Rhizobium bacteria depend on chemical interactions
between the symbiotic partners.
47. Read the given statements and select the correct answer.
Statement 1 : Rhizobium bacteria can also live freely in the soil and carry out N2-fixation by themselves. Statement 2 : Such Rhizobium bacteria are called free-living N2-fixing bacteria.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
48. The speed-time graph of a particle in motion along a constant direction is shown here. Three equal intervals of time are represented by 1, 2 and 3. In which interval is the average acceleration greatest in magnitude? A. Interval 1
B. Interval 2 C. Interval 3 D. Interval 1 and 3 49. Fill in the blanks :
The effect of rotation of the earth is ______ at the equator and _______ at the poles. If the earth stops rotating, the weight of a body would ________ due to the absence of ________ force.
A. Minimum, maximum, decreases, gravitational B. Maximum, minimum, increases, centrifugal C. Maximum, minimum, decreases, centrifugal D. Minimum, maximum, increases, gravitational 50. Small pieces of different metals P, Q, R and S are
dropped in beakers containing different reagents.
Identify the metals P, Q, R and S respectively. A. Zn, Mg, Ca, Cu
B. Na, Cu, Mg, Ca C. Mg, Ca, Zn, Na D. Zn, Ca, Na, Mg
16
th
Year 2013
Class 9
1. Simplify : a a a a a 1 2 21 21 1 1 1 + - + -+ - -A. 1 1-a B. 0 C. –1 D. 2 1-a
2. Two positions of a dice are shown below. What will be the number of dots on the top of the dice if 5 is in the bottom?
A. 5 B. 1
C. 6 D. 3
3. All the three quadrilaterals I, II and III are squares. If the area of
I = x2 and area of II = y2 (x2 > y2),
then the area of III is _____. A. 2x2
B. 2(x2 – y2)
C. x2 + y2
D. x2 – y2
4. Which of the following options best indicates the logical relationship amongst the following three?
“DOCTOR, MALE, ACTOR”
A. B.
C. D. None of these 5. Which of the following is false?
A. The x-coordinates of all points to the right of the
y-axis are positive.
B. The y-coordinates of all points above the x-axis are positive.
C. The y-coordinates of all points below the x-axis are positive.
D. The x-coordinates of all points to the left of the
y-axis are negative.
6. If means ‘×’, D means ‘÷’, means ‘+’, means ‘–’, means ‘=’ and means ‘less than’, then which of the following is incorrect?
A. 10 3 7 4 D 2 5 5 B. 10 3 15 D 3 5 7 9 2 C. 10 7 5 9 D 3 4 2 8 2 D. 10 4 8 D 4 7 8 2 5 7. Select the correct match.
Column I Column II
A. Postulate III A terminated line can be produced indefinitely. B. Postulate II All right angles are equal to
one another.
C. Postulate IV A circle can be drawn with any centre and any radius. D. Postulate I A straight line may be drawn
from any one point to any other point.
8. Identify the option in which figure (x) is embedded. A. Figure (x) B. C. D.
9. If the sides BA and DC of quadrilateral ABCD are produced as shown in the given figure, then A. x + y = a + b
B. x – y = a – b C. x y
-2 = a – b D. None of these
