1. Reflection from ionosphere layers is used in the following radio frequencies: HF
2. The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is: 2.46 m
3. For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Band because: It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same transmission power 4.
A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
190°
5. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed? A DME station sited on the flight route
6. The frequency of the amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) light is: 400 Hz, blue
7. An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:
NDB: aircraft position; VOR: beacon position
8. An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.
The aircraft is on VOR radial: 255°
9. Given:
Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090°
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a "TO" indication?
270°
10. A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
212
11. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation: At the VOR
12. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because: They are not on the receiver frequency
13. The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates in the following frequency range: 962 to 1213 MHz
14. A DME is located at MSL.
An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately: 6 NM
15. During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.
The reason for this is that the:
16. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline 17. ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
Multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
18. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is: Flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
19. The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies:
Transmitter Receiver 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
20. The major source of cross-track error in a Doppler navigation system is: Compass error
21.
What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
180 NM
22. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:
134 NM
23. A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
Four
24. 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
Skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
25. Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by: Signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
26. Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is: Inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
27. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is: Phase comparison
28. Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions? VHF
29. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by: Uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
30. If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by: Interference from other transmitters
31. An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide) 1.5
32. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
284° with the TO flag showing
33. An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR.
The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is:
270°
34. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
064° with the TO flag showing
35. What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
184 NM
36. A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is: 1000 MHz
37. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the: UHF band and is a secondary radar system
38. For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:
100
39. On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates: The airborne receiver is conducting a range search
40. The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
Pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft
41. The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because: Aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
42. In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
43. The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 microseconds.
The slant range from the ground transponder was: 165 NM
44. A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
200 feet above the runway threshold
45. The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
Aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
46. An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
47. The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of:
Alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing
48. The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of: 75 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second
49. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? 600 FT/MIN
50. The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:
1450 FT
51. Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to: Detect the larger water droplets
52. The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to: Detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
53. In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a: Fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
54. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
Cumulus
55. Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter? The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
56. In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code: 7600
57. In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
7500
58. An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown
59. The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of: 3.5 NM
60. An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
Right drift 61. Given: Compass heading 270° Deviation 2°W Variation 30°E Relative bearing 316° 044°
62. The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is: 1000 metres
63. The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a VHF direction finder is a: VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range
64. The Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths: Decimetric
65. The VHF Omni range (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: Metric
66. The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths: LOC: metric / GP: decimetric
67. The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths: Decimetric
68. The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: Metric
69. The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: Metric
70. The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths: Centimetric
71. The High Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: Decimetric
72. The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: Centimetric
73. The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths: Hectometric or kilometric
74. In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate? VHF
75. Primary radar operates on the principle of: Pulse technique
76. What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz? 800 m
77. The transmission of the glide slope beacon is characterised by a: UHF frequency with a minimum range of 10 NM
78. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy? Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
79. Assuming a CDI with five dots on each side of the display operating in ILS (localiser) mode, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
0.5°
80. Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of: 400 Hz
81. The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic: East
82. In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME: Does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
83. An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270° (M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed.
In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station? NW
84. An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
10° or more
85. ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum error of:
+/-5°
86. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix? 4
87. In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels
88. What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon? Blue - amber - white
89. In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by: Timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
90. In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
UHF
91. The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
Air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability 92. Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an ILS
93. A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because: The larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small
94. What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operations?
3
95. The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
+ Or - 40° of the runway centre-line
96. Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes? Roll and pitch
97. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
Green to yellow to red
98. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controllers presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level that is accurate to within: + Or - 50 FT
99. Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
100. Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes? DME/DME
101. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
190 NM
102. Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from RNAV equipment?
ETO
103. The Doppler Navigation System is based on: Radar principles using frequency shift
104. Skip distance is the:
Range from the transmitter to the first sky wave
105. A radio signal loses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called: Attenuation
106. The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i)... frequencies and carry different (ii)...
(i) The same (ii) modulation frequencies
107. Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operations without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is: 4
108. Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated? On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centreline 109. In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern? MAPPING
110. There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
Greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
111. The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by pulsed radar is pulse: Length
112. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers? 200 - 1750 kHz
113. In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:
Signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
114. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate: Decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
115. MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of: + Or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
116. In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
Only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipment
117. Complete the following statement. Airport Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) ... band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) ... revolutions per minute; it is (iii) ... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.
(i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
118. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ...° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) ... NM from the threshold.
(i) 8 (ii) 10
119. The pencil shaped beam of airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
Beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam 120. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include: Static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
121. What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same Morse code identifier?
600 m
122. Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in primary search radar? Short pulse length and narrow beam
123. Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
124. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:
204 NM
125. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
Fly right and fly down
126. An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
150 FT/MIN
127. The minimum range of primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i)... ; The maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)...
128. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave transmissions as?
It eliminates the minimum target reception range
129. Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operations, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
6
130. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a: Great circle track
131. An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
110 NM
132. An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
135 NM
133. What is the minimum level (ISA conditions) that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
FL60
134. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
Left with 'TO' showing
135. A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
Memory mode
136. Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings? Local thunderstorm activity
137. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
275
138. Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation? It can provide DME distance
139. The frequency range of a VOR receiver is: 108 to 117.95 MHz
140. If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be: 030°
141. Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency? 109.15 MHz
142. The maximum range of primary radar depends on: Pulse recurrence frequency
143. A frequency of airborne weather radar is: 9375 MHz
144. The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains: Two modes, each of 4096 codes
145. In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
Measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft's receiver
146. Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?
WGS 84
147. Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
148. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt? 450 FT/MIN
149. The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
150. Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
151. Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
152. The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on: 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
153. Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct? It varies, depending on the time and observer's location
154. How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
24
155. Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
NAVSTAR/GPS
156. The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
Determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the speed of light 157. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a receiver: Is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with another already being monitored
158. The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
159. What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft? Multichannel
160. What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
4
161. The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted: On the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity
162. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) is the artificial degradation of the navigation accuracy by:
Dithering the satellite clock
163. How does 'Selective Availability' (SA), if at all, affect the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals
164. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error: Is corrected by using signals from four satellites
165. The navigation accuracy for civil users of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system was formerly influenced by:
The 'Selective Availability' (SA) function
166. The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is: Minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals transmitted by the satellites
167. Which one of the following is an advantage of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?
The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
168. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
Within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids or a combination of these
169. Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of: 1.0 NM standard deviation or better
170. Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time
171. The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
The computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
172. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
Warnings; flight envelope and system limits
173. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
174. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in green on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
Engaged modes
175. Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
The sky
176. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are coloured:
White
177. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured: White
178. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are coloured:
Green
179. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is coloured:
Magenta
180. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitations are coloured in the order:
Green, amber/yellow, red, magenta
181. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured: White or magenta
182. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? Figure 1
183. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode? Figure 4
184. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
185. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
Figure 2
186. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
187. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode? Figure 4
188. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? Figure 4
189. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
Figure 3
190. What drift is being experienced? 8° Left
191. What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB? 097° (T)
192. What wind velocity is indicated? 105° (M)/20KT
193. What is the value of the selected course? 299° (M)
194. What is the instantaneous aircraft track? 272° (M)
195. The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a: VOR/DME
196. The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate: An off-route airport
197. What is the heading bug selected to? 260° (M)
198. The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the: Right of the localizer and below the glidepath
199. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown? VHF radio
200. Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down? It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
201. In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position?
When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz
202. In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate? SHF
203. In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is provided by: Navigation radios, Flight Management Computer, Inertial Reference Systems
204. In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to automatic flight is provided by: Flight Control Computers, Flight Management Computers, Autothrottle
205. For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
16
206. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the: Pulse recurrence rate
207. In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found: At night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves
208. The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the: Control, space and user segments
209. One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: Monitor the status of the satellites
210. The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: Select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver
211. One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: Transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocity
212. The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
An ellipsoid
213. In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
Height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
214. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
Orbital plane and the equatorial plane
215. How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth? Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)
216. At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth? 20200 km
217. The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are: Inclined 55° to the equatorial plane
218. In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
UHF
219. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to reach the receiver
220. Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
C/A
221. Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the: Fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
222. How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code 223. Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
Almanac data; satellite status information
224. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
225. Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
226. Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
Ionospheric
227. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the correction of one of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and L2)? The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared
228. Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information 229. Given:
VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E;
Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E. What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
167°
230. GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military).
Commercial aviation uses:
231. A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
Increase in area and move to the top of the screen
232. Secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
All modes
233. In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
Scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically independent of distance 234. The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
Pulses
235. The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that: The navigation database is "read only" to the pilot
236. The following flight plan has been inserted into the navigation system : WPT1, WPT2, WPT3, WPT4, WPT5.
Between WPT1 and WPT2, a clearance is given to proceed directly to WPT5. In order to achieve this the pilot must:
Type DIR TO WPT5 on his keyboard
237. The ADF reception loop is always used so that the electromotive force (EMF) Induced is zero
238. Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters
239. Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
240. In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate? SHF
241. The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately: 300 NM
242. In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are: Size of the water drops; wavelength/frequency used
243. In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:
(Assume a beam width of 5°) 2.5° up
244. Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?
0000
245. Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?
246. Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
247. Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station'?
12 NM
248. Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'?
9 NM
249. Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
When operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference station
250. What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode? 2 NM
251. What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
It may prevent the reception of signals
252. Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each other together with a fourth directly overhead
253. In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?
Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft
254. Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position fix
255. How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
256. In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
Procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data available
257. What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems
258. Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational
259. Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR conditions using a
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
260. What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
Barometric altitude
261. Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
Barometric altitude
262. The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?
123 NM
263. The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the ON position to enable the pilot to: Hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A1A transmissions
264. An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
Omnidirectional
265. DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately: 1000 MHz
266. A VOR and DME are co-located.
You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
267. The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.
Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be: Centred
268. In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the: Number of pulses per second
269. When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a single very bright line appears on the screen. This means that the:
Scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
270. The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
Virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main beam 271. What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes? 4096
272. Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar? Snow; clear air turbulence
273. Given:
Aircraft heading 160°(M),
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
Behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing 274. Consider the following statements on the NDB transmitter:
It is very simple, being required to transmit only a carrier wave and identification 275. A loop aerial, as used in the ADF, will
Receive a minimum or null signal from a transmitter when the plane of the loop is at right angles to the direction of the transmitter
276. The basic information given by the ADF is The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB
277. The combination of the polar diagrams of the loop and the sense aerial results in A cardioids polar diagram, having only one null or minimum
278. Of the bearing indicators available for use on ADFs, the most sophisticated one is The Radio Magnetic Indicator
279. Using an ADF indicator of the manually rotateable card type:
The card should be rotated so that the aircraft heading is at the top of the indicator 280. The heading read on a standard RMI is
The compass heading 281. Homing on an NDB:
Will in most situations result in frequent heading changes when approaching the NDB 282. When using ADF, the sky-wave (night) effect:
283. A Doppler shift will occur a) All 3 answers are correct
b) When the distance between a transmitter and a receiver is changing during a transmission c) If a receiver is moving during reception of transmissions from a fixed position transmitter d) If a transmitter is moving during transmission to a fixed position receiver
284. In the normal applications using Doppler shift registered in aircraft equipment
The Doppler shift will be doubled, because it is based on measuring the frequency of a reflected signal from the ground
285. In using an airborne Doppler navigation system, the Doppler shift is proportional to Aircraft speed and transmitter frequency
286. In using an airborne Doppler navigation system, the expected accuracy Is 0.3% in ground speed
287. A Homing you prefer with a difference of angle greater than 70°
288. Which interception do you choose with a difference of angle of 15° and an EET of 4 minutes? 45° Interception 289. Act QDM 140° Act HDG 020° Req QDM 110° First turn? Left HDG 155° 290. Act QDM 330° Act HDG 060° Req QDM 350° Intercept HDG? 305° 291. Act QDM 150° Act HDG 330° Req QDM 120° Kind of interception? 45° Interception 292. Act QDM 210° Act HDG 060° Req QDM 260° First turn? Right HDG 170° 293. Act QDM 095° Act HDG 090° Req QDM 090° EET 5Min. Correction? 15°
294. Act QDM 120° Act HDG 120° Req QDR 060° Int-HDG? 040° 295. Act QDR 285° Act HDG 290° Req QDR 290°
Time passed the station 2Min. Correction HDG?
300°
296. From the following statements, select those which apply: -1: The coupling of MLS with DME/P greatly enhances accuracy
-2: A DME/P channel is not paired with the azimuth and elevation channel of the MLS
-3: A DME/P may be substituted by a navigation DME and is therefore not an integral part of the MLS -4: The DME/P may be used to enhance accuracy of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)
Only 1 is correct
297. Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (RNAV) comes from an external, not on-board system?
VOR/DME radial/distance
298. Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group? Locator
299. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
Navigation database
300. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
Performance database
301. The databases on a FMC: Are read only
302. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
Performance database
303. NDB approach: What accuracy does the ADF provide by day with respect to the published track? +/- 5°
304. Locators transmit in the following frequency bands: LF/MF
305. Primary radar displays the following information: Position
306. Gain control in an airborne weather radar (AWR) is used for: Sensitivity control
307. Rho-rho navigation uses: DME/DME
308. Cross-track distance is displayed on: Navigation display
309. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode? Figure 2
310. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? b) Figure 3
311. What is an example of a self contained RNAV system? INS
312. When operating in an RNAV mode using multiple DME, inaccuracy can be due to:
Inability to confirm the aircraft is within the DOC of the DMEs because of identification problems 313. Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
Scalloping
314. In flight, a pilot can improve the range of his transmission with a VDF operator by: Increasing altitude
315. The range of a locator according to ICAO Annex 10 is 10-25 NM
316. You are plotting a chart and use a DME arc. What does the DME arc represent? Slant range
317. What is the accuracy of an NDB signal at night? Lower
318. In the NAV message, the "ephemeris" refers to the exact: Position and orbit of the observed satellite
319. What are the risks when using an airborne weather radar (AWR) in MAP mode over polar regions? The ice offshore lines may be mistaken for the real coast lines
320. On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit? 75 MHz
321. A primary pulse radar system operates with a pulse repetition frequency of 400 pps. The maximum theoretical range of the system is:
202 NM
322. A primary pulse radar system operates with a pulse repetition frequency of 1200 pps. The maximum theoretical range of the system is:
125 km
323. A primary pulse radar system operates with a pulse repetition frequency of 550 Hz. The maximum theoretical range of the system is:
147 NM
324. A primary pulse radar system operates with a pulse repetition frequency of 360 pps. The maximum theoretical range of the system is:
225 NM
325. On a primary radar system, identify which component(s) is/are rotating: Both
326. The correction for an aircraft GNSS receiver in EGNOS and WAAS systems are broadcasted: Via a geostationary satellite
327. What spacing is used to separate the P1 pulse from a P2 pulse in a mode C SSR interrogation? 2μsec between P1 and P2 pulse
328. How can an airborne SSR transponder differentiate a mode A from a mode C interrogation? By a pulse spacing between the P1 and P3 pulse of 8μsec for a mode A and 21μsec for a mode C interrogation
329. An aircraft heading 315°(M) shows an NDB bearing of 180° on the RMI. Any Quadrantal error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
At a maximum
330. A relative bearing indicator shows 030°. The heading of the aircraft is 090° (M). The intercept angle for a course to the NDB of 180°(M) is:
060°
331. A VOR and an NDB are co-located. You cross the VOR radial 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
60°
332. An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given:
Compass heading: 270°
Deviation at aircraft: 2°W, variation 30°E Variation at station: 28°E
Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft: 254°
333. If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
135°
334. On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
320°
335. You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is: 020°
336. An aircraft is tracking 060°(T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB is 035° at 1300. 12 minutes later, the relative bearing is 070°. What is the aircraft's distance from the NDB at 1312, with a GS of 180 kt?
36 NM
337. To maintain the 314° QDR to an NDB with 7° right drift, the heading in °M and relative bearing will be: 127°/007°
338. Refer to the diagram # 5. Assume that the indicator is set to define the centreline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90 NM from the VOR and inbound to the facility. At the time of observation the aircraft was located on radial 063°
339. Refer to diagram # 4. An aircraft is attempting to track 186° M on an airway (10 NM wide), defined by a VOR 80 NM away. The VOR display indicates the aircraft position. With these indications, the aircraft is on the ... radial and ... the airway.
340. Refer to diagram # 1. The indication was obtained when the aircraft was at a range of 50 NM from the VOR. Assuming that the VOR is correctly set-up, the radial and horizontal distance the aircraft is off track are:
089 radial and 3,3 NM right of track
341. Refer to diagram # 2. The indication was obtained when the aircraft was at a range of 90 NM from the VOR. Assuming that the VOR is correctly set-up, the radial and horizontal distance the aircraft is off track are:
062 radial and 9 NM right of track
342. The maximum range an aircraft at FL270 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is: 240 NM
343. A VOT is: A test VOR
344. An aircraft at FL350 is using a VOR (2060 ft AMSL). The maximum theoretical range at which the VOR can be used is:
290 NM
345. In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver:
Measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the variable phase of the signal 346. The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050° (VAR 10°W) for a conventional VOR is:
230°
347. The quoted accuracy of a VOR is valid: At all times
348. An aircraft flies over position A which is due North of a VOR station sited at position B. The magnetic variation at A is 18°W and at B is 10°W. What radial from B is the aircraft on?
010°
349. An aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBS is set to 025°. The VOR indications are TO with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the station, the aircraft is situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
205° and 295°
350. An aircraft is flying a heading of 090° along the equator, tracking direct to a VOR. If the variation at the aircraft's position is 10°E and 15°E at the VOR, the aircraft is situated on radial:
255°
351. A Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What is the angular deviation from the selected radial?
10° or more
352. The VOR monitor will remove the identification or switch off the VOR transmitter if there is a change of measured bearing greater than:
1°
353. What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received by an aircraft at 1200 ft?
60 NM
354. The OBS is set on 048°, "TO" appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
238°
355. When tracking a VOR radial inbound, the aircraft flies: A great circle track
356. An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI. If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model will be:
Behind
357. On a CVOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30°. The VOR radial is: 030
358. An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000°, defined by a VOR ahead of the aircraft. Variation at the VOR is 5E. At 60 NM to go the QDM is 004. The aircraft's position relative to the airway lateral boundary is:
359. If the remote compass providing heading information to the RMI suddenly suffers a 20° deviation: a) the magnetic track to the VOR station may be read on the compass card under the tip of the VOR needle. b) all answers are correct.
c) the relative bearing to the VOR, as observed on the RMI, will be incorrect by 20°.
d) the value of the received radial may still be read on the compass card under the tail of the VOR needle. 360. A VOR receiver with a phase comparison of 90° is on radial:
East
361. An aircraft at FL100 should be able to receive a VOR ground station located at 100 ft AMSL at an approximate maximum range of:
137 NM
362. An aircraft is inbound to VOR X on the 073° radial and experiences a drift of 12°L. A position report is required when crossing the 133° radial from VOR Y. If the aircraft is on track, the RMI indications at the reporting point would be:
Heading 265°, X pointer 253°, Y pointer 313°
363. An aircraft on a heading of 180° M is on a radial of 270° M from a VOR. The bearing which should be selected on the OBS to centralize the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle and to proceed to the VOR is:
090°
364. The indication of a VOR receiver in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are 075° M with a "TO" indication and the CDI centered. A co-located NDB shows 012° relative. What are drift and heading in °M?
12° right, 063°
365. At an altitude of 20000 ft you would expect to detect a VOR (located at sea level) at a range of: 177 NM
366. The OBS is set to 235°, magnetic heading 200°. The indications of the VOR receiver are half full scale deflection left and "TO". The aircraft is therefore on the radial:
050°
367. An aircraft is on a VOR radial of 235°, heading 003° M, and with the OBS set to 060. The correct indications are:
TO, 1/2 scale deflection to the left
368. What is the minimum height an aircraft must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196 ft AMSL at a range of 175 NM?
16000 ft
369. A pilot flying an aircraft at FL80 tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 metres. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
151 NM
370. Which of the following applies to the Doppler VOR, when comparing conventional and Doppler VOR? The reference and variphase signals are reversed but the phase difference remains the same
371. The designated operational coverage of a VOR is: An altitude and range limited by signal to noise ratio 372. Given:
OBS for a VOR is selected to 090° From/To indicator indicates "TO"
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right On what radial is the aircraft?
373. A VOR indication of 240° "FROM" is given. Variation at the aircraft's position is 9°W and at the VOR 7°W. The heading to reach the station in nil wind conditions is:
053° T
374. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61°N 013°W to 58°N 013°W. The variation at the VOR station is 13°W and at the aircraft's position 5°W. What radial is the aircraft on?
193°
375. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR? 112.20
376. An aircraft is situated at 30°N 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
287°
377. An aircraft is on radial 070° of a VOR, HDG 270°. If the OBS is set to 260°, this CDI will show: Fly left "TO"
378. The maximum width of the cone of silence above a VOR at 30000 ft is: 11.6 NM
379. In a conventional VOR the direction of rotation of the signal will be ... (i) and the variable signal is ... (ii). In a Doppler VOR the reference signal is ... (iii) and the direction of rotation will be ... (iv):
(i) Clockwise, (ii) AM, (iii) AM, (iv) anticlockwise
380. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL340 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
227 NM
381. When the term "radial" is used with reference to VOR, it means: The magnetic bearing from the VOR station
382. The QUJ is 335° by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same position is 12°W. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable signals in the aircraft's receivers from that VOR?
167°
383. When using a DVOR, the pilot should be aware that the reference and variable signals are reversed. This: Improves the accuracy
384. Airborne weather radar is using a 3° beam. A cloud is detected at a range of 40 NM. If the scanner is tilted up to 3° the cloud echo disappears. The top of the cloud, in relation to the aeroplane's cruising level is approximately: 6000 ft above the level
385. An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 4° beam from a parabolic dish aerial reflector assembly. If the wavelength is 3 cm, what is the diameter of the dish?
52.5 cm
386. Airborne weather radar, with a beamwidth of 4° in azimuth, is used in mapping mode. At what maximum range would it be able to detect a 1 NM wide opening in a facing sea cliff?
15 NM
387. Airborne weather radar use a frequency of approximately 9 GHz because:
The wavelength is such that reflections are obtained only from the larger water droplets 388. The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:
389. An aircraft flying at 25000 ft is equipped with AWR. The beam width is 5° with the radar tilted up at 3,5°. The radar is showing the top of a cloud return at 105 NM. The approximate height of the cloud is:
35600 ft
390. The AWR can be used on the ground, provided: 1) The aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles 2) The conical beam is selected
3) Maximum tilt-up is selected
4) The AWR must never be operated on ground The correct statement(s) is (are):
1, 2, 3
391. The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4° up. If the beam width is 5° and the range of the cloud is 40 NM, use the 1:60 rule to calculate the approximate height of the cloud, relative to the aircraft:
6000 ft above
392. What is the orbital time of a GLONASS navigation satellite? 11h 15min
393. What is the orbital time of a NAVSTAR/GPS navigation satellite? 11h 58min
394. How many orbits does the fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS consist of? 6 orbits
395. How many orbits does the fully operational GLONASS consist of? 3 orbits
396. What inclination do the orbits of the NAVSTAR/GPS have? 55° inclination
397. What inclination do the orbits of GLONASS have? 65° inclination
398. What is the minimum number of satellites required for a global coverage of the NAVSTAR/GPS? 24 satellites
399. What number of satellites can be found in one orbit of the full operational NAVSTAR/GPS system? 4 satellites
400. What number of satellites can be found in one orbit of the full operational GLONASS system? 8 satellites
401. At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are GLONASS satellites circling the earth? 19100 km
402. An aircraft at FL300 (ISA conditions), with a ground speed of 300 kts, is about to pass overhead a DME station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining ground speed. One minute before the overhead, DME speed and distance indications are respectively:
403. An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210°. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 5°W and at the aircraft 10°W. Which VOR-RMI corresponds to the indications on the HSI shown below?
Figure B
404. Given:
Aircraft heading 160°(M)
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR Selected course on HSI is 250°
The HSI indications are deviation bar:
Behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
405. An aircraft is flying a heading of 245° towards a VOR at FL300. The HSI displays a "selected course" of 255° with a TO indication. The variation at the VOR is 15°E. Variation at the aircraft position is 16°E and the deviation is +1° When the pilot keeps the CDI on the left inner dot on a display with two dots on either side,
406. An aircraft is flying on the 050 radial with a MH of 250°. On the HSI the CRS is set to 060. Which HSI shows the correct indications?
Figure B
407. An aircraft is flying on the 245 radial with a MH of 250°. On the CDI the CRS is set to 060. Which CDI shows the correct indications?
408. An aircraft is flying on the 050 radial with a MH of 250°. On the CDI the CRS is set to 060. Which CDI shows the correct indications?
Figure C
409. An aircraft is flying on the 170 radial with a MH of 315°. On the CDI the CRS is set to 180. Which CDI shows the correct indications?
410. An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210°. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 5°W and at the aircraft 10°W. According to the HSI shown the aircraft is on radial:
025
411. An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210°. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 5°W and at the aircraft 10°W. Which VOR-RMI corresponds to the indications on the CDI shown below?
412. An aircraft is flying on a MH of 010°. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 10°W and at the aircraft 12°W. Which VOR-RMI corresponds to the indications on the HSI shown?
413. An aircraft is flying on a MH of 010°. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 10°W and at the aircraft 12°W. Which VOR-RMI corresponds to the indications on the CDI shown?
414. An aircraft is flying on a MH of 010°. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 10°W and at the aircraft 12°W. Which VOR-RMI corresponds to the indications on the HSI shown?
415. An aircraft is on the 065 radial with a heading of 090°M. The Course Reference Selector (CRS) is set on 240. Which HSI shows the correct indications?
B
416. The ILS marker with an aural frequency of 3000 Hz is the: Inner marker (if available)
417. Which statement with respect to interrogation modes is correct? Mode S Broadcast will transmit information to all mode S transponders
418. A pilot is flying between two waypoints defined by suitably located VOR/DMEs. Equipped with a simple 2D RNAV system, this pilot:
Reads cross track error and the distance to go on CDI or HSI 419. Which statement is correct with respect to the range of an NDB?
With propagation over sea the range will be greater than the range with propagation over land
420. Which statement is correct for homing towards an NDB in an area with constant wind and constant magnetic variation?