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F3 (OIC)

1. In Lathe machine, the gear between the driver and the follower gears in a simple train is known as a/an _________ or intermediate.

A. Pinion B. Helical C. Idler

D. Reduction Ans. C

2. Milling consists of machining a piece of metal by bringing it into contact with a rotating _________ with many cutting edges. A. Tool bit

B. Gear C. Cutter D. Shaper Ans. C

3. It is the machining of a surface by moving the object forward and backward under a stationary cutting tool.

A. Planning/Shaping B. Reaming

C. Milling D. Boring Ans. A

4. The type of reamer that can outlast high speed reamers many times in castings where sand or hard scale is encountered.

A. Graphite steel B. Carbon steel C. High speed steel D. Carbide

(2)

5. When working on an engine lathe, operators sleeve must be rolled _________the elbow for safety.

A. Below B. Up to C. Above D. At the wrist Ans. C

6. Occasionally when drilling cast iron, it is advisable to rub a little_________ on the lands of the drill.

A. Water

B. Oil or grease C. Acid

D. Degreaser Ans. A

7. A crack in the engine cylinder head will indicate? A. Low lube oil temperature

B. Too high fuel pressure

C. Hunting of jacket cooling pressure and abnormal rise in temperature

D. Decrease in fuel injection pressure Ans. C

8. What is the effect if moisture that will enter a typical refrigeration system.

A. Will cause sweating and frost in the evaporator coil B. Will freeze in the expansion valve

C. Oil in the condenser

D. Will be remove by the strainer Ans. B

9. If fuel is only burned from the starboard tanks the ship will_____________.

A. Go down by the head B. List to port

C. Trim by the stern D. List to starboard Ans. B

(3)

10. In a desk type centrifugal purifier the contaminated oil enter to bowl.

A. At the top through the regulating tube B. At the button through the oil inlet

C. Through the neck of the disk D. Through the funnel body Ans. A

11. The most crucial time for any bearing in regard to lubrication. A. After proper oil viscosity is reached

B. During starting C. During low loads D. After cleaning filter Ans. B

12. More modern lathes are provided with_____________ for feeds and thread leads.

A. Quick change gear B. Reduction gears C. Cutting tool D. Pulley Ans. A

13.is prohibited Allowed to carry product oil but from carrying oil. A. Product carrier

B. Bulk carrier

C. Automobile carrier D. Crude tanker Ans. A

(4)

14. What serves to relieve the strains set up by forging and to give the steel an even close grain or texture?

A. Tempering B. Hardening C. Annealing D. Hammering Ans. A

15. The welded joint between two plates in the same stroke of hull plating is called. A. Map B. Scarf C. Bracket D. Butt Ans. D

16. Instrument used to measure diameters. A. Viscosimeter

B. Thread gage C. Tachometer D. Caliper Ans. D

17. Could determine leak in refrigeration system. A. Halide torch

B. Water C. Torch D. Candle

Ans. A

18. Most synchronous motors are similar in construction to: A. Alternator

B. Emergency unit C. Dynamo

D. Feeders Ans. A

(5)

19. The main features of different pumps of which they are working under non-cavitating condition is:

A. Output is identically proportional B. They are not self priming

C. It will develop a discharge pressure equal to the resistance to be overcome in respectively of speed

D. Output is increased at increased pressure Ans. C

20. Which of the following should be done so that fuel oil viscosity at the atomizer can be reduced?

A. Increase the FO heater steam supply B. Used lighter kind of FO

C. Increase deliver pressure of FO D. Increase FO specific gravity Ans. A

21. The lube oil plate of shell and lube type heat exchanger are usually of:

A. Copper nickel tube B. Naval brass

C. Aluminum brass D. Aluminum bronze Ans. B

22. The pump deal with large volumes liquid while running in maintaining discharge pressure:

A. Rotary vain pump B. Axial

C. Screw displacement pump D. Close loop system

Ans. B

(6)

A. Automatically speeding up the prime maneuver B. Automatically directing

C. Tripping circuit breaker D. Tripping circuit breaker Ans. D

24. Boiler tube can result from: A. Mechanical stress

B. Overheating C. Corrosion D. Leakage Ans. C

25. Which of the following is the primary operational difference between a huddling chamber safety valve and a nozzle reaction safety valve?

A. Adjustment of lifting pressure B. Valve relieving capacities

C. Principle in accomplishing blow down

D. Initial valve opening cause by steam pressure Ans. D

26. As soon as a diesel engine starts; what operating condition should be checked first

A. Air box pressure B. Raw water pressure C. Lube oil pressure D. Exhaust temperature Ans. C

27. On law temperature condition on air stared the engine turn over too slow and fails to start the probably cause:

A. High oil viscosity B. Faulty air starting v/v

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C. Low oil temperature D. Low oil viscosity Ans. A

28. In an air conditioning room if the people complained of being too cool the problem might be:

A. Relative humidity to high B. Air velocity is too low

C. Heater failure to cut out at proper temperature D. Relative humidity too low

Ans. D

29. Ship found discharge water containing more than ____ of oil can be heavily fined. A. 62.0 mg/liter B. 100.0 mg/liter C. 58.0 mg/liter D. 86.0 mg/liter Ans. B

30. Ejector is simple reliable inexpensive effective and ________. A. Inexpensive

B. Utilized high grade of metal C. Maintenance free

D. Heavy Ans. C

31. The minimum internal diameter of main bilge piping permitted on a vessel over 150 gross tons is:

A. 4 cm B. 6.5 cm C. 9 cm D. 12 cm Ans. B

(8)

32. R – 718 is known as: A. Ammonia B. Carbon dioxide C. Water D. dichlorodifluoromethane Ans. C

33. When there is constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve indicates:

A. Lack of refrigerant B. Prop refrigerant control

C. A faulty refrigerant control valve

D. Liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator Ans. A

34. On low temperature condition on air started diesel engine turn over too and fails to start the probable cause is:

A. High on viscosity

B. Faulty air starting valve C. Low oil temperature D. None of the above Ans. D

35. According to the text D/E piston are connected to the crankshaft by: A. Connecting rod B. Push rod C. Piston guide D. Piston pin Ans. A

36. As soon as diesel engine starts what opening condition should be checked first?

A. Air box pressure B. Lube oil pressure C. Raw water pressure

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D. Exhaust temperature Ans. B

37. What is the possible cause of a marine diesel engine having a poor combustion?

A. Very high compression pressure B. Exhaust pressure low

C. Low intake air temperature D. High scavenge pressure Ans. C

38. What is the use of a re-circulating line in the potable hot water system?

A. Maintain desired water temperature to system B. For constant speed of pumps

C. For return overflow D. Maintain flow rate Ans. A

39. What is provided for use on bilge systems evaporator and gas fusing system on tankers?

A. Velocity pump B. Ejectors

C. Convergent nozzle D. Divergent nozzle Ans. B

40. Which should be check before starting a diesel engine? A. Crankcase oil level

B. Oil filter

C. Gas temperature D. Oil filter

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41. Cleaning of the Lathe machine should be done when the machine is _________________. A. Running B. Idle C. On slow running D. On low gear Ans. B

42. The Shaper’s cutting tool has a ______________ motion with the work usually held in a vise:

A. Forward

B. Reciprocating C. Vertical

D. Circular Ans. B

43. Two stroke D.E pistons are connected to the crank shaft by_______. A. Connecting rod B. Crank pin C. Push rod D. Piston guide Ans. A

44. When the engine is running what part in a large slow speed engine is under tension?

A. Bed plate B. Tie rod C. Column D. Rod Ans. B

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45. What possible cause of an air-started engine turns too slow and fails to start on cold weather?

A. Low compression B. Faulty valve

C. Low temperature D. High lube oil viscosity Ans. D

46. What is the purpose of thrust bearing?

A. To control axial movement of the crankshaft B. Absorb vibration

C. Transmit engine thrust D. Prevent propeller thrust Ans. A

47. What measures the degree of hardness of a substance? A. Brinell scale

B. Simpson scale C. Plimsell scale D. Bernoulli’s scale Ans. A

48. Leaky valves in main air compressor may cause _________. A. No air filter

B. High discharge pressure C. Compressor running fast D. Too much suction pressure Ans. D

49. What is the main purpose why check valve is located between economizer and steam drum?

A. Pressurize water flow B. Prevent back pressure

C. Prevent steam and water drum losses should an economizer casualty occur

D. Positive feed water flow Ans. D

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50. What provides the force required to vary the pitch of the blades? A. Hydraulic B. Mechanical C. Pneumatic D. Electrical Ans. A

51. What is the part found between engines and pinion? A. Flexible coupling

B. Duplex coupling C. Main coupling D. Auxiliary coupling Ans. A

52. Capability of safety valve must be _______. A. Closing quickly

B. Remaining open until pressure drop C. Opening gradually

D. Remain open Ans. B

53. Freon 12 tends to short cycle when at ____. A. Light loads

B. Normal condition C. Starting

D. Heavy loads Ans. A

54. What cause a safety valve to “pops up” continuously even manually operating it close?

A. Clogged line B. Damaged seat C. Dirty seat

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D. Poor adjustment Ans. B

55. What causes excessive scale in an evaporating plant? A. Low boiling temperature

B. Poor distillate C. Low vacuum D. Low pressure Ans. A

56. What should be done for sudden loss of oil in crankcase of reefer system?

A. Inspect oil separator B. Renew oil

C. Adjust thermo-expansion valve D. Check for leak

Ans. C

57. Next to the lathe, it is perhaps the most adaptable and interesting machine in the shop.

A. Planer B. Drill C. Welding D. Milling Ans. D

58. What causes a pump fails to deliver liquid? A. Air in suction line

B. RPM too high C. Faulty relief valve D. Damaged impeller Ans. A

59. As per regulation, what is the minimum I.D of main bilge pump for 150 GRT?

A. 14 cm B. 90 cm C. 6.5 cm D. 7.0 cm

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Ans. C

60. What causes lube oil pump unable to build pressure? A. Suction valve closed

B. By pass valve closed C. Discharge valve open D. Suction valve high Ans. A

61. Where will the sludge in a boiler accumulate? A. Floor

B. Screen C. Generating D. Down comer Ans. A

62. When a reefer is having high condensing pressure you should _______.

A. Purge air from condenser B. Check leaky valves

C. Decrease cooling water D. Check thermo bulb Ans. A

63. One special feature of ejectors is? A. Maintenance free

B. High grade metal C. Heavy weight D. Light weight Ans. A

64. What sewage treatment using bacteria acceptable for discharge in water? A. Bio-sewage plant B. External flushing C. Heavy weight D. Treatment tank Ans. A

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A. Chemical treatment B. Decomposing waste C. Chemical plant

D. Breaking up of solid matter Ans. D

66. Speed of turbo charges depends on _____. A. Engine load

B. Engine speed C. Gas temperature D. Cylinder

Ans. A

67. What may cause a leaky oil seal in a turbo charge? A. Low scavenge temperature

B. Blow by

C. Over speeding

D. Insufficient air-fuel ration Ans. C

68. The effect of defective injector nozzle in D.E. is: A. Poor combustion

B. High exhaust temperature C. Smoky exhaust

D. Late injection Ans. C

69. What regulates the flow of refrigerant: A. Expansion valve

B. Compressor C. Evaporator D. Condenser Ans. A

70. What causes cylinder liner to crack? A. Operating at low speed

B. Worn piston tings C. Poor lubrication

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Ans. D

71. In a machine shop, it consists of laying out, assembling, and the final fitting of parts.

A. Bench work B. Bench mark C. Deck work D. Job order Ans. A

72. What is the requirement for potable and non-potable water system?

A. Never be connected by any means

B. Temporarily be connected with a removal spool C. Connected if they are used only for wash water D. Permanently connected through a double stop valve Ans. A

73. What would happen if at low pressure a nozzle reaction safety valve will lift?

A. Insufficient spring compression B. Adjustment too high

C. Scale on seat D. Broken valve seat Ans. A

74. What is the variation from zero loads to full load of D.E? A. Synchronization

B. Speed droop C. Speed rate D. Speed lag Ans. B

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75. What is used particularly in reference to movement of an air in the cylinder and combustion chamber?

A. Silencer

B. Turbocharging C. Scavenging D. Generator Ans. B

76. What important property of oil affects engine performance? A. Specific gravity

B. Flash point C. Pour point D. Viscosity Ans. D

77. What is the purpose of the pneumatic pressure tank in a sanitary system?

A. Provide higher-pressure B. Reduce pressure fluctuation C. Increase water flow

D. Prevent losing suction Ans. A

78. These are three distinct stages in fire fighting? A. Alarm control and detection

B. Control detection and alarm C. Detection alarm and control D. Alarm detection and control Ans. C

79. This a device which uses a mercury manometer in conjunction with a hemispherical belt and piping to measure tank level;

A. Height glass B. Float operated C. Pneumatic gauge D. Gauge glass Ans. C

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80. What engine part included in the classification of running gears? A. A – frame B. Piston C. Bed – plate D. Cylinder liner Ans. B

81. In starting up the lube oil cooler, what is the first thing to do? A. Open the cooling water pump discharge

B. Never close the gravity tank discharge C. Start the lube- oil pump

D. Personally start the cooling water pump Ans. A

82. The joining of two pieces of copper tubing of the same diameter by expanding or stretching the end of one piece of fit over the other so the joint may be soldered or base is called:

A. Swaging

B. Vis – breaking C. Expanding D. Trimming Ans. A

83. Cylinder lubricating has the primary function of forming a film between liner and rings and to:

A. Have increase thermal expansion in liner and rings B. Increase friction between liner and rings

C. Reduce friction between liner and rings D. Totally add more pressure in the liner Ans. C

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84. To sure that the maintenance work is done properly and according to the schedule for each engine for each month of the current year, the operator should have a:

A. Watch clearance as indicated by engine builders B. Schedule of engine equipment inspection

C. Log operating data D. Maintenance log sheet Ans. D

85. In a direct connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine would be fitted with a:

A. Isochronous hunting governor B. Rotating governor disc

C. Variable speed governor D. Constant frequency governor Ans. C

86. Pipes installed in salt water supply lines to plumbing fixtures and plumbing drains also for bilge lines:

A. Copper pipe B. Lead pipe C. Brass pipe D. Aluminum pipe Ans. A

87. The instrument used to determine the velocity of the lubricating oil:

A. Gage pressure B. Flow meter

C. Say bolt viscosimeter D. Hydrometer

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88. A total measurement using zero pressure as datum: A. Absolute pressure B. Barometric pressure C. Gauge pressure D. Vacuum pressure Ans. A

89. When building up speed a turbine start to vibrate, what would you do?

A. Immediately stop engine B. Built up high speed C. Slow down immediately

D. Immediately transfer at stop speed Ans. C

90. Present cooling of injectors that is more widely used is by: A. Blower

B. Air cooling C. Fuel itself D. Lubricant Ans. C

91. In any modern system equipped with a variable pitch screw, the blades are driven by:

A. Running in oil B. Oil pressure C. Air pressure

D. Butter with system Ans. B

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92. If fires go out in the boiler what is the first thing to do? A. Call the engineer on watch

B. Resign all the bridge C. The chief engineer D. Secure the feed pump Ans. A

93. What percentage of oil travels with the refrigerant? A. 25%

B. 10% C. 11% D. 33% Ans. B

94. This value not only a stop valve but also serves as check to prevent flow reversal in the event of unbalanced pressure:

A. Wedge nozzle valve B. Non return valve

C. High pressure glove valve D. Check operated valve Ans. B

95. The most important single piece of equipment in any steam power plant is? A. Operators B. Pumps C. Boilers D. Machine Ans. C

96. A wheel located aft in the steering engine room and is normally disconnected and if will be used in the vent the telemotor become disable:

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A. Magic-steering wheel B. Strick wheel

C. Trick – steering wheel D. Zenith steering wheel Ans. C

97. Any water present in the refrigerant side of a Freon refrigerating system causes a/an:

A. Cold sweating on trap B. Clogged scale trap C. Frozen expansion valve D. Clogged oil trap

Ans. C

98. A space between a moving and a stationary part: A. Space

B. Thrust C. Clearance D. Retrieve Ans. C

99. The rate of at which a system will absorbed heat from refrigerated space or substance is known as:

A. Coefficient of performance B. Total heat

C. Refrigerating capacity D. Displacement volume Ans. C

100. The throttle valve jam or stick open should be closed by: A. Gear teeth

B. Stop valve C. Valve unit D. Gear valve Ans. B

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101. Used to designate the combination of all parts which control the admission of the air charge and discharge of exhaust gases in four stroke engines. A. Valve gear B. Valve union C. Valve timing D. Timing valves Ans. C

102. When reciprocating pumps run by steam the power end is called: A. Steam end

B. Liquid steam C. Steam base D. Liquid rectifier Ans. A

103. The sedimentation tank receives the fuel from the storage tanks where after settling:

A. Daily purging is effectuated B. Monthly purging is necessary C. Gas purging is necessary D. Hourly purging is effectuated Ans. A

104. Of the following safety information’s which can be found in the fire control plans posted:

A. Bridge station B. Hall station

C. Location of fire doors D. Escape tunnel

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105. Is an eccentric projection on a revolving disc used for the opening and closing of a valve through various intermediate parts:

A. Piston

B. Cam

C. Nozzle D. Oppressor Ans. B

106. The temperature at which the oil vapor above oil will flash when a small flame is applied:

A. Flash point B. Quick point C. Set point

D. Reaction point Ans. A

107. An axial flow pump uses a: A. Piston

B. Screw propeller C. Oscillating vane D. Volute

Ans. B

108. The oil system fails while underway, what is the first thing to do? A. Re-start the stand by lube-oil pump

B. Secure the boiler

C. Open the outlet value on the gravity tank D. Tap the main engine

(25)

109. You are testing leaks in a newly repaired refrigeration circuit. Which substance should not be used to develop pressure in the circuits? A. Oxygen B. Brine C. Carbon dioxide D. Aluminum gel Ans. A

110. The term used when a number of individually small holes are bored within the thickness of a part so that water can be passes closed to the heated surface.

A. Bore cooling B. Reduce effect C. Saturated cooling D. Thermal cooling Ans. A

111. In avoiding excessive pressure during bunkering, you should: A. Reduce the loading rate when topping off

B. Close main talk filling valves C. Top of all tanks at the same time D. Close non-return valve

Ans. A

112. It is essential to smooth operation? A. Alignment

B. Under stress C. Vibration D. Torsion Ans. A

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113. What oil is passed by the relief valve and is turned to the oil fan? A. Mineral oil B. Natural oil C. Surplus oil D. Linseed oil Ans. C

114. What refrigerated that will operate on lowest pressure and therefore required the lowest compressor power consumption.

A. Brine

B. Careen 707 C. Freon

D. A – 1309 Ans. C

115. This is a type if electrical thermometer which uses resistance change to measure temperature:

A. Thermocouples B. Watt meter

C. Optical pyrometer

D. Piezo – electric pyrometer Ans. A

116. This is an inert vapor, non-poisonous, odorless and has no corrosive action of the metals:

A. Carbon naphtha B. Carbon dioxide C. Carbon peroxide D. Carbon monoxide

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Immediately after any diesel engine is started the engineer should check the ______.

Crankcase pressure Lube oil pressure Saltwater pressure Exhaust temperature Ans. B

What is the main reason why heavy fuel oil must be pre-heated prior to use in a low speed engine?

Decreased moisture content Increase cetane number Decrease viscosity

Increase ignition quality Ans. C

The cubic inch displacement of an engine or cylinder is determined by the diameter of the piston and the _________.

Length of the crankshaft

Volume of the clearance space Weight of the piston

Length of the stroke Ans. D

One disadvantage of a two-stroke cycle diesel engine is ________. More power stroke per revolution

The use of scavenge air More complicated value gear

Higher working temperature of piston and cylinder Ans. D

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Opening the exhaust ports Closing the fuel ports

Farthest from the cylinder head Nearest to the cylinder head Ans. D

117. Improper (poor) combustion in a diesel engine could be cause by__________.

A. High compression pressure B. Low intake air temperature C. Low exhaust pressure

D. High scavenge air pressure Ans. B

118. Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed propulsion diesel engines is admitted to each cylinder during:

A. Power stroke

B. Compression stroke C. Low load operation only D. Periods of standby Ans. B

119. Loop, uniflow and return flow are terms uses to describe various types of:

A. Control air circuits B. Super changing C. Turbo changing D. Scavenging Ans. D

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120. Normally the greatest cavitations erosion on the waterside of wet cylinder liners is ______.

Throughput the lower one-half of the liner

A. Throughout the upper one-half of the liner B. At DC opposite the thrust side of the liner C. Near the middle of the thrust side of the liner Ans. D

121. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of a/an ______.

A. Worn cylinder liner

B. Faulty cylinder relief value C. Excessive lube oil pressure

D. Excessive scavenge air pressure Ans. A

122. What instrument is used to take crankshaft web deflection readings? A. A feeler B. An outside micrometer C. A strain gauge D. A gauge block Ans. C

123. In a diesel engine, blow by __________. A. Increase exhaust back pressure

B. Causes excessive crankcase pressure

C. Can only be detected by a compression check D. Decreases fuel consumption

Ans. B

124. An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates ________. A. Worn connecting rod bearings

B. Worn engine cylinder liners C. High cylinder firing pressure

D. Stuck spring loaded manhole covers Ans. B

125. Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel engine because the ________ there.

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A. Side thrust is greatest

B. Skirt makes greatest contact C. Highest pressures are exerted D. Acceleration rate is greatest Ans. C

126. In what portion of two cycle opposed piston diesel engine cylinder does maximum wear occur?

A. Upper end B. Lower end C. Middle D. Thrust side Ans. C

127. A properly honed cylinder liner in an diesel engine will __________.

A. Prevent piston ring wear

B. Shorten the ring break-in period C. Prevent cylinder liner glazing D. Appear slick and glazed Ans. B

128. Which of the following will have the direct impact on the rate of wear in cylinder liner _________?

A. Amount of scavenge air to the cylinder B. Quality of fuel injected

C. Viscosity of the lube oil

D. Compression ratio of the piston Ans. B

129. At what condition could cause cylinder relief valves on a large diesel engine to lift?

A. Plugged injection nozzles B. Excessive fuel injection C. Very late injection timing

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D. Incorrect crankshaft clearance Ans. B

130. If the relief valve or a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could be _______.

A. Liquid in the cylinder

B. Low compression in the cylinder C. High exhaust temperature

D. Poor fuel penetration Ans. A

131. When compression pressure is checked, the indicator is connected to the _______.

A. Cylinder exhaust ports B. Injection line

C. Cylinder indicator cock D. Banjo oiler line

Ans. C

132. What is called the lower section of a piston? A. Land

B. Skirt C. Crown D. Plate Ans. B

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133. The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the skirt, this done to _________.

A. Facilitate the installation of a piston rings

B. Allow for the expansion of the piston during operation

C. Prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamber

D. Reduce wearing of the upper cylinder lines Ans. B

134. Turbulence in the compressed air charge increases ___________.

A. Ignition lags B. Piston side thrust

C. The efficiency of the engine D. Compression pressure Ans. C

135. In an auxiliary diesel engine, the reason the piston skirt is knurled to _______.

A. Improved skirt lubrication B. Allow for expansion

C. Transmit forces evenly D. Improve the piston seal Ans. A

136. What would cause a diesel engine to use too much lube oil? A. Dirty lube oil filter

B. Too much piston ring wear C. High lube oil viscosity D. Low lube oil temperature Ans. B

137. Black areas on the sealing surface of piston rings indicates _______.

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B. Rotating rings

C. Gas pressure behind the ring D. Hot gas escaping

Ans. D

138. Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can cause ________.

A. Excessive lube oil consumption

B. Lower than normal lube oil temperature C. Higher than normal exhaust back pressure D. Excessive crankshaft end play

Ans. A

139. A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal _______.

A. Firing pressure

B. Exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder C. Cooling water temperature

D. Compression pressure Ans. B

140. The easiest way to locate defective exhaust valve in a propulsion diesel engine is by:

A. Taking compression readings B. Inspecting the valves visually C. Exhaust pyrometer readings D. Listening to the engine

Ans. C

141. Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine will result in the exhaust valve opening

A. Later and closing earlier B. Later and closing later C. Earlier and closing earlier D. Earlier and closing later

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Ans. A

142. In a diesel engine, the time period between full injection and ignition is usually defined as:

A. Injection duration B. Ignition timing C. Pre combustion lag D. Ignition delay

Ans. D

143. The low-pressure steam drain system drains to the _______. A. Deacrating feed water heater

B. Contaminated drain inspection tank C. Atmospheric drain tank

D. Main condenser hot well Ans. C

144. Testing the viscosity of engine lube oil where result may indicate _______.

A. Fuel oil dilution

B. Oxidation of the lube oil

C. (Both a and b) oxidation and dilution D. Salinity and hardness

Ans. C

145. A metal scribe should only be used to A. Remove packing

B. Mark the metal

C. Punch gaskets holes D. Clean file teeth

Ans. B

146. What is the tool used to removed a ball bearing from the shaft of a motor?

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A. Sluggish wrench B. Gear puller C. Drift pin D. Came along Ans. B

147. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the

A. Set

B. Rake

C. Pitch

D. Thread gauge Ans. C

148. A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drills _________. A. Length B. Diameter C. Clearance angle D. Web thickness Ans. B

149. Which materials can be drilled at the highest speed? A. Aluminum

B. Medium cost iron C. Copper

D. High carbon steel Ans. A

150. When checking Zinc plates in the condenser cooler, you should ______.

A. Replace the plates if 50% deteriorated

B. Paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion C. Renew the plates

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Ans. A

151. What is that device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed space?

A. Flame relief value B. Flame/spark arrester C. Flame stopper

D. Safety valve Ans. B

152. Which of the listed decreases the total dissolve solids concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler?

A. Frequent compounding B. Chemical cleaning C. Bottom blowing

D. Hydrazine treatment of condensate Ans. C

153. At normal operating conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in an R-12 refrigeration system as a ________.

A. Liquid

B. Super heated vapor C. Dry saturated gas D. Wet saturated gas Ans. B

154. What harmful effect can result if a diesel engine is operated at very high loads for lone period of time?

A. Increase carbon build up B. Increase fuel consumption C. Burning of intake bulb D. Excessive firing pressure Ans. A

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155. What kind of lube oil on reciprocating pump rods? A. Oil mixed with kerosene

B. Graphite and oil C. Used engine oil D. Cold grease

Ans. B

156. The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by ________. A. Pressure B. Volume C. Weight D. Temperature Ans. C

157. A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard/air conditioning system is ________. A. Methyl chloride B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Trichloro ethylene Ans. B

158. Which is a secondary refrigerant? A. Methyl alcohol

B. Brine

C. Carbon dioxide D. Cuprous chloride Ans. B

159. Refrigerant enters the condenser as an A. High pressure liquid

B. Low pressure vapor C. High pressure vapor D. Low pressure liquid

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Ans. C

160. When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it next goes to the ________. A. Evaporator coils B. Liquid strainer C. Compressor D. Condenser Ans. B

161. What will cause an automatically controlled R – 12 compressors to start?

A. Closing of the solenoid valve B. Closing of the expansion valve C. Increasing suction pressure D. Decreasing suction pressure Ans. C

162. The low-pressure side of a refrigeration system is from the ________.

A. Expansion valve to the compressor B. Receiver to the expansion coil C. Expansion valve to the evaporator D. Condenser to the expansion valve Ans. A

163. In refrigeration plant purpose of the receiver is to ________. A. Cool the refrigerant gas

B. Superheat the refrigerant liquid C. Store the refrigerant

D. Condense the refrigerant Ans. C

164. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant _______. A. Flow B. Temperature C. Superheat D. Pressure Ans. C

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165. In refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the: A. Condenser B. Dehydrator C. Liquid strainer D. Hygrometer Ans. B

166. When air is at its dew point it is at its ______ humidity. A. Lowest absolute

B. Lowest relative C. Highest absolute D. Highest relative

Ans. D

167. In an air-conditioning system, moisture system moisture is removed from the air by _____.

A. Filters B. Separator C. Ducted traps D. Dehumidifiers Ans. D

168. Compressor crankcase sweating is an indicator of ________. A. Insufficient lube oil

B. Excessive lube oil

C. Liquid refrigerant in the compressor D. An overworked compressor

Ans. C

169. Efficient combustion in a boiler is indicated by a ________ haze. A. White

B. Brown C. Yellow D. Black Ans. B

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170. Pulsating fires in a boiler furnace can be caused by ________. A. Low fuel temperature

B. Too much air C. Low fuel pressure D. Too little air

Ans. D

171. Oil or scale in boiler tubes will cause ________. A. Those tubes to overheat

B. Decreased boiler steam pressure C. Increased boiler steam pressure D. An explosion in the boiler

Ans. A

172. The fusible plugs used in the fire-tube auxiliary boilers are installed in the _____. A. Furnace B. End bell C. Stay tube D. Crown sheet Ans. D

173. The air cock on a boiler allows the _______. A. Waterside to be purged of air

B. Boiler casing to be purged of air

C. Super heater to be completely vented D. Economize to be vented

Ans. A

174. The bottom blow valve on a water tube boiler is usually attached to the ______.

A. Steam and water drum B. Boiler mud drum

C. Extend down comers D. Floor tubes

(41)

175. Sodium phosphate in boiler water can be measured by a/an _______ lost. A. Alkalinity B. Phosphate C. Chlorinity D. Calcium hardness Ans. B

176. Phenolphthalein in indicator is used to test boiler water for _______. A. Dissolved oxygen B. Alkalinity C. Chloride content D. Hardness Ans. B

177. A sulfide test is conducted on boiler water to check for _______. A. Nitrates

B. Sulfates C. Phosphates

D. Excess oxygen scavenging agents Ans. D

178. The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by ______.

A. Distillate B. Sea water C. Brine D. Air Ans. B

179. A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a: A. Center drill

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C. Broach D. Reamer Ans. D

180. The drill size is marked on the _________. A. Point

B. Shank C. Margin D. Flute Ans. B

181. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe _______.

A. Cutter

B. Stock and die C. Tap

D. Chaser Ans. B

182. To ensure the stock is running in a lathe you should use a ______. A. Center gage B. Gage block C. Dial indicator D. Micrometer Ans. C

183. The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the ________. A. Flexible blade

B. All-hard blade C. All soft blade

D. Hollow care blade Ans. B

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184. A hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch should be used to cut _____.

A. Angle icon and heavy pipe B. Cost iron and soft steel C. Thin tubing or sheet metal D. Drill rod and tool sheets Ans. B

185. File lengths are determined by the ______. A. Over all length of the file

B. Distance between the face and the edge of the file C. Distance between the point and the heel of the file D. Length of the tong only

Ans. C

186. Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges? A. Mile

B. Pillar C. Half round D. Knife Ans. B

187. It is the name given to decrease in boiler metal thickness in which this decrease appears as small holes eaten in the metal.

A. Foaming B. Pitting C. Priming D. Grooving Ans. B

188. Fusible plugs are installed in fire tube boilers to: A. Provide a means of draining the boiler

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B. Cool the crown sheet at high firing rates C. Warn the engineer of low water level D. Open the burner’s electrical firing circuits Ans. C

189. If a tube failure results from low water level and you cannot maintain water in sight in the gauge glass, you should ____________.

A. Immediately secure the force draft fans

B. Blow down the gauge glass to verify a low water condition C. Immediately secure the fuel oil supply to the burners

D. Increase the feed pump speed to maximum Ans. C

190. Gasket leakage around boiler hand holes may be caused by____________.

A. Pitted seating surfaces

B. Improper positioning of the gasket C. Loose bolts

D. All of these Ans. B

191. When a vessel is dry docked for inspection, which of the following valves are required to be opened during this period?

A. High and low suction valves on fuel oil settling tanks B. Bottom blow skin valves to the main auxiliary boilers C. Ballast pump manifold valves

D. Pooling water control valves on refrigeration condensers Ans. B

192. A broken intake valve on an operating air compressor is indicated by ____________.

A. Air blowing out through the inlet air filter B. Excessive temperature in the after cooler C. Excessive compression in the cylinder D. Short cycling valve of the compressor Ans. A

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193. A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two-stage, high pressure air compressor can cause excessively high____________. A. Pressure in the after cooler

B. Second-stage discharge pressure C. First-stage discharge pressure D. Compressor discharge temperature Ans. C

194. The rate of expansion of heated fuel varies with the specific ____________. A. Volume B. Viscosity C. Conductivity D. Gravity Ans. D

195. The process of minimizing the friction and wear between moving metal parts by the formation of a film of oil between them is called ______.

A. Lubrication B. Atomization C. Injection D. Force feed Ans. A

196. A grease lubricating ball or roller bearings will run cooler if the grease____________.

A. Has a low grease penetration number

B. Fills 10% of all avoid space within the bearing C. Is heated prior to packing the bearing

D. Is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil Ans. A

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197. Engines which run with petrol (or paraffin) as the fuel are sometimes called as___________.

a. Gasoline engines

b. Internal combustion engine c. Light oil engines

d. Petrol engines Ans. C

198. How is tubing measured and sized? A. Cross-sectional area

B. Outside diameter C. Normal wall thickness

D. Inside diameter Ans. B

199. A tail stock ‘dead center’ has been given that name because it ____________.

A. Must be removed by clamping in the chuck B. Does not revolve C. Is dead centered on the tail stock spindle D. Fits into the dead center of the work piece Ans. B

200. A dirty intercooler on the ship’s service air compressor will result in____________.

A. Decreased compression ratio

B. Water in the lubricating oil C. Higher than normal power consumption

D. Unloaded malfunction Ans. C

201. When steel is tempered it becomes ________? A. Softer

B. Less brittle C. More brittle D. Harder Ans. B

202. Which of the following may be determined by conducting a simple spot test of engine lube oil?

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A. Approximately degree of contamination B. Approximately lube oil viscosity C. Percent of fuel dilution of lube oil

D. NB number Ans. A

203. A mechanical property of material which enables it to be drawn easily into wire form like elongation and contraction from tensile test is called____________. A. Plasticity B. Malleability C. Elasticity D. Ductility Ans. D

204. Cutting tools used in planer work are the same as those used in______________. A. Circular saw B. Grinder C. Shaper D. Lathe Ans. C

205. A machine tool which uses an abrasive wheel as a cutting tool to obtain a very high degree of accuracy and a smooth finish on a metal part.

A. Milling B. Grinding C. Shaper D. Lathe

(48)

206. If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel workpiece in a lathe machine and see blue chips coming of the workpiece, you should _________.

a. Decrease the flow of lubricating oil to the tool b. Reduce the cutting tool height above the center c. Reduce the tool feed or the depth of cut

d. Decrease the cross compound speed Ans. C

207. One method of accurately checking the alignment of lathe centers is by moving the dial indicator securely mounted on compound rest between the two positions indicated on the test bar. If the dial indicator reading on the tailstock end of the testbar shows a higher (plus) reading than the dial indicator reading at the headstock end, you should move the tailstock ___________.

Away from you to correct alignment Toward you to correct alignment

Closer to the headstock to reduce offset

Away from the headstock to decrease misalignment

Ans. A

208. Workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If a test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.

Away from you to correct alignment Toward you to correct alignment

Closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset Away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment

Ans. A

209. If you are machining a work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first _________.

(49)

Lubricate the center Stop the lathe

Change the cutting bit

Run the lathe at a slower speed

Ans. B

210. When a stock is turned in a lathe, the outside diameter is reduced by an amount equal to ________.

The depth of cut

One half the depth of cut Twice the depth of cut Twice the rate of feed

Ans. C

211. Which of the statement best described the term “depth of cut” in lathe work?

The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work

The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiece The distance the workpiece circumference past the cutting tool point in 1

minute

The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute

Ans. B

212. The dead center of the work can properly be used only after the end of the work piece has been __________.

Counter bored Tapered

Center drilled Convexed

Ans. C

213. Which lathe operation is best done with the carriage locked in position?

Facing work held in chuck

Turning work held between centers Threading internal threads

Boring an angled hole

Ans. A

214. When drilling a hole in the piece of work being chucked, you should mount the chuck drill in the _________.

(50)

Compound rest Cross feed Tailstock Headstock

Ans. C

215. The maximum size of fillet weld can be used at _________.

2 mm 3 mm 0.5 mm 10 mm

Ans. A

216. An example of active flux is _________.

Potassium oxide Sodium peroxide Zinc chloride Calcium nitride

Ans. C

217. A process whereby two metals is to be heated to produce a joint which is strong or stronger than the parent metal is called __________. Making bonding Arc welding C. Soldering Gas welding Ans. B

218. The heat of brazing melts the borax to form a protective _________. Dye penetrant Slag Coat Base Ans. B

(51)

219. The weld used to join shell plates in flush construction is known as ________ welds. Fillet Butt Continuous Seam Ans. B

220. The first metal used in steel ship construction is _________. Brass

Wrought iron Pig iron Cast iron

Ans. B

221. The maximum stress at which the material can support without failure is known as ______ strength.

Ultimate Ductile Breaking Compressive

Ans. A

222. A kind of packing used in steam joints is _________. Asbestos

Copper gasket Elastic packing Diathermal packing

(52)

223. The capability of a material to be able to absorb large quantity of energy before fracture is called __________.

Toughness Ductility Elasticity Free stress

Ans. A

224. Which material is excellent for use as seals and diaphragm for water lubricated bearings?

Rubber

Titanium alloy Silicon

Uranium

Ans. A

225. The proportionality of stress and strain under certain condition is called _________. Hooke’s law Luminous intensity Newton’s law Mutual inductance Ans. A

226. The casing of lead-acid battery is made of __________. Hard rubber

Hard asbestos Soft copper Soft bismuth

Ans. A

227. A strong plastic which is machinable for use in fabrication of gears, bushing, washers, spacers, etc. is __________.

(53)

Teflon Nylon Polymer Silicon

Ans. A

228. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and _________.

Cooling slowly in air Dousing in oil

Dousing in cold water Dousing in hot water

Ans. A

229. Steel balls for ball bearings are manufactured by cold ________. Heading

Rolling Swagging Turning

Ans. A

230. Silver solder is an alloy of silver and _________. Tin or lead

Brass mixed bronze Copper and zinc Bronze or tin

Ans. A

231. The product of mechanical efficiency and the compression efficiency is known as _______ efficiency.

Pascal’s Overall

Mechanical-electrical Compression-mechanical

(54)

232. The process of mixing oil and water is called ___________. Contamination Filtration Emulsification Vaporization Ans. C

233. All energy received as heat by a heat engine cannot be converted into mechanical work is a demonstration of ___________.

The 2nd law of thermodynamics The 3rd law of thermodynamics Superheated steam

Newton’s 3rd law of motion Ans. A

The form of energy associated with the random motion of large numbers of molecule is known as _________.

Heat Work

Young’s modulus of elasticity X-ray

Ans. A

234. A metal used in piping on board ships that is more durable than copper pipes and is also used in cooling water installations, sanitary installations, oil coolers, and heat exchangers, heat coils etc. is called ___________.

(55)

Aluminum brass (Yorcalbro) White meal (Babbitt Metal) Cunifer

Bronze

Ans. A

235. How is annealing process carried out?

By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time in a furnace and then allowing it to cool as slowly as possible

By cooling the material in a furnace and then heating it again as slowly as possible

By slowly heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time inside the furnace and then applying abrupt cooling

By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower temperature and finally allowing it cool as slowly as possible

Ans. A

236. How is hardening process carried out?

By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time in a furnace and finally allowing it to cool in still air

By melting the material in the furnace and then allowing it to cool inside the furnace

By slowly heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time inside the furnace and then applying abrupt cooling

By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower temperature and finally it to cool as slowly as possible

Ans. C

(56)

To increase the hardness and lessen the ductility of the material To soften the material for easy pressing or bending purposes

To remove some of the hardness, making the steel less brittle and more tough

To produce a hard strong steel with a refined grain structure Ans. C

238. What is meant by the term “pig iron”?

The basic material used in the manufacture of various steel and iron Sand channel into which molten metals flow

The molten iron collected in the hearth of the furnace

A crude, high-carbon iron produced by reduction of iron ore in a blast furnace Ans. D

239. Which statement is true regarding the purpose/use of the alloying element chromium?

Used in removing the possibility of embrittlement in steel

It does not greatly reduce ductility until 8% chromium is reached

It is extensively used in heat exchangers, usually of the plate type variety

Increases grain size, induces hardness, improves resistance to corrosion and erosion

Ans. D

240. Why are metallurgical tests carried out upon materials? For maintenance purposes

To test the mechanical properties of the materials So that the life span of the material will be known To determine their suitability for use in engineering

Ans. D

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Special test pieces are used which are damaged during the process These tests are carried out on components, not test pieces

These tests give no indication of mechanical properties

They are used to detect flaws or imperfections during manufacture or those that develop during service

Ans. A

242. A method of detecting surface defects (e.g. cracks) by the use of microscope or hand lens is called _________.

Radiography

Visual examination or inspection Oil and whitewash

Magnetic crack detection Ans. B

243. What is the main reason for using glass fiber as a filler material in polymers?

For reducing electrical conductivity To improve corrosion resistance For strength

To improve heat resistance Ans. C

244. Rubbers are used ________. For choking engines, winches, pumps, etc.

As a framework to give strength, produce insertion jointings and also used in packing

As seals in place of bronze wear rings in sea water pumps

For fresh and salt water pipe joints, water lubricated bearings and is used for bucket rings in feed pumps

Ans. D

245. What are the factors/material properties to consider in the use of Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)?

Resistant to corrosion and a good electrical conductor

Unaffected by steam, petrol, paraffin, fuel oils and lubricants Unaffected by waters and oils

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Ans. D

246. What are some of the uses of nitrile on board ships?

It is used in place of rubber, can be used for anti-vibration mountings, jointings, etc.

It is used as thermal insulation

It is used for pipes and fittings, electrical conduits, for cable and wire insulation, etc.

It is used for water lubricated bearings, gland rings, jointing tape, etc. Ans. A

247. How is “electric arc” produced in electric arc welding process? By closing the circuit thereby allowing the continued flow of electricity By touching the electrode and then withdrawing it

By lowering the voltage and increasing the electric current

By passing an electric current between two electrodes separated by a small gap

Ans. D

248. Which statement is NOT true about brazing process? Brazing process is used to join similar or dissimilar metals

Brazing filler metals are lead & tin or aluminum & zinc alloys

Brazing filler metals are alloys of copper, nickel, silver and aluminum Brazing uses a flux to dissolved or remove oxides

Ans. B

249. What is the appropriate action for the plate edge of a metal that has acquired local hardness due to rapid cooling after the gas cutting operation?

Plate edges should be machined or grinded

Plate edges should be heat treated by means of the torch Plate edges should be treated (plated) with chromium Plate edges should be soaked in a hot water

(59)

Ans. A

250. The change in length of an object in some direction, not

necessarily the same that is produced by an externally applied load is called __________. Tension Contraction Strain Stress Ans. C

251. When a material on one side pushes on the material on the other side of the surface with a force parallel to the surface, the stress is said to be a __________. Shearing stress Compacting stress Tensile stress Resisting stress Ans. A

252. How is the “vertical position welding” carried out? By positioning the weld with the axis perpendicular to the ground By placing the weld with the axis parallel to the ground

By starting to weld only the lower portion of the joint going up

By welding on the upper side of the joint with the face of the weld parallel to the ground

Ans. A

253. The composition of hazardous fumes will depend on the following EXCEPT the ____________. Filler material Method of welding Weld slag Base material Ans. C

254. Melting, cutting or welding of lead can cause “lead poisoning” because lead fumes _________.

(60)

Enter the blood stream if inhaled

Enter and irritates the skin when exposed for a period of time Enter the lungs and clog the air sac

In large concentration can cause asphyxiation Ans. A

255. How can we prevent incomplete fusion in a weld? By pre – heating the workpiece before the start of weld

By careful pre – weld cleaning, correct current and good welding technique By not allowing the slag to get in front of the molten metal

By using the correct variations weave weld pattern Ans. B

256. How are gas pressures regulated in the cylinder tanks of gas welding and cutting operations?

By attaching a safety device and other accessories necessary for the required operation

By attaching regulators to the cylinder top valves and then setting it to the recommended working pressure

By “cracking” the top valve of the gas cylinder tank and then adjusting it to a required operating pressure

By directly connecting the welding hoses on the outlet and letting the torch valve regulate and control the gas pressure

Ans. B

257. When cutting a piece of material, the size of the cutting tip will depend on the ________.

Center orifice of the nozzle

Thickness of the material to be cut Position of the pre – heat orifices Type of metals to be cut

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Ans. B

258. You were about to start oxy – acetylene gas cutting operation to create a slot and holes in the middle portion of a metal plate. What is the correct and proper approach when conducting the piercing

operation at the start of a cut?

I. Direct then preheat flame against the starting point slightly above the surface plate until the portion is red to white hot. II. Press the preheat lever immediately at the very

start of the cutting operation directly at the top of the plate.

III. Lift the nozzle slightly above the preheat

position, press down the cutting lever and then bring down the torch tip slightly above the plate to start the cut.

IV. Move the torch tip immediately in contact with the metal plate to the direction of travel and guide the torch steadily along the line.

I only

Both I and III Both II and IV II, III and IV

Ans. B

259. When starting the bevel cut, the torch tip should be _________. Exactly in vertical position

Horizontal position

Perpendicular to the metal surface Inclined to a desired/required

Ans. D

260. The following statements holds true for tempering process EXCEPT ______.

It is carried out after hardening process is done on the material The cooling process for tempering can be done in several ways.

After heating, the process of tempering can be applied immediately to the material.

The main purpose of tempering is to lessen the hardness and brittleness of the material

Ans. C

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Numerology Meteorology Mensuration Metrology

Ans. D

262. Which statement is true about crankshaft deflection gage? It is the simplest and the most accurate method of checking alignments It used for measuring linear dimensions, thickness or diameter

A tool for measuring angles formed by lines on the plane

An instrument for measuring narrow slots, small gaps and clearances Ans. D

263. What is the main difference between British standard threads and the Metric standards threads for a variety of sizes?

The British standard threads uses 55º thread angle while Metric standards uses 60° thread angle.

The British standard threads have the lower depth of thread as compared with Metric Standards thread.

The British standard threads has a flat root while the Metric standards has a rounded root.

The British standard threads have rounded crest while the metric standard threads have flat crest.

(63)

264. What is the principle involved in bonding materials using adhesives?

The sealing and bonding of two or more materials temporarily either metallic or nonmetallic by capillary means

The joining or establishing permanent bond on similar or dissimilar materials by the application of pressure

The fastening together of two or more solids with or without the application of heat

The bonding together of a wide variety of like and unlike materials by resins and their chemical combinations

Ans. D

265. What will happen to an elastic material if loaded above a point known as the elastic limit?

The material will return to its original dimensions when the load is removed. The material will not return to its original dimensions and will be permanently

deformed when the load is removed

The material will sustain then load conditions without failure. The material will break easily when given a sudden blow.

Ans. B

266. The main difference between ferrous metals from nonferrous metals is ________.

Its substantial amount of alloying elements The amount of carbon content

The presence of other impurities Its substantial amount of iron

Ans. D

267. What is your observation and conclusion regarding the effect of carbon content w hen comparing the tensile strength, ductility, and hardness low-, medium-,and high - carbon steel?

(64)

As the carbon content increases, the hardness, tensile strength and ductility also increases.

As the carbon content increases, the hardness also increases but the tensile strength and ductility decreases.

As the carbon content increases, the tensile strength, hardness and ductility decreases.

As the carbon content increases, the hardness and tensile strength also increases but ductility decreases.

Ans. D

268. What is the main purpose of Alloy? To change the grain structure of the material To create a new chemical element

To enhance the mechanical property of the material To eliminate carbon content

Ans. C

269. Which is true about the uses of gray cast iron? It is used for axle and differential housing and gears.

Suitable material for cylinder heads, and break and clutch applications in motor vehicles.

It is wanted for such product as rail wheels, rolls for crushing grains and jaw crusher plates.

Used for pipe fitting, frame sockets, and steering – column housing. Ans. A

270. The main purpose of a grinding machine is for ___________.

Cutting small amount of material to bring the work to a very fine and accurate finish

Removing very large amount of material to bring the work to near finish Removing large amount of material to bring the work to close finish Removing small amount of material to bring the work to a smooth finish

(65)

271. Why it is important to obtain accuracy when measuring materials/workpieces?

To obtain closeness of agreement among repeated measurement of same characteristics by same characteristics by same method under same condition

To get the permissible deviation from a basic dimension

To bring about the best possible feature outcome for a particular material or workpiece

To meet and comply with the standard requirements/s needed for the job

Ans. D

272. When applying linear measurement (e.g. to determine length, width, height, depth, etc.), it is usually made ________.

Indirectly with the measuring tools on the surfaces of the material or workpiece

Directly with the measuring tools on the surfaces of the material or workpiece Using measuring tools with contact points only on the material/workpiece Using measuring tools with contact surfaces only on the material/workpiece

Ans. B

273. Which statement is true when obtaining correct measurement using a steel tape rule?

Start the measuring tool setting from one end to any point of the steel rule to obtain correct measurement reading

Use the hook and extend the tape in any position directly on the surface of the material or workpiece

Place the steel tape rule in any position directly on the surface of the material or workpiece

Start the tool setting from the 1 in. line (10mm.line for metric) or other major graduations, rather from one end of the rule

Ans. B

274. Which statement is true when using outside caliper on a round stock to get the correct measurement?

(66)

Slightly drag the caliper leg points against the outside diameter (so it lightly touches the center line) of the stock

Clamp the caliper leg points very tightly against the outside diameter of the stock

Move the caliper leg points in and out the hole gently

Adjust the caliper leg points loosely against the outside diameter of the stock. Ans. A

275. Which does the term “marking out” refer to? Locating lines, circles, arcs, points of drilling holes

Measuring different lines on the workpiece/s Scratching of lines on the surface of a workpiece Indenting of lines on the workpiece

Ans. C

276. “Laying out” means ________.

Measuring lines, circles, arcs, points for drilling holes and making cuts on workpiece/s

Locating and scribing points for machining and forming operations Removing or chipping off some portions in a workpiece

Transferring drawing dimensions to the workpiece Ans. A

277. Which statement best describes the purpose of a scriber? A sharp piercing tool for drawing wide lines on any workpiece/s

Any writing implement for making lines on a workpiece

Any sharp pointed object that can mark out lines on a metal workpiece

A sharp pointed tool used to make clean narrow lines on a metal workpieces Ans. D

278. You were tasked to mark out circles and arcs on a metal workpiece. Which marking tool are you going to use?

(67)

Compass Divider Trammel Scriber

Ans. B

279. A center punch is used to _________. Locate the centers of a round stock

Make a slight indentation on a workpiece to locate the intersection of center lines

Produce holes in metals

Make starting mark for drill when hole are to be drilled on metal workpieces Ans. D

280. Straightedge is used for _________. Measuring long irregular shape surfaces for accuracy Checking long flat surfaces for accuracy

Testing small and short flat surfaces for accuracy Checking flat and square surfaces for accuracy

Ans. B

281. Clamps are used for ________. Holding small object, bending and shaping wires

Joining two or more workpiece/machine parts temporarily Gripping and locking small parts together

Binding and pressing two or more parts together, holding them firmly in their relative position

Ans. D

282. Pliers are generally used for _________. Holding parts together while they are worked on

Holding and/or positioning material while it is being worked Holding small object and cutting, bending and shaping wire Binding and pressing two or more pieces together

(68)

283. You were tasked to file keyway and other smaller square or rectangular holes with 90 degrees sides. What would do to accomplish the job?

Use any file to finish the job

Select a suitable square file to accomplish the job Get the triangular file to the corners holes

Use a bastard file to accomplish the job. Ans. B

284. You were given the task to scrape an internal curved surface and to remove the sharp edges from curved surfaces and holes. Which type/s of scrapers are you going to use?

Flat scraper, half-round scraper and triangular (three-square) scraper Flat scraper and half-round scraper only

Half round scraper and triangular (three-square) scraper only Half-round scraper only

Ans. D

285. Which statement is NOT true regarding the proper use of chisel employing safety precautions?

Remove any chisel head mushrooming by grinding becomes dangerous Wear any type of eye protection equipment against flying chips

Edges cut on metal with a chisel are sharp and can cause bad cuts. Remove them by grinding or filing

Hold chisel so that if you miss the hammer it will not strike the injure your hand

Ans. B

286. Threading dies are used for cutting __________. Internal threads

Small holes External threads Big holes

Ans. C

287. What will be the most logical thing to do after identifying the hazards in your work place such as the machine shop?

(69)

Control the hazards

Evaluate and eliminate the hazards

Wear personal and protective equipment (PPE) Follow rules and regulations

Ans. B

288. Why is it necessary to wear a pair of safety shoes when performing an electric arc welding operation?

Because it will protect the wearer against slippages

Because it can relied upon for protection against falling objects and floor obstructions

Because the wearer can depend on it against sharp objects

Because it can protect the wearer against excessive heat on the floor area Ans. B

289. “Electric arc” welding means _______.

A welding terminology which means a filler metal and base metal, or base metal only, melting together to form a weld

Simply that the welding is done with an arc between a covered metal electrode and the work

A welding process in which the joint is heated to fusion by a large electric current

To establish an arc for welding and cutting by the use of electrical current Ans. C

290. Which statement is true about the function of an electrode as an essential part of a typical arc welding circuit?

It carries electric current from the power source to melt the parent metal

An essential part through which the current flow s between the electrode holder and the arc

The filler metal used for filling in the gap to fused metal parts together.

The part of an arc welding circuit that is produced by passing an electric between two electrodes separated by a small gap.

Ans. B

291. Carbon or Tungsten welding electrodes which establish the arc and maintain it without being melted are classified as ________ electrodes.

Consumable Non-consumable Coated

References

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