Final Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Project managers have the most authority in a _________.
a. functional organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure b. projectized organizational structure d. circular organizational structure
____ 2. Critical chain method protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which are addi-tional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks.
a. critical paths c. dummy activities b. feeding buffers d. fast tracking
____ 3. ____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule com-pression for the least incremental cost.
a. Crashing c. Compacting
b. Deflating d. Minimizing
____ 4. Slack or ____ is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or the project finish date.
a. leeway c. redundancy
b. float d. space
____ 5. To define the ____ of the project accurately, it is very important to ensure consistency between the project charter, scope statement, WBS, Gantt chart, and related documents.
a. scope c. vision
b. charter d. parameters
____ 6. ____ involves describing requirements for the products or services desired from the procurement and identify-ing potential sources or sellers.
a. Planning contracting c. Requesting seller responses
b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions
____ 7. ____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality stan-dards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
a. Quality assurance c. Quality checking b. Quality control d. Quality planning
____ 8. A production process has been defined as part of an industrial equipment manufacturing project. The process is intended to produce steel bolts with a length of 20 cm. The acceptable control limits are 19.955 cm and 20.045 cm.
20.033 cm, 19.982 cm, 19.995 cm, 20.006 cm, 19.970 cm, 19.968 cm, 19.963 cm, 19.958 cm, 19.962 cm, 19.979 cm, 19.959 cm.
What should be done?
a. The measuring equipment should be recal-ibrated.
c. The process should be adjusted.
b. The control limits should be adjusted. d. The process is under control.It should not be adjusted.
____ 9. From the supplier’s perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract and the most risk with the ____ contract.
a. CPFF, FPI c. CPPC, FFP
b. FFP, CPPC d. CPFF, FFP
____ 10. ____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement
b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance ____ 11. The second most favored approach to conflict resolution is ____.
a. compromise c. withdrawal
b. confrontation d. forcing
____ 12. The main monitoring and controlling tasks performed as part of project ____ management include monitoring and controlling project work and performing integrated change control.
a. integration c. time
b. scope d. cost
____ 13. ____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document. a. Developing the project charter
b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan
d. Directing and managing project execution
____ 14. ____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how.
a. Planning contracting c. Requesting seller responses
b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions
____ 15. ____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. Risk enhancement c. Risk sharing
b. Risk acceptance d. Risk exploitation
____ 16. ____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project.
a. Embedded c. Mandatory
____ 17. What are the 4 stages of team development? a. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing. b. Assignment, Kickoff, Training, Communicating. c. Enthusiasm, Hope, Panic, Solution.
d. Direction, Motivation, Cooperation, Collaboration.
____ 18. ____ to requirements means that the project’s processes and products meet written specifications. a. Voluntary adherence c. Conformance
b. Management d. Fidelity
____ 19. ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates
b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates
____ 20. The PMBOK Guide 2004 includes the ____ and the preliminary project scope statement during project initia-tion.
a. project statement c. project charter b. project declaration d. project contract ____ 21. Which of the following is not normally an element of the Project Charter?
a. Work package descriptions. c. The formal authorization to apply organi-zational resources to project activities. b. The business need that the project was
un-dertaken to address.
d. The product description or a reference to this document
____ 22. Which process is applied to break down the project into smaller, more manageable elements? a. Scope Planning. c. Scope Definition.
b. Scope Verification. d. Activity Duration Estimating. ____ 23. Two key outputs of performance reporting are performance reports and ____.
a. forecasts c. retrospectives
b. cost-benefit analyses d. performance reviews
____ 24. Activity ____ provide schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, log-ical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity.
a. features c. properties
b. characteristics d. attributes
____ 25. If cumulative benefits minus costs have reached ____, payback has occurred.
a. ($140,000) c. ($1,000)
____ 26. ____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project scope. Key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables of the project during this process.
a. Scope planning c. Scope control b. Scope definition d. Scope verification
____ 27. A common ____ is performance reporting, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track.
a. executing process c. monitoring and controlling process b. closing process d. planning process
____ 28. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Standards and regulations are mandatory. c. According to ISO, standards are not mandatory, but regulations are. b. Standards often begin as guidelines that
are not mandatory.With later widespread adoption, they can become de facto regu-lations.
d. Standards and regulations are socio-eco-nomic influences to a project.
____ 29. If the benefit for a given year is $75,000 and the associated discount factor is .79, the discounted benefit is ____.
a. $59,250 c. $94,937
b. $75,000 d. $150,000
____ 30. Planning includes tasks related to each of the ____ project management knowledge areas.
a. 4 c. 9
b. 5 d. 16
____ 31. A(n) ____ event is a specific, uncertain event that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project.
a. chance c. unplanned
b. risk d. hidden
____ 32. ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
a. Contingency reserves c. Known unknowns b. Management reserves d. Indirect reserves
____ 33. ____ is a planning process falling under the Project Integration Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development c. Create WBS
b. Develop project management plan d. Quality planning
____ 34. Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was un-dertaken.
a. integration c. portfolio
____ 35. A ____ is a product or service produced or provided as part of a project.
a. process c. deliverable
b. result d. requirement
____ 36. Project ____ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas.
a. human resource c. integration
b. procurement d. quality
____ 37. A project management team has subcontracted work to a service company. The process of ensuring that this service company's performance meets contractual requirements is called
a. Staff Acquisition. c. Contract Closeout. b. Contract Administration. d. Contract Negotiation
____ 38. A project manager performs Earned Value Analysis and finds the following values: EV: 100,000; PV: 125,000; AC: 100,000
a. The project is behind schedule but on bud-get.
c. The project is on schedule and on budget. b. The project is on schedule but costs
ex-ceed budget.
d. Then project is behind schedule and costs exceed budget.
____ 39. The project time management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of sched-ule control.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling
____ 40. A Request for ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers.
a. Proposal c. Quote
b. Price d. Cost
____ 41. A PMO, or Project ____ Office, is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project manage-ment function throughout an organization.
a. Management c. Municipal
b. Money d. Marketing
____ 42. During a project the scope of product purchased on a cost reimbursable contract has increased. In the contract the contractor‘s indirect costs are calculated as 20 % of the direct costs. What is most likely to be true? a. The contractor‘s indirect costs will increase and the customer‘s payment for them will
in-crease, too.
b. The contractor‘s indirect costs will not increase but the customer‘s payment for them will. c. The contractor‘s indirect costs will increase but the customer‘s payment for them not. d. Neither the indirect costs nor the customer‘s payment for indirect costs will increase.
____ 43. Project costs are over budget when a. CPI > 1.
b. CPI < 0. c. SPI = 1. d. CPI < 1.
____ 44. On a network diagram, all arrowheads should face toward the ____.
a. top c. right
b. left d. bottom
____ 45. The cost of providing a work space for project workers, office furniture, electricity, and a cafeteria are ____ costs.
a. direct c. indirect
b. explicit d. incidental
____ 46. People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to im-prove their chances for achieving something worthwhile.
a. affiliation c. power
b. money d. achievement
____ 47. The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, and requested changes.
a. activity definition c. activity resource estimating b. activity sequencing d. activity duration estimating
____ 48. Based on the implementation of quality-control measurements, ____ adjustments often result in updates to the quality baseline, organizational process assets, and the project management plan.
a. contract c. process
b. quality d. project
____ 49. The highest level of needs in Maslow’s structure is referred to as a ____ need.
a. deficiency c. safety
b. growth d. physiological
____ 50. ____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence.
a. Crushing c. Fast tracking
b. Crashing d. Expediting
____ 51. Project management ____ facilitate communication among stakeholders and provide a baseline for progress measurement and project control.
a. charters c. contracts
____ 52. Key outputs in project human resource management include ____ updates and team performance assessment
a. contract c. staffing
b. scope d. time
____ 53. ____ is the earned value minus the planned value.
a. SV c. CPI
b. CV d. SPI
____ 54. What is a quality audit?
a. A team meeting dedicated to measuring and examinations.
c. A quality based inspection of work results. b. A meeting with the customer to identify
quality requirements.
d. A structured review of quality manage-ment activities during quality assurance.
____ 55. ____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and con-straints related to specific activities and an original activity list.
a. Activity definition c. Activity resource estimating b. Activity sequencing d. Activity duration estimating ____ 56. Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____.
a. EV c. PV
b. AC d. RP
____ 57. Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes.
a. compromise c. confrontation
b. smoothing d. forcing
____ 58. With the ____, project managers use a give-and- take approach to resolving conflicts. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode
b. compromise mode d. forcing mode
____ 59. ____ is(are) action(s) taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifica-tions or other stakeholder expectaspecifica-tions.
a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions
b. Rework d. Auditing
____ 60. ____ is a planning process falling under the Project Scope Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development c. Create WBS
b. Develop project management plan d. Quality planning
____ 61. People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid respon-sibility.
a. Theory W c. Theory Y
____ 62. ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. a. Contingency reserves c. Unknown unknowns b. Management reserves d. Direct reserves
____ 63. You are assigned as the project manager in a project with an aggressive schedule. During a recent meeting your team complained about the high pressure applied and the many hours of overwork time.
What is the preferred solution to handle the problem? a. Improve team communication and
avail-ability of high quality data on risks. Use this information to enable you to make well-founded decisions earlier.
c. Apply fast tracking to shorten project du-ration without additional work.
b. Try to obtain additional budget and time. d. The problem might be the customer turbing project rhythm. Keep him on dis-tance from the team.
____ 64. Which of the following statements is true concerning Scope Definition? a. The Scope Statement is a principle output
containing a narrative description of project work and deliverables.
c. The Activity List is a principle output used for resource allocation and is an in-put to network diagramming.
b. The Project Charter is a principle output and authorizes the project.
d. The Work Breakdown Structure is a prin-ciple output and should be broken down to a level which allows sufficient accuracy in planning.
____ 65. The project scope management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of scope verification and scope control.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling ____ 66. ____ is based on an individual’s personal charisma.
a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
____ 67. The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements.
a. cost budgeting c. cost control b. cost consolidation d. cost estimating
____ 68. A(n) ____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project’s execu-tion and control.
a. project management plan c. scope statement b. statement of work d. contact
a. affiliation c. power
b. money d. achievement
____ 70. Three broad categories of contracts are fixed price, or lump sum; ____; and time and material. a. cost intensive c. cost reducing
b. cost averse d. cost reimbursable
____ 71. By adding all of the ____ for all project activities, you can determine how the project as a whole is perform-ing and forecast both when it will be completed and how much it will cost at completion.
a. earned values c. planned values` b. actual costs d. cost variances
____ 72. ____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule com-pression for the least incremental cost.
a. Crushing c. Fast tracking
b. Crashing d. Expediting
____ 73. ____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost
b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost
____ 74. Risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis, technical performance measurements, reserve analysis, and status meetings or periodic risk reviews are all tools and techniques for performing ____ moni-toring and control.
a. scope c. cost
b. risk d. quality
____ 75. The bottom four needs in Maslow’s hierarchy are referred to as deficiency needs, and the highest level, ____, is considered a growth need.
a. physiological c. self-actualization
b. safety d. esteem
____ 76. Which of the following actions will most likely improve team productivity? a. Ensure that social events are mandatory and include a business-related goal. b. Expand the size of work teams to over seven members.
c. Reduce the amount of attention paid to virtual team members. d. Acknowledge individual and group accomplishments.
____ 77. A(n) ____ is a meeting held at the beginning of a project or project phase where all major project stakeholders discuss project objectives, plans, and so on.
a. kickstart meeting c. kickoff meeting b. startup meeting d. preliminary meeting
____ 78. Suppose that after one week of work, the earned value is $4000 and the actual cost is $4500. What is the value of the cost performance index (CPI)?
a. 60% c. 80%
b. 70% d. 88.89%
____ 79. The goal of ____ control is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine whether the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur.
a. time c. cost
b. schedule d. scope
____ 80. The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project.
a. activity definition c. schedule development b. activity sequencing d. activity duration estimating
____ 81. ____ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the project.
a. Managers c. Directors
b. Stakeholders d. Citizens
____ 82. ____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts
b. Status reports d. Updates
____ 83. Suppose that a project has an original time estimate of 12 months and a schedule performance index (SPI) of . 92. What is the new time estimate for project completion?
a. 11.04 months c. 13.04 months
b. 12 months d. 14 months
____ 84. ____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a. Qualitative risk analysis c. Risk response planning b. Risk management planning d. Quantitative risk analysis
____ 85. ____ is crucial in projects because once a project team implements a new system, it takes a considerable amount of effort to change the system.
a. Initiating c. Executing
b. Planning d. Closing
____ 86. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predeter-mined fee and an incentive bonus.
a. CPFF c. CPPC
b. CPIF d. CPPF
a. Cost baseline c. Constructive cost modeling b. Earned value management d. Parametric modeling ____ 88. What are dummy activities?
a. Activities in PDM which are not necessary and can be dropped if time is running out.
c. Arrows in ADM which represent depen-dencies between nodes without real activi-ties.
b. Activities, which can be passed to the team members with the lowest IQ.
d. Activities in PDM which are not per-formed by team members.
____ 89. ____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
a. Quality assurance c. Quality checking b. Quality control d. Quality planning
____ 90. The main human resource management task performed as part of monitoring and controlling a project is man-aging the project ____, which, of course, is no small task.
a. sponsors c. team
b. clients d. supplies
____ 91. In a(n) ____ relationship, the “from” activity must finish before the “to” activity can start. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish
b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish ____ 92. Which of the following are not cost of quality?
a. Prevention costs. c. Failure costs. b. Transportation costs. d. Appraisal costs.
____ 93. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of complet-ing the project.
a. SV c. CPI
b. CV d. SPI
____ 94. A validated defect repair is an output from the ____ monitoring and controlling process. a. scope verification c. integrated change control
b. perform quality control d. performance reporting ____ 95. The ____ tasks vary the most from project to project.
a. closing c. planning
b. monitoring and controlling d. executing ____ 96. Project managers must use discipline to control ____.
b. project schedules d. project dependencies ____ 97. ____ is a monitoring and controlling process.
a. Develop project team c. Risk response planning b. Request seller responses d. Integrated change control ____ 98. The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode.
a. confrontation c. smoothing
b. compromise d. forcing
____ 99. Scope statements should include, at a minimum, a description of the project, including its overall objectives and justification; detailed descriptions of all project ____; characteristics and requirements of products and services produced as part of the project; and project success criteria.
a. stakeholders c. meetings
b. volunteers d. deliverables
____ 100. According to the project plan, a contractor is scheduled to deliver some software components at the end of the day. A regular payment is due to be made to this contractor tomorrow.
The project team received a note this morning informing them that the software delivery will be delayed by 2 weeks.
How should the project management team react?(BEST ANSWER) a. The project management team should
de-lay payment for 2 weeks.
c. The project management team should con-duct a meeting with the contractor to re-solve the delivery issues before making the payment.
b. The project management team must
im-mediately find a different contractor. d. The project management team should make the payment and reschedule the project plan.
____ 101. You are the project manager and have contracted with a service provider to develop a complicated software solution. This software is necessary to control the machinery equipment which your project team will de-velop. It is a lump-sum contract with additional incentives for meeting predefined schedule targets. The pay-ment schedule and incentives are as follows:
* 10% with order
* 20% after submission of prototype (+ 5% if delivered one week early) * 50% after product delivery (+ 5 % if delivered one week early)
* 20% after final product acceptance (+ 5 % if delivered one week early)
Yesterday the company submitted the prototype to your project team. This was 2 weeks after the scheduled delivery date and 3 weeks after the date necessary to qualify for the incentive payment.
This morning, the manager of the contractor approached you to ask for changes to the payment schedule. They found that their initial work and costs were much higher than originally expected and they now wish to increase the second payment to 30% and reduce the final payment to 10%.
During the discussion you got the impression that the company is in serious financial trouble. Which of the following might be the most appropriate initial step?
a. Offer to pay 25% now and to reduce the final payment down to 15%.
c. Point out that the contractor is not in a po-sition to demand a change to the contract. b. Revisit the planning processes of project
risk management to understand the up-coming risks in conjunction with the seller before any further decisions are made.
d. Demand an urgent meeting with the seller.
____ 102. Which of the following is true in regard to the Code of Accounts? a. It allows one to easily identify the
break-down level of the item in the resource structure.
c. It describes the coding structure used by the performing organization to report fi-nancial information in its general ledger. b. It is the collection of unique identifiers
generally assigned to WBS items.
d. It defines ethical behavior in the project and the responsibilities to the customer and the profession.
____ 103. In the example of the project of building a house, the ____ would normally be the general contractor responsi-ble for building the house.
a. project sponsors c. project manager b. project team d. support staff
____ 104. When using the ____, the project manager de-emphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement.
a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode
____ 105. The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, de-termine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur.
a. activity duration estimating c. schedule control
b. schedule development d. activity resource estimating ____ 106. In the ____, you use a similar project’s WBS as a starting point.
a. top-down approach c. mind-mapping approach b. bottom-up approach d. quality approach
____ 107. A(n) ____ log is a tool used to document and monitor the resolution of project issues.
a. event c. problem
b. issue d. running
____ 108. Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____. a. organizational chart c. work breakdown structure (WBS) b. communications management plan d. expectations management matrix
____ 109. ____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a. Performance reporting c. Managing stakeholders
b. Information distribution d. Communications planning
____ 110. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
a. CPFF c. CPPC
b. CPIF d. CPPF
____ 111. A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. budget baseline c. cost baseline
b. ledger d. cost line
____ 112. During a company event, you had the opportunity to talk to a colleague project manager. He told you that in his current project actual costs are 15% under cumulated costs scheduled for today.
What do you think?
a. The information available is not sufficient to assess project performance.
c. The project will probably be completed with total costs remaining under budget. b. Original cost planning must have been
poor to allow this variance.
d. A significant cost increase during the fur-ther course of the project will probably bring the costs back to baseline level. ____ 113. Which is true regarding projects?
a. A project is a unique service undertaken to create a temporary product.
c. A project is a temporary endeavor under-taken to create a unique product or ser-vice.
b. A project is a temporary product under-taken to create a unique endeavor or ser-vice
d. A project is a unique endeavor undertaken to create a temporary service.
____ 114. The major output document of Scope definition is the :
a. Hierarchically structured WBS. c. Activity List. b. The Project Charter for the project
man-ager
d. Project Scope Statement ____ 115. Regarding Delphi Technique all of the following statements are true except:
a. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts. c. The experts are encouraged by the facilita-tor to make direct contact with each other during the assessment process to create a higher number of feedback loops.
b. Experts are identified but participate anonymously while a facilitator uses a questionnaire to solicit ideas.
d. The responses are submitted and are then circulated to the experts for further
com-a. bid c. proposal b. activity list d. contract
____ 117. ____ are often more effective than ____, particularly for sensitive information. a. Electronic communications, short face-to-face meetings
b. Short face-to-face meetings, electronic communications c. Electronic communications, telephone conversations d. Telephone conversations, short face-to-face meetings
____ 118. Project ____ are usually most interested in making sure that final products, services, or results are delivered on schedule and within budget.
a. managers c. sponsors
b. auditors d. Handlers
____ 119. Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change? a. a need to engage in bottom-up cost
esti-mating.
c. failure to include a required feature in the design of a telecommunication system b. a variation in government regulations. d. introducing technology that was not
avail-able when scope was originally defined. ____ 120. Learning curve theory emphasizes that in producing many goods:
a. average unit cost decreases as more units are produced. b. cost decreases as production rates increase.
c. laborers become more productive because of technological advances calculate the net present value
d. materials become cheaper when they are purchased in bulk.
____ 121. Project ____ management includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget.
a. control c. cost
b. delivery d. outlays
____ 122. To transfer most of the cost risk to the contractor, the client may use a ___________ contract. a. cost plus award fee c. cost plus incentive fee
b. fixed price d. cost plus fixed fee ____ 123. Theory X holds that:
a. quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles.
c. absenteeism is tied to poor working condi-tions.
lines. need strong guidance. ____ 124. Inputs to cost budgeting include all of the following except:
a. cost baseline c. project schedule
b. cost estimate d. work breakdown structure ____ 125. All of the following are contract types except:
a. Fixed Price c. Make-or-Buy.
b. Cost Reimbursable. d. Lump Sum.
____ 126. ____ uses probabilistic time estimates—duration estimates based on using optimistic, most likely, and pes-simistic estimates of activity durations—instead of one specific or discrete duration estimate.
a. Critical Path Analysis c. Critical Chain Scheduling
b. Gantt Charting d. PERT
____ 127. ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project.
a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control b. Cost consolidation d. Cost estimating
____ 128. All of the following are examples of tools often used in cost estimating except: a. activity duration estimates. c. analogous estimating. b. bottom-up estimating. d. parametric modeling.
____ 129. The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the ____. a. double bind c. double constraint
b. triple constraint d. double obstacle
____ 130. One common way to compute estimated at completion (EAC) is to take the project budgeted-at-completion and:
a. divide it by the schedule performance in-dex.
c. multiply it by the cost performance. b. multiply it by the schedule performance
index.
d. divide it by the cost performance index.
____ 131. The project manager of a large multi-location software project team has 24 members, out of which 5 are as-signed to testing. Due to recent recommendations by an organizational quality audit team, the project manager is convinced to add a quality professional to lead the test team at additional cost, to the project.
The project manager is aware of the importance of communication, for the success of the project and takes this step of introducing additional communication channels, making it more complex, in order to assure qual-ity levels of the project.
How many additional communication channels are introduced as a result of this organizational change in the project?
a. 25 c. 300
b. 24 d. 325
____ 132. A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements.
a. defect c. error
b. failure d. recall
____ 133. Once the project is complete, the complete set of project records should be put in which of the following? a. Project Archives c. Storage room
b. Database d. Project Report
____ 134. If the cost variance is positive and the schedule variance is also positive, this indicates the: a. Project is over budget and ahead of
sched-ule
c. Project is under budget and behind sched-ule
b. Project is under budget and ahead of schedule
d. Project is over budget and behind schedule ____ 135. Which one of the following is the last step of project closing?
a. Client has accepted the product c. Client appreciates your product b. Archives are complete d. Lessons learnt are documented ____ 136. ____ include defining and authorizing a project or project phase.
a. Initiating processes c. Executing processes
b. Planning processes d. Monitoring and controlling processes
____ 137. Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
a. risk c. communications
b. procurement d. resource
____ 138. ____ should be forgotten.
a. Sunk costs c. Direct costs
b. Indirect costs d. Intangible costs
____ 139. ____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a. Human resource planning c. Acquiring the project team
b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
____ 140. While reviewing the progress, the project manager assesses that an activity has been missed out from the im-plementation plan. A milestone, scheduled to be achieved within another week, would be missed with the cur-rent implementation plan.
a. Report the error and the planned recovery actions
c. Omit the status update on the milestone b. Assess alternatives to meet the milestone d. Report the error and the expected delay
____ 141. ____ risk events include completing work sooner than planned or at an unexpectedly reduced cost, collaborat-ing with suppliers to produce better products, and obtaincollaborat-ing good publicity from the project.
a. Collaborative c. Anticipated
b. Positive d. Probable
____ 142. Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leader-ship are risk conditions associated with which project management knowledge area?
a. Integration c. Time
b. Quality d. Human Resources
____ 143. ____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a. Quantitative risk analysis c. Risk monitoring and control
b. Risk response planning d. Qualitative risk analysis ____ 144. Parento diagrams work on the ___ rule.
a. 20/80 c. 50/50
b. 60/40 d. 80/20
____ 145.
Which statement describes best the meaning of the term Cost baseline? a. A cost baseline is always created by
trans-lating time-phased cost information into cost data on activity or work-package level.
c. A cost baseline is usually displayed in the form of an inverse S-curve drawn from the beginning of the project until data date. b. Data to draw a cost baseline can be easily
generated and updated as necessary from information related to actual project cost.
d. A cost baseline is an approved time-phased budget that will be used to mea-sure and monitor cost performance on the project.
____ 146. By grouping projects into ____, organizations can better tie their projects to meeting strategic goals.
a. portfolios c. suites
b. applications d. collections
____ 147. Which is for most project situations an appropriate order for the development of scope related documents? a. 1. Work breakdown structure,
2. Scope statement, 3. Project charter,
4. CSOW (Contractual statement of work), 5. Contractual Work breakdown structure, 6. WBS dictionary.
b. 1. Feasibility study, 2. Business case,
3. Contract,
4. CWBS (Contractual work breakdown structure), 5. Scope of work descriptions,
6. PID (Project initiation document). c. 1. BOM (Bill of materials),
2. CAP (Control account plan), 3. Project charter,
4. Project scope statement, 5. Change management plan, 6. Scope baseline.
d. 1. Project SOW (Statement of work), 2. Project charter,
3. Preliminary project scope statement, 4. Project scope management plan, 5. Project scope statement,
6. WBS (Work breakdown structure) and WBS dictionary. ____ 148. What is the only output of the scope planning process?
a. Scope Statement c. Activity List
b. WBS d. None of the Above
____ 149. How many communication channels do 12 people require?
a. 12 c. 36
b. 24 d. 66
____ 150. ____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions.
a. Brainstorming c. The Delphi Technique b. SWOT analysis d. Interviewing
____ 151. A change request in a project has been rejected some weeks ago. Yesterday, the project manager found out that it nevertheless has been implemented by the team members, who knew of the change request, but not of the rejection.
In order to avoid such a situation, Rejected change requests are an output to which process? a. Schedule control
b. Integrated Change Control c. Scope Control
d. Activity Control
____ 152. The main monitoring and controlling task performed as part of project cost management is ____ control.
a. time c. scope
b. schedule d. cost
____ 153. What process group is the Develop the Project Team process belong to? a. Human Resource
b. Planning c. Executing d. Project
____ 154. A(n) ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed).
a. skewed distribution c. polynomial distribution b. normal distribution d. symmetrical distribution
____ 155. When using the ____ mode, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.
a. conciliatory c. confrontation b. congratulatory d. cooperative ____ 156. The final output of the communication plaaning process is a ____.
a. bid c. charter
b. communications management plan d. WBS
____ 157. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predeter-mined percentage based on total costs.
a. CPFF c. CPPC
b. CPIF d. CPPF
____ 158. In what organizational type is communications complex?
a. Functional c. Matrix
b. Projectized d. Company
____ 159. Project teams sometimes use ____—unplanned responses to risk events—when they do not have contingency plans in place.
a. work charts c. work processes
b. work flows d. workarounds
____ 160. ____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs.
a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
____ 161. ____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date.
a. Total slack c. Total time
b. Free float d. Free slack
____ 162. ____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma
b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting
____ 163. The ____ step in the planning process is to tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization’s overall strategic plan.
a. first c. third
b. second d. fourth
____ 164. Administrative activities are often involved in ____, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, doc-umenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project.
a. monitoring and controlling processes c. initiating processes b. executing processes d. closing processes
____ 165. The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables, requested changes, and recommended corrective actions. a. scope planning c. scope definition
b. scope control d. scope verification ____ 166. Quality metrics are an output of ____.
a. cost estimating c. quantitative risk analysis b. scope definition d. quality planning
____ 167. The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a project is called the ____ path.
a. essential c. critical
b. important d. vital
____ 168. Often, buyers develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source.
a. one to two c. eight to ten
b. three to five d. twelve to fifteen
____ 169. The project team develops a preliminary scope statement during project ____.
a. review c. orientation
b. initiation d. development
____ 170. Blake and Mouton (1964) delineated ____ basic modes for handling conflicts.
a. four c. six
b. five d. seven
____ 171. The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date.
a. early finish date c. late start date b. late finish date d. early start date
a. Maslow c. McClelland
b. McGregor d. Herzberg
____ 173. A program ____ provides leadership and direction for the project managers heading the projects within the program.
a. director c. facilitator
b. organizer d. manager
____ 174. A(n) ____ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project’s objectives and management.
a. balanced scorecard c. net present value analysis b. business case d. project charter
____ 175. After a project is approved, senior managers should meet to determine the ____, time, and cost constraints for the project.
a. range c. vision
b. scope d. boundary
____ 176. ____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do.
a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
____ 177. ____ involves analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to cre-ate the project schedule.
a. Activity duration estimating c. Schedule control
b. Schedule development d. Activity resource estimating
____ 178. The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period.
a. AC c. RP
b. EV d. PV
____ 179. A ____ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer.
a. firm -fixed price c. soft-fixed-price b. fixed-price incentive d. contingent-fixed
____ 180. If you were trying to assess commitment of project stakeholders, a(n) ____ would be the most appropriate medium to use.
a. phone call c. e-mail
b. voice mail d. meeting
a. Project archives c. Project databases b. Project backups d. Project notes
____ 182. Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, contracts, a contract management plan, resource avail-ability information, updates to the procurement management plan, and requested changes.
a. Closing the contract c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Administering the contract
____ 183. _______ organize and summarize the information gathered, and present the results of any analysis as com-pared to the performance measurement baseline
a. WBS c. Performance Reports
b. Activity List d. Scope Management Plan ____ 184. A parametric cost estimate:
a. Is a bottom up estimating technique c. Is a top down and statistical estimating technique
b. Is a top down estimating technique d. Is a statistical estimating technique
____ 185. _________ is a comprehensive list including all schedule activities that are planned to be performed on the project
a. WBS c. Quality Checklist
b. Scope Management Plan d. Activity List
____ 186. Which of the following is not a primary input to the Activity Definition Process? a. WBS Dictionary c. Organizational Process Assets b. Project Scope Statement d. Activity List
____ 187. How many process groups are in PMBOK?
a. 9 c. 10
b. 5 d. 44
____ 188. ______ is the process necessary for deciding how to approach, plan, and execute the risk management activi-ties for a project
a. Risk Control c. Risk Response Planning b. Quality Management d. Risk Management Planning ____ 189. _____ allows an acceleration of the successor activity
a. Lag c. PDM
b. ADM d. Lead
____ 190. The Close Project process is a part of which of the following project management knowledge areas? a. Project Scope Management c. Project Communication Management
____ 191. The current project performance report indicates that the Schedule Variance (SV) is 1.09. What does this in-formation indicate?
a. The project is on schedule. c. The project is ahead of schedule. b. The project is slightly behind schedule. d. The project is behind schedule. ____ 192. What is a deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements called?
a. Detailed plan c. Work breakdown structure b. Linear responsibility chart d. Cost account coding system
____ 193. As per PMBOK, all are parts of the executing process group except which of the following? a. Acquire Project Team c. Information Distribution
b. Develop Preliminary Scope Statement d. Develop Project Team ____ 194. Which of the following is not used in the quality control process?
a. Gantt charts c. Pareto charts b. Control charts d. Statistical sampling ____ 195. Which of these is not an example of a project?
a. Buying clothes from the market on a spe-cial sale.
c. Cleaning the office building every day. b. Planning for your friends wedding. d. Building a bridge across the Amazon
river.
____ 196. AOA activity diagrams are only represented using which representation? a. finish-to-start c. start-to-start
b. finish-to-finish d. start-to-finish
____ 197. You are the project manager of ABC project. Mid-way through the project a key component was stolen. This was not planned for. The team met after the event and managed to make the product work without the stolen component. This is an example of
-a. Risk mitigation c. Accepting the consequences passively. b. Workaround d. Transfer of risk
____ 198. You are planning to use PERT for planning of your project. A task has pessimistic estimate of 24 days, most likely estimate of 15 days and optimistic estimate of 12 days. What is the mean using the PERT technique?
a. 18 days c. 20 days
b. 5 days d. 16 days
____ 199. Which of these is not a process in the Project Procurement Management knowledge area? a. Select Sellers c. Contract administration
a. If a risk is identified in a risk response plan, then that means that risk has already happened.
c. Risk identification happens in all the phases of the project.
b. Once a risk has happened, you refer to the risk management plan to determine what action needs to be taken.
d. A risk that was not planned but has hap-pened is called a trigger.
Final Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 53 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 244 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 122 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 120 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 106 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 494 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 308 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 407 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 501 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 476 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 424 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 227 13. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 127 14. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 494 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 476 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 112 17. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 132 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 141 19. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 274 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 88 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 50|51 22. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 2 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 248 24. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 109 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 42 26. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 181 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 81 28. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 202 29. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 41 30. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 93 31. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 252 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 271 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 96 34. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 141 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 61 36. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 9 37. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 154 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 385 39. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 84 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 169 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 3242. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 132 43. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 158 44. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 225 45. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 167 46. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 366 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 218 48. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 240 49. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 364 50. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 242 51. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 95 52. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 4 53. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 287 54. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 147 55. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 221 56. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 287 57. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 424 58. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 423 59. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 313 60. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 96 61. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 367 62. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 271 63. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 12 64. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 66 65. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 84 66. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 369 67. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 282 68. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 150 69. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 366 70. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 166 71. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 230 72. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 242 73. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 337 74. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 252 75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 195 76. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 248 77. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 427 78. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 229 79. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 236 80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 230 81. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 11 82. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 420 83. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 230 84. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 452 85. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 82|83 86. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 500 87. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 285
88. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 429 89. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 308 90. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 246 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 225 92. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 51 93. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 287 94. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 111 95. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 193 96. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 249 97. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 111 98. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 423 99. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 100 100. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 268 101. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 21 102. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 28 103. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 11 104. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 424 105. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 247 106. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 196 107. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 251 108. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 410 109. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 407 110. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 500 111. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 283 112. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 36 113. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 367 114. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 140 115. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 131 116. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 2 117. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 412 118. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 265 119. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 28 120. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 138 121. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 125 122. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 104 123. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 414 124. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 466 125. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 332 126. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 246 127. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 266 128. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 62 129. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 8 130. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 152 131. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 449 132. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 327 133. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 191
134. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 202 135. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 451 136. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 80 137. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 13 138. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 271 139. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 361 140. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 364 141. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 156 142. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 459 143. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 452 144. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 11 145. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 412 146. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 15 147. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 492 148. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 50 149. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 211 150. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 460 151. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 159 152. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 239 153. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 374 154. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 325 155. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 187 156. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 215 157. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 500 158. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 55 159. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 252 160. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 363 161. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 239 162. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 320 163. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 131 164. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 81 165. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 181 166. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 97 167. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 31 168. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 508 169. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 100 170. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 187 171. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 239 172. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 365 173. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 14 174. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 145 175. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 68 176. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 368 177. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 219 178. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 285 179. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 167
180. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 208 181. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 434 182. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 494 183. ANS: C PTS: 1 184. ANS: C PTS: 1 185. ANS: D PTS: 1 186. ANS: D PTS: 1 187. ANS: B PTS: 1 188. ANS: D PTS: 1 189. ANS: D PTS: 1 190. ANS: B PTS: 1 191. ANS: C PTS: 1 192. ANS: C PTS: 1 193. ANS: B PTS: 1 194. ANS: A PTS: 1 195. ANS: C PTS: 1 196. ANS: A PTS: 1 197. ANS: B PTS: 1 198. ANS: D PTS: 1 199. ANS: B PTS: 1 200. ANS: C PTS: 1
