ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. Inside a hollow conducting sphere (a) electric field is zero.
(b) electric field is a non-zero constant.
(c) electric field changes with the magnitude of the charge given to the conductor. (d) electric field changes with distance from the centre of the sphere.
2. For a specific open-circuit voltage of a dc generator. The short- circuit current will be maximum when it is
(a) separately excited. (b) shunt connected.
(c) cumulatively compounded. (d) differentially compounded.
3. The size of the transformer core depends upon (a) frequency.
(b) permissible flux density in the core material. (c) area of the core.
(d) both (a) and (b).
4. A field excitation of 20 A in a certain alternator results in an armature current of 400 A in short circuit and a terminal voltage of 2,000 V on open circuit. The magnitude of the internal voltage drop within the machine at a load current of 200 A is
(a) 1 V (b) 10 V
(c) 100 V (d) 1,000 V
5. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of
(a) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to pass current.
(b) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to resist the flow of current. (c) the extent of neutralization of reactive power in a circuit. (d) reactive power in a circuit.
6. The main factor that leads to unstable parallel operation of flat or over compounded dc generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics. (b) unequal series field resistances.
(c) unequal speed regulation of their prime movers. (d) their drooping voltage characteristics.
7. Repeated switching in of transformers located near the generating stations may cause (a)excessive temperature rise
(b)mechanical distortion of the windings and subsequent turn-to-turn insulation failure. (c)intense local eddy currents in the core
(d)surface flash–over of the bushings 8. Platinum is employed in
(a) electrical contacts and thermocouples.
(b) heating elements for electric furnaces to raise the temperature (c) grids for special purpose resistance connected with capacitor (d) all of the above.
9. Which distribution system is more reliable? (a) Tree system.
10. Which of the following statements is correct regarding resistance?
(a) The resistance of a conductor is the hindrance by which the conductor opposes the flow of current through it.
(b) The resistance of wire is independent of the temperature for most of the materials. (c) The resistance of a wire does not depend upon its material.
(d) None of the above.
11. At a frequency more than the resonant frequency (a) both of the series and parallel circuits are capacitive. (b) both of the series and parallel circuits are inductive. (c) series circuit is inductive and parallel circuit is capacitive. (d) series circuit is capacitive and parallel circuit is inductive. 12. The load carrying capability of a long ac transmission line is
(a) always limited by the conductor size. (b) limited by statbility considerations. (c) reduced at low ambient temperatures.
(d) decreased by the use of bundled conductors of single conductors. 13. A gate turn off (GTO) thyristor has capacity to
(a) Amplify the gate-current.
(b) Turn-off when positive current pulse is given at the gate.
(c) Turn-off when a gate-pulse is given at the gate even though it is reverse biased. (d) Turn-off when a negative current pulse is given at the gate.
14. DC to dc converter or chopper can (a) only step-down dc voltage. (b) only step-up dc voltage.
(c) step-up or step-down dc voltage. (d) none of these
15. Eddy current damping cannot be used for moving iron instruments because (a) weight of the instrument will increase.
(b) size of the instrument will increase.
(c) presence of permanent magnet will distort the magnetic field produced by the instrument and hence will affect its readings.
(d) eddy currents will pass through the iron thereby cause losses. 16. How can a milliammeter be used as a voltmeter?
(a) By connecting a low resistance in parallel with the instrument. (b) By connecting a high resistance in parallel with the instrument. (c) By connecting a low resistance in series with the instrument. (d) By connecting a high resistance in series with the instrument.
17. Inductive transducers are employed in differential configurations because differential outputs are less affected by
(a) external magnetic fields. (b) temperature variations.
(c) variations of bridge supply voltage and frequency. (d) all of the above.
18. Two electric bulbs have tungsten filament of same thickness. If one of them gives 60 W, and the other gives 100 W then
(a)60 W and 100 W lamp filaments have equal length (b)60 W lamp filament has shorter length
(d)60 W lamp filament has longer length
19. The time constant of the network shown in the figure is
(a) 4 CR (b) 2 CR (c)CR (d)2CR
20. In a parallel RLC circuit if the lower cut-off frequency is 2400 Hz and the upper cut off frequency is 2800 Hz. What is the bandwidth?
(a)5200 Hz (b)2400 Hz
(c)2800 HZ (d)400 Hz
ANSWER KEYS (ELECTRICAL ENGG)
1 a 6 a 11 c 16 d 2 c 7 b 12 b 17 d 3 d 8 a 13 d 18 d 4 d 9 b 14 c 19 c 5 a 10 a 15 c 20 d MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
21. A solid sphere rolls on a level surface. The rotational kinetic energy and total kinetic energy are in the ratio
(a) 2:7 (b) 5:7
(c) 3:4 (d) 1:3
22. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction angle) applied in the direction
(a) along the plane (b) horizontally (c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
23. The specific speed of a hydraulic pump is the speed of geometrically similar pump working against a unit head and
(a) delivering unit quantity of water (b) consuming unit power
(c) having unit velocity of flow (d) having unit radial velocity.
24. If a water tank partially filled with water is being carried on a truck moving with a constant-horizontal acceleration, the level of the liquid will
(a) rise on the front side of the tank (b) fall on the back side of the tank
(c) remain the same at both the sides of the tank (d) rise on the back side and fall on the front side 25. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) free convection (b) forced convection (c) radiation
(d) convection and radiation
26. Thermal boundary layer is a region where (a) Heat dissipation is negligible
(b) Inertia and convection are of the same order of magnitude
(c) Convection and dissipation terms are of the same order of magnitude (d) Convection and conduction terms are of the same order of magnitude
27. Which phenomena have the most adverse effect on volumetric efficiency when engine works at high speeds?
(a) Flow friction and chocking (b) Ram effect and choking
(c) Flow friction and charge heating (d) Charge heating and back flow
28. Knocking in a spark ignition engine can be reduced by 1. Retarding the spark
2. Supercharging
3. Increasing the engine speed
4. Using a fuel of long straight chain structure Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1 and 4 (b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3 (d)2 and 4
29. Refer to the network shown in the figure given below
The probability of completion of the project in 24 days is
(a) 68.2% (b) 84.1%
(c) 95.4% (d) 97.7%
30. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow (a) Beta distribution
(b) Gamma distribution (c) Normal distribution (d) Poisson’s distribution
31. Improvement of fatigue strength using prestressing is done for (a) ductile material
(b) parts subjected to unidirectional variable stress (c) parts subjected to completely reversible load (d) parts subjected to variable load
32. The S-N curve is the graphical representation of stress amplitude versus the number of stress cycles before the fatigue failure on a
(a) log-log graph paper
(b) cartesian co-ordinate system (c) semilog graph paper
33. During peritectic solidification, one liquid
(a) combines with one solid to form a second new solid (b) Solidifies into two different solids
(c) forms one solid
(d) forms one solid and another liquid
34. The correct order of cooling media for decreasing cooling rate is: (a) Air, Water, Oil and Fused salt
(b) Water, Air, Fused salt and Oil (c) Oil, Fused salt, Air and Water (d) Water, Oil, Fused salt and Air
35. Incomplete combustion can be best judged by (a) smoky chimney exit
(b) excess air in flue gases
(c) measuring carbon monoxide in flue gases (d) measuring oxygen in the gases
36. Which of the following component is not subjected to high-pressure high-temperature steam? (a) Superheaters (b) Inlet stages of turbine
(c) Condenser (d) Valves
37. Which one of the following is the correct statements?
(a) Gate is provided in moulds to feed the casting at constant rate (b) shell mould can be used for making gold ornaments
(c) hollow statues are produced by shell moulding (d) in centrifugal casting method core is made of sand 38. Shear angle is the angle between
(a) shear plane and tool face (b) shear plane and vertical (c) shear plane and horizontal (d) shear plane and job surface
39. A uniform, slender cylindrical rod is made of a homogeneous and isotropic material. The rod rests on a frictionless surface. The rod is heated uniformly. If the radial and longitudinal thermal stresses are represented by
r and
z respectively, then(a)
r = 0,
z = 0 (b)
r 0,
z = 0(c)
r=0,
z 0 (d)
r 0,
z 040. Which one of the following phenomenon occurs when gas in a piston-in-cylinder assembly expands reversibly at constant pressure?
(a) Heat is added to the gas (b) Heat is removed from the gas
(c) Gas does work from its own stored energy (d) Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion
ANSWER KEYS (MECHANICAL ENGG):
21 a 26 c 31 d 36 c
22 d 27 c 32 a 37 a
23 a 28 b 33 a 38 d
24 c 29 d 34 d 39 a
ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
41. Which one of the following power amplifiers has the maximum efficiency? (a) Class A (b) Class B
(c) Class AB (d) Class C
42. The effect of current shunt feedback in an amplifier is to
(a) Increase the input resistance and decrease the output resistance (b) Increase both input and output resistances
(c) Decrease both input and output resistances.
(d) decrease the input resistance and increase the output resistance 43. The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of
(a) CC- CB (b) CE- CB
(c) CB – CC (d) CE- CC 44. What is the spectral density of white noise?
(a) a constant (b)
(
)(c)
(
)2 (d) A step function in ‘’45. An increase in the modulation index leads to increase in band width in case of
(a) AM (b) FM
(c) PM (d) Both FM and PM
46. The intermediate frequency of a super heterodyne receiver is 450 kHz. If it is tuned to 1200 kHz the image frequency will be
(a) 750 kHz (b) 900 kHz
(c) 1650 kHz (d) 2100kHz
47. If a transmission bandwidth is doubled in FM then the SNR is (a) also doubled
(b) Improved four- fold (c) decreased by one fourth (d) Unaffected
48. Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be effected using ? (a) correlation receiver
(b) band pass filters and envelop detector (c) matched filter and correlation receiver (d) discriminator detection
49. If energy signal x(t) has energy ‘E’ and a power signal g(t) has power ‘P’ then energy and power of x(1 – 3t) and g (1– 3t) are respectively
(a) E & P (b) E/3 & P/3 (c) E/3 & P (d) – E/3 & – P 50. Fourier transform of odd and imaginary signal is
(a) odd and imaginary (b) odd and real (c) even and real (d) real and imaginary
51. How many FFs are required to build a binary counter circuit to count from 0 to 1023?
(a) 1 (b) 6
(c) 10 (d) 24
52. The problems of ‘current hogging’ is associated with (a) ECL gates (b) DTL gates
53. A certain JK FF has tpd = 12 n sec. The largest MOD counter that can be constructed from these FFs are still operate upto 10 MHz is
(a) Any (b) 8
(c) 256 (d) 0
54. The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal number (3E8)16 is
(a) 1000 (b) 982
(c) 768 (d) 323
55. A schottky diode is a
(a) majority carrier device (b) minority carrier device (c) fast recovery diode
(d) both a majority and a minority carrier diode 56. A power MOSFET is a
(a)voltage control device (b) current control device
(c) both voltage and current control device (d) None of these
57. In a power MOSFET switching times are of the order of few (a) seconds (b) milliseconds
(c)
sec (d) nanoseconds58. Barelters and Bolometers are used for measurement of (a) VSWR (b) Transmission losses (c) Microwave power (d) None
59. N- type Sillicon is obtained by doping silicon with (a) Germanium (b) Aluminium
(c) Boron (d) Phosphorus
60. The badgap of Silicon at 300 k is
(a) 1.36 eV (b) 1.10 e V (c) 1.21 eV (d) 0.72 eV
ANSWER KEYS (ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGG)
41 d 46 d 51 c 56 a 42 d 47 c 52 c 57 d 43 b 48 c 53 b 58 c 44 a 49 c 54 a 59 d 45 b 50 b 55 a 60 b CIVIL ENGINEERING
61. A cantilever beam curved in plane is subjected to lateral loads will develop at any section (a)bending moment and shearing at any section
(b)bending moment and twisting moment (c)twisting moment and shearing force
(d)bending moment, twisting moment and shear force 62. The stiffness method in structural analysis is also known as
(a) Unit load method
(b) Consistent deformation method (c) Force method
63. For the beam shown below, the stiffness coefficient K22 can be written as (a) 6 2 L EI (b) 123 L EI (c) L EI 3 (d) 2 6L EI
64. Transportation of concrete-mix by pumps is very convenient method, particularly in case of (a) housing complex (b) cement concrete pavement
(c) low-rise buildings (d) tunnel-lining 65. The Vee-Bee test
(a) is suitable for concrete mixes of low and very low workabilities (b) is a remoulding test
(c) is unsuitable for concretes having a slump of 75 mm or above
(d) is suitable since the concrete in the test receives a similar treatment as it would in actual practice 66. Workability of concrete is independent of
(a) mix proportions (b) water content
(c) size, shape and texture of aggregate (d) None of the above
67. In a reinforced concrete retaining wall, a shear key is provided, if the (a) shear stress in the vertical stem is excessive
(b) shear force in the toe slab is more than that in the heel slab (c) retaining wall is not safe against sliding
(d) retaining wall is not safe against overturning
68. Which one of the following is the correct expression to estimate the development length of deformed reinforcing bar as per IS code in limit state design ?
(a) bd s . 5 4 (b) bd s 5 (c) bd s . 4 6 (d) bd s 8
69. The traffic conflicts that may occur in a rotary intersection are (a) merging and diverging (b) crossing and merging
(c) crossing and diverging (d) crossing, merging and diverging
70. For laminar flow in circular pipes, the Darcy’s friction factor f is equal to
(a) 16/Re (b) 32/Re
(c) 64/Re (d) None of these
71. The centre of pressure of a surface subject to fluid pressure is the point (a) on the surface at which resultant pressure acts
(b) on the surface at which gravitational force acts (c) at which all hydraulic forces meet
72. What type of cross drainage work is provided when the canal runs below the drain, with FSL of canal well below the bed of the drain?
(a) Aqueduct (b) Super passage (c) Level crossing (d) Syphon aqueduct
73. The following structure serves the purpose of a ‘safety valve’ for a canal (a) head regulator (b) cross regulator
(c) canal escape (d) canal fall
74. As per IS code, the maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in bolted joints of tension members is nominally
(a) 12 times the thickness of the plate (b) 12 times the diameter of the bolt (c) 16 times the thickness of the plate (d) 16 times the diameter of the bolt
75. In the case of an axially loaded column machined for full bearing, the fasteners connecting the column to the base plates in gusseted base are designed for
(a) 100% of the column load (b) 50% of the column load (c) 25% of the column load (d) erection conditions only 76. Geodetic surveying is different from plane surveying because of
(a) the curvature of earth
(b) the large difference of elevations between various points (c) coverage of very large area
(d) undulations of very large area
77. The difference between the most probable value of a quantity and its observer value is (a) true error (b) weighted observations
(c) conditional error (d) residual error 78. Ordinary rails are made of :
(a) Mild steel (b) Cast iron
(c) Wrought iron (d) High carbon steel 79. The limiting value of cant gradient for all gauges is :
(a) 1 in 360 (b) 1 in 720 (c) 1 in 1000 (d) 1 in 1200
80. The coefficient of velocity for an orifice is given by (using usual notations) : (a)
2
x
yH
(b)2x
yH
(c)x
yH
(d) 2 2 x yH ANSWER KEYS (CIVIL ENGG)61 d 66 d 71 a 76 a
62 d 67 c 72 b 77 d
63 b 68 c 73 c 78 d
64 d 69 a 74 c 79 b
GENERAL AWARENESS
81. The famous battle of Waihind (AD 1001) took place between (a) Rajaraja Chola I and Vikramaditya IV
(b) Bhima I and Mahmud of Ghazni (c) Indra III and Mahipala
(d) Jaipala and Mahmud of Ghazni
82. Who destroyed the Jagannath temple of Puri? (a) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(b) Firoz Shah Tughluq (c) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq (d) Ala-ud-din Khalji
83. Who was the first Delhi Sultan to consider himself as neither onus inter pares (one among equals) nor primus inter pares (first among equals) but much superior to the nobles?
(a) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (b) Ala-ud-din Khalji (c) Nasir-ud-din Khusrao (d) Balban
84. Arrange the following battles of the Mughal period in the chronological order. i) Battle of Ghagara
ii) Battle of Gujarat iii) Battle of Panipath I iv) Battle of Chausa v) Battle of Khanwa
Select the answer from the codes below; (a) iii, ii, i, v, iv (b) ii, iv, iii, i, v (c) iv, ii, v, i, iii (d) iii, v, i, iv, ii
85. The important fishing areas called Grand Banks and Georges Bank are located in the waters of which one of the following?
(a) North Pacific (b) South Pacific (c) South-west Atlantic (d) North-west Atlantic
86. Fishing, hunting and food gathering activities are carried out by— (a) Semangs of Malaysia
(b) Masais of East Africa (c) Bedouins of Arabia (d) Kirghiz of Central Asia
87. The natural region produced by the creation of climatic homogeneity by the sea is— (a) Humid subtropics
(b) Marine west coast (c) Monsoon tropics
(d) Short summer humid continental
88. If a ray of light incident on a plane mirror is such that it makes an angle of 300 with the mirror, then the angle of reflection is
(a) 300 (b) 450
(c) 550 (d) 600
89. If the top half of a convex lens is covered with black paper (a) The bottom half of the image will disappear
90. What happens when the filament inside the bulb is broken? (a) Bulb glows more intensely
(b) Bulb glows with very low intensity (c) Bulb gets fused
(d) No change happens
91. During period of inflation, rates should:
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant (d) Fluctuate 92. The Indian Income Tax is:
(a) Direct and Proportional (b) Indirect and proportional (c) Direct and progressive (d) Indirect and progressive
93. Which one of the following forms the largest share of deficit in Government of India budget: (a) Primary deficit (b) Revenue deficit
(c) Budgetary deficit (d) Fiscal deficit
94. Which Indian architect has been conferred France’s top cultural award “Chevalier de l’Ordre des Arts et Lettres”?
(a) B V Doshi (b) Aishwarya Tipnis (c) Ebrahim Alkazi (d) Sheila Sri Prakash
95. ‘Krishi Krishak Bandhu’ scheme is related to which of the following state? (a) Assam (b) West Bengal
(c) Bihar (d) Chhattisgarh
96. Which of the following launched a new platform named “Samwad with Students” (SwS)?
(a) DRDO (b) IIST
(c) ISRO (d) BARC
97. Which Indian airline has become the first domestic airline to have A321neo plane? (a) IndiGo (b) Jet Airways
(c) Airline (d) Air India
98. Who became the first Indian wicket-keeper to have 20 catches in Test series? (a) Kedar Jadhav (b) Ambati Rayudu
99. Which state Government is going to create an Adhyatmik Vibhag (spiritual department)? (a) Rajasthan (b) Telangana
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
100. Recently who has been appointed as the first Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court? (a) Chagari Praveen Kumar
(b) Justice Thottathil Bhaskaran Nair Radhakrishnan (c) Ajay Kumar Tripathi
(d) Rajender Menon
ANSWER KEYS (GENERAL AWARENESS)
