Questions 1-200
1) You have started a hand-made dolls business, ‘Pretty Dolls’ and hire a team to make your dolls. You sign a contract to pay them for their costs and in addition, a considerable amount if they deliver all the dolls before the beginning of the holiday season. The team did deliver the dolls to your satisfaction but their costs went over the initial estimates by 20%. You decide the share the overages with the seller.
This is an example of:
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract C. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract D. Time and Material Contract
2) If for a remodeling project, the estimates are: Optimistic estimate: 2 days
Pessimistic estimate: 6 days Most likely estimate: 4 days
What is the expected duration using the triangular distribution? A. 6 days
B. 2.6 days C. 2 days
D. None of the above
3) Your company plans to install an employee satisfaction tool to gather employee feedback. It has the resources it needs to create the tool in-house. As the project manager, you conduct the make-or-buy analysis. Since the members are assigned to other projects and are unavailable for the employee satisfaction tool creation you decide to buy.
Which of the following are not true about the buy decision? A. You may decide to purchase the tool from outside
B. Leasing the tool from outside is a possible option
C. Support costs of purchasing the tool from outside shouldn’t be included in the buy decision as they are indirect costs
D. You may decide to get an external vendor to create the tool for you
4) When looking for contractors for your home remodeling project, you narrowed your list down to three contractors A, B, and C. You checked online reviews from other customers and felt that A might be suitable for your project. You called and talked to all the contractors and finally decided that B would be the best fit based on the information he provided. Which technique influenced your final decision?
A. Reviewing B. Meetings
C. Expert judgment D. Market research
5) Prospective sellers have submitted bids based on your statement of work. You notice that seller 1 has submitted a bid of $100,000, seller 2 has submitted a bid of $120,000, and seller 3 has submitted a bid of $90,000. However your estimate of costs was $500,000. Which of the below cannot be reasons for this huge difference between seller estimates and your estimate?
A. Procurement statement of work was ambiguous B. Sellers misunderstood buyer’s requirements
D. Bidder conference was effective in answering suppliers’ questions
6) Project manager A prepared the stakeholder management plan and published it on the team’s wiki site. One of the stakeholders who was identified as being resistant to the project came across that information and was upset. Project manager A was not:
A. Aware of the sensitive nature of the stakeholder management plan B. The confidentiality of the stakeholder management plan
C. Taking appropriate precautions regarding distribution of this information
D. Asking stakeholders to sign a non-disclosure agreement before viewing the stakeholder management plan Answer choices: 1. A, B 2. B, C 3. C, D 4. A, C
7) You are a project manager managing a project that automates report creation. Currently, reports are being manually created by analysts. Your project will create a portal where the reports will be automatically created. This has created job insecurity in the analysts and their supervisors who will have to test and approve the reports you create. You identify this concern and have meetings with the analysts and supervisors, explain the benefits the project will bring, show some opportunities where the analysts’ time can be better utilized by supervisors on alternate analyses, and how the supervisors can present more accurate data free from human errors to upper management thereby increasing their reliability. After a few meetings, the analysts and their supervisors like your project and are happy to work with you on making your project successful. Which of the below have you done?
A. Facilitate consensus toward project objectives B. Influence people to support the project
C. Negotiate agreements to satisfy the project needs
D. Modify organizational behavior to accept the project outcomes
8) You are managing a time-sensitive project and getting your deliverables from a supplier. Which of the below is a strategy to manage potential risks to schedule due to supplier delays/failure to deliver?
A. You draft an agreement with the seller detailing implications on him if there’s a delay in delivering products
B. You have a back-up supplier
C. You buy insurance to compensate for overruns due to delay D. In the worst case, you plan to drop the project
Answer choices: 1. A
2. B
3. All of the above 4. None of the above
9) One of your test team members identified a defect and confirmed that a report that was built for one of the customer’s requirements would not conform to stakeholder expectations. Which of the following is false about this failure?
A. It involves an internal failure cost
B. The failure cost is called cost of non conformance C. The failure cost is called cost of poor quality
D. There is no cost associated with a failure identified by the internal project team 10) Car manufacturer ABC manufactured cars which were sold to a lot of customers. Customers soon started complaining that the sun visors didn’t work. ABC promised to fix this under warranty. The cost incurred by ABC is a:
A. Prevention cost B. Appraisal cost C. Internal failure cost D. External failure cost
11) Customers have complained about support quality. You collect data and put together the Pareto chart shown below. Resolving which of the below will solve support quality issues using the Pareto principle?
A. Long wait times, Too many questions before getting to the operator, Impolite customer service rep
B. Long wait times, Incompetency of staff, Too many questions before getting to the operator
C. Impolite customer service rep, Poor communication, Call gets dropped during high traffic times
D. Long wait times, Poor communication, Incompetency of staff
12) During a web application’s load test, the following data was collected at each failure: Time between failure 1 and failure 2=120 seconds
Time between failure 2 and failure 3=90 seconds Time between failure 3 and failure 4=70 seconds What is the Mean time between failures?
A. 120 seconds B. 60 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 70 seconds
A. The process is stable
B. Corrective action should be taken as the process is out of control C. Variations are in the normal range
D. No corrections are needed to the control parameters
214) You are designing a website that sells cooking books. Which of the below would be the best technique to show the navigation between web pages when selecting a book, adding to cart, and placing an order?
A. Storyboard B. Questionnaire C. Benchmarking D. Observation
15) Use the following diagram to answer the question below:
The total float on paths ABCDE and AHIDE is: A. 6d
B. 0d C. -6d
D. Cannot be determined with the information provided
16) You are working with a supplier on a fixed price landscaping contract costing $10,000. Some way through the project, you decide that you really want to add a fountain to your front lawn. Your contractor agrees but says it will cost an additional $500. This is an example of:
A. Fixed price contract
B. Time and materials contract C. Cost reimbursable contract
D. Hybrid contract
17) In the below schedule network diagram, what is the latest finish date for activity A (assume that there are no holidays)?
The diagrams use the below code: ES=Early start EF=Early finish LS=Late start LF=Late finish A. Apr 6 B. Apr 7 C. Apr 10 D. Apr 9
18) Resource A and B are allocated as follows for a 4-day project: A:
Day 1: 16 hours on task 1 Day 2: 8 hours on task 2 Day 3: 8 hours on task 3 Day 4:
B:
Day 1: 8 hours on task 1 Day 2: 16 hours on task 2 Day 3: 8 hours on task 3 Day 4:
A typical work day is 8 hours.
Which of the below can be done to level resources? Choose the best answer.
A. Allocate resource A for 8 hours on day 1 for task 1, for 8 hours on day 2 for task 1, for 8 hours on day 3 for task 2, and for 8 hours on day 4 for task 3
B. Allocate resource B for 8 hours on day 1 for task 1, for 8 hours on day 2 for task 2, for 8 hours on day 3 for task 2, and for 8 hours on day 4 for task 3
C. Keep current resource allocations and offer day 4 off D. Do nothing Answer choices: 1. A and B 2. B 3. A 4. C
19) Your project’s duration needs to be shortened. So you ask your team to work weekends and hire additional resources to help shorten the schedule. This could:
A. Increase risk B. Increase cost
C. Work only for critical path activities D. Level resources Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
20) Using the below information, calculate the EAC forecast for ETC work considering both SPI and CPI factors.
Actual cost=$1000 Earned value=$900
Budget at completion=$1200 Cost performance index=1.2 Schedule performance index=0.9 EAC is:
A. $1000 B. $2944.44 C. $1277.77 D. $700
21) You hire a team to build your website. You offer to pay them for the development, hosting, and other costs they incur for performing the work and in addition, a considerable amount.
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract C. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract D. Time and Material Contract
22) You have started a hand-made greeting card business, PaperGreet and hire a team to create your greeting cards. You sign a contract to pay them for their costs and in addition, a considerable amount if they deliver all the cards before the beginning of the holiday season. This is an example of:
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract C. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract D. Time and Material Contract 23) Risk audits:
A. Are the responsibility of the project manager
B. Are conducted only by project manager and his team C. Can be done during regular project review meetings
D. Examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes
Answer choices: 1. A, B, C 2. B, C, D 3. C, D, A 4. D, A, B
24) You have started a hand-made paper business and hire a team to make paper. You sign a contract to pay them for their costs and in addition, a considerable amount if they deliver all the paper rolls before the beginning of the holiday season. The initial estimate of costs is $5000.
The team did deliver the paper to your satisfaction but their costs went over the initial estimates by 20%. You decide the share the overages with the seller at a pre-determined rate of 70/30.
This is an example of:
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract C. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract D. Time and Material Contract
25) You have started a hand-made paper business and hired a team to make paper. You sign a contract to pay them for their costs and in addition, an additional $1000 if they deliver all the paper rolls before the beginning of the holiday season. The initial estimate of costs is $5000.
The team did deliver the paper to your satisfaction but their costs went over the initial estimates by 20%. You had also included in the contract a provision to the share the
overages with the seller at a pre-determined rate of 70 (buyer)/30 (seller). The final amount you have to pay the seller is:
A. $6000 B. $6700 C. $700 D. $5700
26) You have started a hand-made paper business and hired a team to make paper. You sign a contract to pay them for their costs and in addition, an additional $1000 if they deliver all the paper rolls before the beginning of the holiday season. The initial estimate of costs is $5000.
The team did deliver the paper to your satisfaction but their costs went over the initial estimates by 20%. You had also included in the contract a provision to the share the overages with the seller at a pre-determined rate of 70 (buyer)/30 (seller).
The amount the seller has to bear for the overage is: A. $6000
B. $300 C. $700 D. $5700
27) You sign an agreement with a building contractor to build your house. You will
reimburse all his costs but pay the majority of his fee based on subjective determination of his performance. This is an example of:
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract C. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract D. Time and Material Contract
28) Which of the following is not true about T&M contracts?
A. Combine aspects of cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts B. Used when a precise statement of work cannot be prescribed quickly C. Can increase in contract value as if they were cost reimbursable Contracts D. Unit labor or material rates cannot be preset by the buyer and seller
29) Obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract are done in: A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements C. Control Procurements D. Manage Procurements
30) Your company plans to install an employee satisfaction tool to gather employee
feedback. You as the PM, estimate that there are resources available in-house to create the tool at a cost $20,000. Alternately the tool could be bought outside for $15,000. But your project has a budget of only $5000. You are considering leasing as an option. Which technique are you using?
B. Make-or-buy analysis C. Expert judgment D. Budgeting
31) As a PM working on a contract document for a supplier, you are asking the legal department to review the terms and conditions so any gaps can be addressed. Which technique are you using?
A. Negotiation
B. Make-or-buy analysis C. Expert judgment D. Budgeting
32) When looking for contractors for your home remodeling project, you narrowed your list down to three contractors. You checked online reviews from other customers and finally decided on one of the contractors. Which technique did you use?
A. Reviewing
B. Make-or-buy analysis C. Expert judgment D. Market research
33) Procurement performance reviews, payment systems, and claims administration are tools and techniques for which of the below?
A. Control procurements B. Conduct procurements C. Manage procurements D. Close procurements
34) Which of the below can be guided in the procurement management plan? A. Coordinating procurement with other project aspects, such as scheduling and performance reporting
B. Handling the long lead times to purchase certain items from sellers and coordinating the extra time needed to procure these items with the development of the project schedule C. Handling the make-or-buy decisions and linking them into the Estimate Activity
Resources and Develop Schedule processes
D. Procurement metrics to be used to manage contracts and evaluate sellers
35) As a PM, you prepare a document for your resource vendor that lists the number of resources needed, the work location, and the duration of the contract. Which document are you preparing?
A. Activity resource requirement B. Procurement Statement of work C. Source selection criteria
D. Procurement policy
36) You are managing a road repair project. Budget is set at $100,000 and the supplier decision will be made based on who bids lowest. You prepare a procurement document to
solicit proposals from prospective sellers. Which of the following are alternate names for the procurement document? A. Bid B. Quotation C. Tender D. Proposal Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
37) You are managing a road repair project. Budget is set at $100,000 and the supplier decision will be made based on who bids lowest. You prepare a procurement document to solicit which of the below from prospective sellers (choose the best answer)?
A. Bid B. Quotation C. Tender D. Proposal Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
38) You are managing a road repair project. Budget is set at $100,000 and the supplier decision will be made based on who bids lowest. You prepare a procurement document to solicit proposals from prospective sellers. Which of the following are possible ways to issue the procurement request?
A. Publication of the request in public newspapers B. Publication of the request in trade journals C. Publication of the request in public registries D. Publication of the request on the internet Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
decision will be made based on who bids lowest for the materials and delivery. Four sellers bid for the contract and the materials requested are standard and readily available from all of them.
A. Seller A bids at $80,000 and has a good reputation.
B. Seller B bids at $90,000 and has the best reputation among all bidders. C. Seller C bids at $95,000 and doesn’t have a good reputation.
D. Seller D bids at 77,000 and is a new bidder who has just started his business. Which of the sellers will you select for awarding the contract?
40) Your prospective seller claims that he has always exceeded performance requirements and has had only happy clients in the past. But prior customers that verified the seller’s work experience and compliance with contractual requirements did not provide positive feedback about the seller. Which of the below source selection criteria failed?
A. Warranty
B. Past performance of sellers C. References
D. History
41) You post an ad inviting ghostwriters to apply for your writing project that involves writing a book with your ideas. You want to own copyrights for the book. One of the conditions is that the ghostwriter has to sign a ‘Work for hire’ agreement which states that you will pay the writer for their work but they cannot claim any ownership or copyrights of the work. Out of the writers that applied to your project, only one was willing to sign the ‘Work for hire’ agreement. You are covering which of the following source selection criteria? A. Technical capability
B. Intellectual property rights C. Proprietary rights
D. History
42) As a PM, you are performing make-or-buy analysis on whether to create a software tool in-house or procure it from outside. Which of the below do not influence make-or-buy decisions?
A. Core capabilities of the organization
B. Value delivered by vendors meeting the need C. Cost-free estimating of vendor capability
D. Capability internally compared with the vendor community
43) As a PM of a construction company, you invite prospective sellers to meet with you and address their questions before they submit a bid. You collect questions from the bidders and incorporate responses as amendments to procurement documents. This meeting cannot be called a:
A. Bidder conference B. Verbal conference C. Contractor conference D. Pre-bid conference
44) Which of the following is/are not true about bidder conferences?
A. They are used to conduct open bidding from prospective sellers to ensure buyer gets the best offer
B. They are used to clarify prospective seller questions to ensure common understanding of buyer’s requirements
C. They are meetings between buyer and prospective sellers after submitting a bid D. Each prospective seller’s question is answered by the buyer and kept confidential Answer choices:
1. A, B, D 2. B, C, D 3. A, B, C 4. A, C, D
45) Which of the following is not true about agreements? A. They are informal documents between a buyer and seller B. They are mutually binding
C. They can be simple or complex
D. They may reflect the simplicity of the effort
46) You are conducting procurements for your project. Which of the below tools and techniques can you use? Choose the best answer.
A. You meet with prospective sellers to explain your requirements and answer any questions the sellers may have
B. You ask members of your company’s legal team to evaluate sellers’ proposals
C. Your company has a list of potential sellers. But you post ads online inviting other sellers D. You hire a professional estimator to estimate costs for your statement of work
Answer choices: 1. A
2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
47) A procurement agreement has been prepared that includes terms and conditions and other items that the seller has to provide. Whose responsibility is it to ensure that the agreement meets the needs of the project and abides by the organization’s procurement policies?
A. Project manager B. Seller
C. Project management team D. Buyer and seller
48) A procurement agreement can also be called: A. Understanding
C. Sub contract D. Purchase order Answer choices: 1. A 2. B 3. C
4. All of the above
49) Which of the below is not true about a contract? A. It is a mutually binding legal agreement
B. It is a legal relationship subject to remedy in court
C. Obligates seller to provide specified products and buyer to pay seller D. Final contract language may not reflect all agreements reached
50) A contract has been prepared between your company (seller) and the client that includes the options A-D below. Which of these can the buyer not specify in the contract? A. Payment to you will be made 30 days after you bill the client
B. Your resources will be evaluated every quarter for performance on the project C. Roles and responsibilities for your resources on the project
D. Selection criteria that was used to choose you for award of contract
51) During procurement award, the buyer specifies that any disputes that arise between you and the buyer have to be resolved out of court, using arbitration. You agree. You have been awarded the contract. The arbitration clause gets added to the:
A. Contract
B. Statement of work C. Risk register
D. Independent estimate
52) During procurement award, the buyer specifies that any disputes that arise between you and the buyer have to be resolved using alternative dispute resolution. You agree and have been awarded the contract. Which of the below are examples of not examples of alternative dispute resolution:
A. Conciliation B. Remedy in court C. Arbitration D. Mediation
53) The project management processes that are applied in Control procurements are: A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Control Quality
C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Control Risks
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
54) Which of the following is not true about agreements?
A. Include details on incentives, insurance and performance bonds B. Can be amended prior to contract closure
C. Amendments are captured in writing
D. Can be amended with consent from buyer or seller
55) Which of the following in a contract can be changed by getting an approved change request?
A. Terms and conditions
B. Procurement statement of work C. Pricing
D. Descriptions of the deliverables to be provided Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
56) You are a PM collecting work performance data as part of a contract with a seller. Which of the following will not be part of the data?
A. Statement of work
B. How far the quality standards set have been satisfied C. Costs incurred
D. Finding out which invoices from seller have been paid 57) Which of the below is true about quality and grade?
A. A quality level that fails to meet quality requirements is always a problem, a low grade of quality may not be a problem
B. A quality level that fails to meet quality requirements may not always be a problem, a low grade of quality is always be a problem
C. A quality level that fails to meet quality requirements is always a problem, a low grade of quality is always a problem
D. A quality level that fails to meet quality requirements may not always be a problem, a low grade of quality may not be a problem
58) You spend money on the following activities during the project to avoid failures. Which of these are costs of conformance?
A. Training costs B. Equipment costs
C. Costs associated with the time to build the right product D. Costs associated with documenting the processes 1. A
2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
59) You spend money on the following activities to avoid failures. Which of these are costs of conformance?
A. Training costs B. Equipment costs C. Rework costs
D. Costs for warranty work 1. A
2. A, B 3. A, B, C
4. A, B, C, D
60) Your construction project procures fancy light fixtures from a supplier. Your team performs quality audits and identifies that the fixtures are of poor quality. The contractor has also not complied with a labor requirement that was agreed to in the contract. Which of the below techniques are you using now?
A. Performance Reporting B. Work Performance Data
C. Procurement Performance Review D. Work performance information 61) Contested changes are also called: A. Claims B. Appeals C. Disputes D. Issues Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
62) Claims are preferred to be settled by: A. Negotiation
B. Mediation C. Conciliation D. Legal court
63) Which of the below is not true for early contract terminations? A. Special case of procurement closure
B. Can result from a mutual agreement by both parties C. Can result from the default of one party
D. Can be for convenience of the buyer if provided for in the contract Answer choices:
1. A 2. B 3. C
4. None of the above
64) Which of the below is untrue for Close Procurements?
A. Procurements cannot be closed if there are unresolved claims B. Addresses each contract applicable to the project or a project phase C. Ensures that contractual agreements are completed or terminated D. Involves administrative activities such as finalizing open claims 65) Which is the least desirable option to settle outstanding claims? A. Negotiation
B. Mediation
C. Litigation in court
D. Alternative dispute resolution
66) The process that identifies people that could impact the project, their interdependencies, influence, and impact on project success is:
A. Identify Stakeholders B. Assess Stakeholders C. Stakeholder analysis D. Expert judgment
67) The government has initiated a project to build a dam. The houses in the construction area will be destroyed and the residents relocated. The residents of the area resist this initiative as they will be displaced from their native place. They:
A. Are project stakeholders
B. Are public whose interests will be affected by the execution of the project C. Are team members
D. May exert influence over the project and its deliverables Answer choices:
1. A, B, C 2. A, B, D
3. A, C, D 4. B, C, D
68) Which of the below are stakeholders for a project you will deliver? A. Project sponsor B. Your suppliers C. Customers D. Your organization Answer choices: 1. A, B, C 2. A, B, D 3. A, C, D
4. All of the above
69) Which of the below models is used in stakeholder analysis? Choose the best answer. A. Power/interest grid B. Power/influence grid C. Influence/impact grid D. Salience model Answer choices: 1. A, C 2. B, D
3. None of the above 4. All of the above
70) If one of your stakeholders has high interest in the project and high power, you should: A. Keep satisfied
B. Manage closely C. Keep informed D. Monitor
71) In a power interest grid, which of the below best describes how stakeholders in the lower right quadrant should be managed?
A. Keep satisfied B. Manage closely C. Keep informed D. Monitor
72) Project meetings designed to develop an understanding of major project
stakeholders, to exchange and analyze information about roles, interests, knowledge, and the overall position of each stakeholder facing the project are called:
A. Project team meetings B. Status meetings
D. Stakeholder reviews
73) The main output of the Identify Stakeholders process is: A. Stakeholder register
B. Stakeholders
C. Potential stakeholders D. Stakeholder support
74) Which of the below information about stakeholders will be present in the stakeholder register? A. Name B. Role in project C. Location D. Classification (Supporter/neutral/resistor) Answer choices: 1. A, B, D 2. A, C, D 3. A, B, C
4. All of the above
75) You will be managing a project, the stakeholders of which have already worked on a different project with Project manager A. Which of the below organizational process assets will be helpful to you as inputs in planning stakeholder management?
A. Lessons learned database B. Risk analysis C. Historical information D. Classification (Supporter/neutral/resistor) Answer choices: 1. A, B 2. A, C 3. B, C 4. C, D
76) Which of the below are engagement levels of stakeholders? A. Unaware B. Resistant C. Aware D. Supportive Answer choices: 1. A, B, C 2. A, C, D 3. B, C, D 4. A, B, D
77) If one of your stakeholders has low interest and high power you should: A. Monitor him
B. Keep him satisfied C. Manage him closely D. Keep him informed
78) If one of your stakeholders has low interest and low power you should: A. Monitor him
B. Keep him satisfied C. Manage him closely D. Keep him informed
79) Which of the below are present in stakeholder management plan? A. Scope and impact of change to stakeholders
B. Stakeholder communication requirements for the current project phase
C. Time frame and frequency for the distribution of required information to stakeholders D. Method for updating and refining the stakeholder management plan as the project progresses and develops
Answer choices: 1. A, B, C 2. B, C, D 3. C, D, A 4. A, B, C, D
80) Depending upon the application area, a contract can also be called: A. Agreement B. Understanding C. Subcontract D. Purchase order Answer choices: 1. A 2. B
3. All of the above 4. None of the above
81) Which of the below is not true about activities involved in managing stakeholder engagement?
A. Clarifying and resolving issues that have been identified
B. Addressing potential concerns that have not yet become issues C. Anticipating future problems that may be raised by stakeholders
D. Asking stakeholders to sign a non-disclosure agreement before viewing the stakeholder management plan
82) Which of the below are interpersonal skills that a project manager applies to manage stakeholders’ expectations?
A. Building trust B. Resolving conflict C. Active listening
D. Overcoming resistance to change Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C
4. All of the above
83) Who is responsible to ensure that procurements purchased meet needs of the project? A. Project manager
B. Risk auditor
C. Project management team D. Seller
Answer choices: 1. A
2. B 3. C
4. None of the above
84) The ability of stakeholders to influence the project is highest: A. During the initial stages of the project
B. During the final stages of the project C. Throughout the project
D. During execution phase of the project
85) Which of the below are management skills that a project manager applies to coordinate and harmonize the group toward accomplishing the project objectives?
A. Facilitate consensus toward project objectives B. Influence people to support the project
C. Negotiate agreements to satisfy the project needs
D. Modify organizational behavior to accept the project outcomes Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
86) A web application with many features but no defects is of: A. Low grade and low quality
B. High grade and low quality C. High grade and high quality D. Low grade and high quality
87) The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements is called: A. Quality
B. Grade C. Performance D. Scope
88) As a design intent, a category assigned to deliverables having the same functional use but different technical characteristics is called:
A. Quality B. Grade C. Performance D. Scope
89) In the figure below, the maroon dots are considered:
Note: The black spot represents the target value. A. Precise
B. Accurate
C. Neither precise nor accurate D. Both precise and accurate
90) In the figure below, the blue dots are considered:
Note: The black spot represents the target value. A. Precise
B. Accurate
C. Neither precise nor accurate D. Both precise and accurate
91) Which of the below approaches are examples of Continuous improvement? A. Plan-do-check-act
B. Total Quality Management C. Six Sigma
D. Lean Six Sigma Answer choices: 1. A
2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
92) Which of the below are maturity levels in the Capability Maturity Model Integrated (CMMI®)?
A. Initial, Managed, Defined, Quantitatively Managed, Optimizing B. Initial, Managed, Developed, Quantitatively Managed, Optimizing C. Initiate, Managed, Defined, Quantitatively Managed, Optimizing D. Initial, Managed, Defined, Qualitatively Managed, Optimizing
93) Which of the below are maturity levels in the Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3®)?
A. Standardize, Measure, Control, Continuously improve B. Standardize, Measure, Check, Continuously improve C. Standardize, Manage, Control, Continuously improve D. Standardize, Measure, Control, Continuously optimize
94) In the Deming’s cycle shown below, which of the below values best fits the? ?
A. Initiate B. Prioritize C. Plan
D. Standardize
95) ‘Act’ in Deming’s cycle, belongs to which of the below project management process groups?
A. Planning B. Executing
C. Monitoring and controlling D. Closing
96) Which of the below does Cost of Quality not include?
A. Costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements
B. Costs of appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements C. Costs of failing to meet requirements (rework)
D. Cost of the quality step to the expected benefit
97) Depending on the application area, the seller may be identified as which of the below? A. contractor B. Subcontractor C. Vendor D. Service provider Answer choices: 1. A 2. B
3. All of the above 4. None of the above
98) Which of the below are costs of conformance? A. Prevention costs
B. Appraisal costs C. Internal failure costs D. External failure costs Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
99) Depending on the buyer’s position in the project acquisition cycle, the buyer may be called which of the below?
A. Client B. Service requestor C. Prime contractor D. Acquiring organization Answer choices: 1. A 2. B
3. All of the above 4. None of the above
100) In the SIPOC model, SIPOC stands for: A. Supplier, Input, Process, Output, Customer B. Stakeholder, Input, Process, Output, Customer C. Supplier, Input, Process, Optimize, Customer D. Supplier, Input, Process, Output, Customize
101) Which of the below are part of the seven basic quality tools (7QC)? A. Fishbone diagrams B. Flowcharts C. Pareto diagrams D. Checksheets Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
102) You are trying to decide whether a product should be developed in-house or purchased from outside. You will do this in which of the below phases?
A. Plan Procurement management B. Conduct Procurements C. Independent estimates D. Proposal Evaluation Answer choices: 1. A 2. B
3. All of the above 4. None of the above
103) The control chart below indicates that:
A. The process is stable
B. Corrective action should be taken as the process is out of control C. Variations are in the normal range
D. No corrections are needed to the control parameters 104) The control chart below indicates that:
A. The process is stable
B. Corrective action should be taken as the process is out of control C. Variations are in the normal range
D. No corrections are needed to the control parameters
105) You are managing a landscaping project. You have received bids from multiple agencies. Which of the below will you use to determine which bids are reasonable? A. Agency’s timelines
B. Activity cost estimates C. Contracts
D. Agency reputation
106) Which of the following are not true about scatter diagrams? A. They are also called correlation charts
B. They seek to explain a change in the independent variable, in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding dependent variable
C. If correlation can be established between the dependent and independent variable, a regression line can be calculated
D. A pattern of correlation may not exist between the variables 107) Which of the following is not true about Design of Experiments?
A. It is used to reduce the sensitivity of product performance to sources of variations caused by environmental or manufacturing differences
B. It provides a statistical framework for systematically changing each of the important factors, rather than changing all the factors one at a time
C. It plays a role in optimizing products or processes
D. Analysis of the experimental data should provide the optimal conditions for the product or process, highlight the factors that influence the results, and reveal the presence of interactions and synergy among the factors
108) 100 light bulbs were chosen from a lot of 10,000 and were tested for life expectancy and two were found defective. This technique of quality planning is called:
A. Design of experiments B. Force field analysis C. Statistical sampling D. Pareto diagram
109) Architects and engineers can use which of the following techniques to determine which combination of aesthetics and usability will produce the most liveable home at reasonable cost?
A. Design of experiments B. Force field analysis C. Statistical sampling D. Pareto diagram
110) You are developing a reporting system for your stakeholders sourcing finance data. Given the need for accuracy, the stakeholders have mentioned that they want your reporting system to reconcile with the source systems’ finance data (revenue $) with an allowable variation of +/-0.05%. 0.05% is the:
A. Defect frequency B. Tolerance
C. Measurement D. Quality metric
111) The below diagram is called:
A. Force field analysis B. Affinity diagram
C. Process decision program charts D. Tree diagrams
112) Which of the below are not true of quality audits?
A. They can confirm the implementation of approved change requests
B. They can proactively offer assistance in a positive manner to improve implementation of processes to help the team raise productivity
C. They may be scheduled or random
D. They may be conducted by only internal auditors
113) As part of your dam construction project you plan to resource some of the work externally. These components of work can be found in (choose the best answer): A. RBS
B. WBS
C. Project management plan D. Project scope statement
Answer choices: 1. A
2. B
3. All of the above 4. None of the above
114) Which of the following are not true about inspections? A. They can be called peer reviews or walkthroughs
B. They are about keeping errors out of the hands of the customer C. They cannot be done to validate defect repairs
D. The results of an inspection generally include measurements and may be conducted at a single activity or final product level
115) Develop Project Charter has the following benefits (Choose the best answer): A. Well-defined project start
B. Well-defined project boundaries
C. Creation of a formal record of the project
D. Direct way for senior management to formally accept and commit to the project Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
116) Which of the following is not true about a project charter? A. Used to establish internal agreements within an organization B. Once approved, formally initiates the project
C. Should be authored by the buying entity
D. Provides the project manager with the authority to plan and execute the project 117) Who from the below does not initiate a project?
A. Project Manager B. Sponsor
C. Project management office staff D. Portfolio governing body chairperson
118) Which of the below is not present in a project statement of work (SOW)? A. Business need
B. Product scope description C. Strategic plan
D. Request for proposal
119) Which of the below is/are true about tolerance? A. Is an allowable variation to a metric
B. Is a project attribute
C. Is the same as measurement D. Can be expressed as a percentage Answer choices:
1. A, B 2. B, C 3. A, D 4. C, D
120) An organization’s business needs can be based on which of the below? A. Market demand B. Ecological impacts C. Legal requirement D. Social need Answer choices: 1. A, B, D 2. B, D, A
3. None of the above 4. All of the above
121) Which of the below are true about deliverables?
A. A unique and verifiable product that is required to be produced to complete a process B. Tangible components completed to meet the project objectives
C. Can include elements of the project management plan
D. Capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a phase Answer choices:
1. A 2. B 3. C
4. All of the above
122) Which of the below are examples of work performance data? A. Work completed
B. Key performance indicators C. Actual costs
D. Number of change requests Answer choices:
1. A 2. B 3. C
323) Which of the below could change requests include? A. Corrective action B. Preventive action C. Defect repair D. Updates Answer choices: 1. A 2. B 3. C
4. All of the above
124) Which of the below is true about requests for change? A. They cannot be indirect
B. They cannot be internally initiated C. They can be contractually mandated D. They can only be optional
125) Which of the below are functions of the change control board? A. Review change requests
B. Record change decisions C. Delay change requests D. Evaluate change requests Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
126) Identification and selection of a configuration item to provide the basis forwhich the product configuration is defined and verified, labeling products and documents, managing changes, and maintaining accountability are all part of which of the below?
A. Configuration audit
B. Configuration status accounting C. Configuration identification D. Configuration verification
127) Recording and reporting a list of approved configuration identification, status of
proposed changes to the configuration, and the implementation status of approved changes is done as part of which of the below?
A. Configuration audit
B. Configuration status accounting C. Configuration identification D. Configuration verification
128) Ensuring that the composition of a project’s configuration items is correct and that corresponding changes are registered, assessed, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented is done as part of which of the below?
A. Configuration setup
B. Configuration status accounting C. Configuration identification
D. Configuration verification and audit
129) Which of the below is true about project scope and product scope? Choose the best answer.
A. Completion of the project scope is measured against the project management plan while completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements
B. Product scope comprises the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result while project scope comprises the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions
C. Project scope is sometimes viewed as including product scope
D. Work of the project should result in delivery of the specified product scope Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
130) Which of the below is not a component of the Project scope management plan? A. Process that establishes how the WBS will be maintained and approved
B. Process to control how requests for changes to the detailed project scope statement will be processed
C. Process that specifies how formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained
D. Process for communicating scope to stakeholders
131) Which of the below are components of the requirements management plan? A. Requirements prioritization process
B. Product metrics C. Traceability structure
D. Details on how requirements activities will be planned Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
132) Which of the below is not true of requirements? A. They include capabilities to be met by the project
B. They need not be the foundation of the WBS C. They include the documented needs of the sponsor
D. They should be recorded in enough detail to be included in the scope baseline 133) Which of the below is not a valid requirement classification?
A. Business requirements B. Solution requirements C. Transition requirements D. Transactional requirements
134) Your project creates reports for your business users to run on a daily basis. The reports take too long to load and don’t satisfy the performance requirement. Which of the following requirement classifications does performance requirement fall under?
A. Quality requirements B. Solution requirements C. Transition requirements D. Project requirements
135) Your project creates reports for your business users to run on a daily basis. The reports take too long to load and don’t satisfy the performance requirement. Which of the following requirement classifications does performance requirement fall under?
A. Quality requirements
B. Non-functional requirements C. Transition requirements D. Project requirements
136) Your project creates reports for your business users to run on a daily basis. The reports should display data according to the profile of the user logged in. This security requirement should be captured as a?
A. Quality requirement
B. Non-functional requirement C. Transition requirement D. Project requirement
137) Which of the below is not a tool/technique to collect requirements? A. Interview
B. Delphi
C. Facilitated workshop D. Focus group
138) Joint application design/development (JAD) session used in the software industry is an example of:
A. Interview B. Delphi
C. Facilitated workshop D. Focus group
139) Quality function deployment (QFD) used in the manufacturing industry is an example of: A. Interview B. Delphi C. Facilitated workshop D. Focus group
140) Short, textual descriptions of required functionality developed during a requirements workshop are called:
A. User stories B. User requirements C. Meeting notes D. Interviews
141) Which of the below is not true about user stories?
A. They describe the stakeholder who benefits from the feature B. They describe what the stakeholder needs to accomplish C. They describe the benefit to the stakeholder
D. They are widely used with waterfall method
142) Which of the below is/are true about facilitated workshops? A. Help reconcile stakeholder differences
B. Improve communication between participants C. Help discover issues earlier
D. Might take longer to define cross-functional requirements Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C
4. All of the above
143) A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization is:
A. Nominal group technique B. Brainstorming
C. Affinity diagram D. Idea/mind mapping
144) Which of the below methods is used in reaching a group decision when using the Delphi technique?
A. Unanimity B. Majority C. Plurality D. Dictatorship
145) Which of the following tools and techniques to collect requirements is most effective when audiences are varied, geographically dispersed, and where statistical analysis is appropriate?
A. Workshops
B. Questionnaires and Surveys C. Interviews
D. Focus groups
146) For your project, you have decided to build a working model of the final product and revise it based on feedback from stakeholders. The tool/technique you are using is: A. Storyboard
B. Prototype C. Benchmarking D. Observation
147) You are planning to acquire resources from a vendor for your software project. Which of the below are enterprise environmental factors that can affect the planning?
A. Marketplace conditions
B. There are only few resources who are experts in the technology you plan to implement C. Suppliers D. Recent lay-offs Answer choices: 1. A, C, D 2. A, B, C 3. C, D, A 4. D, B, A
148) You prepare a grid to map requirements to the deliverables adding project objectives, owner, priority, requirement description, etc. You are preparing the:
A. Storyboard B. Prototype
C. Requirement traceability matrix D. Mapping document
149) Which of the below will not be in the project scope statement? A. Description of what is in the scope of the project
B. Description of what is not in the scope of the project C. Acceptance criteria
D. Risks
150) You have prepared a WBS but the total of the work at the lowest levels doesn’t roll up correctly to the higher levels. Which of the below rules haven’t been followed?
A. 100 percent rule B. Rule of sums
C. Net sum rule D. Total work rule
151) You are a new PM who has been assigned a project. You are trying to plan out the schedule for the project and seek help from other members who have been with the company for a long time and have worked on similar projects in the past. This tool/technique is called:
A. Expert judgment B. Historical information C. Meetings
D. Analytical estimation
152) Which of the following is not true about milestones? A. A milestone is a significant point or event in a project B. Milestones can be mandatory or optional
C. Milestones are similar to regular schedule activities with the same structure and attributes
D. Milestones have finite duration during which the activity is performed 153) Which of the below is not true about mandatory dependencies?
A. Mandatory dependencies are those that are legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work
B. Mandatory dependencies often involve physical limitations
C. Mandatory dependencies are also sometimes referred to as hard logic or hard dependencies
D. Technical dependencies are always mandatory
154) Which of the below is not true about discretionary dependencies?
A. The project team determines which dependencies are discretionary during the process of sequencing the activities
B. Discretionary dependencies are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area
C. Discretionary dependencies are also referred to as soft logic or preferential logic D. Discretionary dependencies should be partially documented since they can create arbitrary total float values and can limit later scheduling options
155) During activity sequencing, you determine that your quality assurance team cannot test code until your development team completes development. This is:
A. A Mandatory dependency B. A Discretionary dependency
C. An internal mandatory dependency D. An internal dependency
156) Which of the below is not true about project schedule network diagrams? A. It is a graphical representation of the logical relationships, also referred to as dependencies, among the project schedule activities
B. It is produced manually or by using project management software C. It can include full project details
D. It can have only one summary activity
157) Which of the below will not be present in a resource calendar? A. Working days and shifts on which each specific resource is available B. When identified project resources will be available during the project C. Staffing policies
D. How long identified project resources will be available during the project 158) Which of the below is not an example of a resource category?
A. Labor B. Equipment C. Material D. Skill level
159) You have to estimate the duration of the design activity for your project. You know that 20 drawings have to be created and it will take the architect 10 hours per drawing. You estimate that the design activity will take 200 hours. This is an example of:
A. Parametric estimating B. Analogous estimating C. Three-point estimating D. Decision making
160) If for a remodeling project, the estimates are: Optimistic estimate: 2 days
Pessimistic estimate: 6 days Most likely estimate: 4 days
What is the expected duration using the triangular distribution? A. 6 days
B. 4 days C. 2 days
D. Cannot be determined with the data provided
161) You manage a software project for a company that utilizes vendors to provide
consultants. Your project deliverables are accepted by another company. Which of the below best describes your company:
A. Buyer B. Seller
C. Buyer and Seller D. Procurer
162) If for a remodeling project, the estimates are: Optimistic estimate: 2 days
Pessimistic estimate: 6 days
A. 6 days B. 4 days C. 2 days
D. Cannot be determined with the data provided 163) If for a remodeling project, the estimates are: Optimistic estimate: 2 days
Pessimistic estimate: 6 days Most likely estimate: 4 days
What is the expected duration using the beta distribution? A. 6 days
B. 4 days C. 2 days
D. None of the above
164) If for a remodeling project, the estimates are: Optimistic estimate: 2 days
Pessimistic estimate: 6 days Most likely estimate: 4 days
What is the expected duration using the beta distribution? A. 6 days
B. 3 days C. 2 days
D. None of the above
165) If for a remodeling project, the estimates are: Optimistic estimate: 2 days
Pessimistic estimate: 6 days
What is the expected duration using the beta distribution? A. 6 days
B. 3 days C. 2 days
D. Cannot be determined with the information provided
166) Use the following diagram to answer the question below:
The project’s critical path is: A. ABCDE
C. AHIDE
D. Cannot be determined with the information provided
167) Use the following diagram to answer the question below:
The project’s critical path is: A. ABCDE and AHIDE
B. AFGCDE
C. AFGCDE and AHIDE
D. Cannot be determined with the information provided
168) You are planning to acquire resources from a vendor for your software project. Your company has a list of preferred vendors that they always send their requirements to and get resources from. This list is an example of:
A. Enterprise environmental factor B. Formal policy
C. Organizational process asset D. Seller preference
169) Use forward pass calculation for the following diagrams to answer the question below (assume that there are no holidays).
The diagrams use the below code:
ES=Early start EF=Early finish LS=Late start LF=Late finish
The early start for activity D is: A. Mar 9
B. Mar 8 C. Mar 10 D. Mar 11
170) In the following diagram, early start date is denoted in the left top corner and early finish date is denoted in the top right corner.
no holidays): A. Mar 6 B. Mar 3 C. Mar 7 D. Mar 8
171) In the below schedule network diagram, what is the latest start date for activity C (assume that there are no holidays)?
The diagrams use the below code: ES=Early start EF=Early finish LS=Late start LF=Late finish A. Apr 9 B. Apr 7 C. Apr 10 D. Apr 11
that should be used in building the house. The contractor’s men aren’t showing up to work regularly and the work is delayed resulting in increased costs. But he still has to complete the building by the date you specified in the contract. This is an example of (Choose the best answer):
A. Fixed price contract B. Firm Fixed Price Contract
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract
173) The scheduling methods that uses buffers to account for limited resources and project uncertainty is:
A. Critical path method B. Critical chain method C. Buffering method D. Resource optimization
174) In the critical chain method, the buffer placed at the end of the critical chain is called: A. Feedback buffer
B. Critical chain buffer C. Project buffer D. Resource buffer
175) In the critical chain method, the buffer placed at each point where a chain of
dependent activities that are not on the critical chain feeds into the critical chain is called: A. Feeding buffer
B. Non-critical chain buffer C. Project buffer
D. Resource buffer
176) Which of the following is not true about resource leveling?
A. It is a technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints with the goal of balancing demand for resources with the available supply B. It can be used when shared or critically required resources are only available at certain times, or in limited quantities
C. It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level D. It cannot cause the original critical path to increase
177) You sign a contract with your building contractor and specify the types of materials that should be used in building the house. If the contractor can complete the building before holiday season, you promise him a bonus. This is an example of (Choose the best answer): A. Fixed price contract
B. Firm Fixed Price Contract
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract
A. It is a technique that adjusts the activities of a schedule model such that the
requirements for resources on the project do not exceed certain predefined resource limits B. The project’s critical path is not changed
C. The completion date may not be delayed
D. Resource smoothing fully optimizes all resources
179) Your project’s duration needs to be shortened. The quality assurance cycle that is usually done after development is complete is now planned to be partly done in parallel with development to help shorten the duration. This is called:
A. Fast tracking B. Crashing
C. Resource leveling D. Resource smoothing
180) Your project’s duration needs to be shortened. So you ask your team to work weekends and hire additional resources to help shorten the schedule. This is called: A. Fast tracking
B. Crashing
C. Resource leveling D. Resource smoothing
181) Your project is to construct a huge shopping mall at the city center. It is a three year long project and you want to sign a contract that allows final price adjustments to account for inflation and changes in materials and labor costs over three years. This is an example of (Choose the best answer):
A. Fixed price contract B. Firm Fixed Price Contract
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract 182) Which of the below is true about schedule baseline?
A. It is an approved version of a schedule model that can be changed only through informal change control procedures
B. Used as a basis for comparison to planned results
C. During monitoring and controlling, the approved baseline dates are compared to the planned start and finish dates to determine whether variances have occurred
D. It is a part of the project management plan
183) As a project manager, you prepare a schedule presentation for your management. The presentation shows high-level timelines and is in a summary form. The schedule is called: A. Master schedule
B. Milestone schedule C. Detail schedule
D. Project time management plan Answer choices:
1. A 2. B
3. Both A and B 4. Neither A nor B
184) Which of the below are examples of project schedule network diagrams? A. Pure logic diagram
B. Logic bar chart
C. Time-scaled logic diagram D. Milestone chart Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
185) You present your project status to management every Wednesday morning. Your presentation states that the status of the project is green as of mm/dd/yyyy. In this case, mm/dd/yyyy is the: A. Status date B. As-of date C. Presentation date D. Recording date Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
186) Which of the below must schedule data include? A. Schedule milestones
B. Schedule activities C. Activity attributes
D. Documentation of all identified assumptions and constraints Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
187) When planning your project’s cost, you are referring to the published commercial information guidelines for resource cost per hour. This is an:
A. Enterprise environmental factor B. Organizational process asset C. Financial database
D. Cost-estimating procedure
188) Which of the below is true about the accuracy of a project’s estimate? A. It increases as the project progresses through its life cycle
B. It decreases as the project moves forward C. It remains the same
D. It can increase or decrease depending on other factors that influence costs 189) Which of the following is not true about analogous cost estimating?
A. It is a gross value estimating approach
B. It is used to estimate a value when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project
C. It uses historical information and expert judgment
D. It relies on the actual cost of the current project as the basis to estimate previous, similar projects
190) Which of the below are required for analogous estimating to be accurate? Choose the best answer.
A. Previous projects should be similar to current project in fact
B. Project members preparing the estimate should have the required expertise C. Estimating should be done early in the project
D. Known differences in project complexity should not be accounted for Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
191) Which of the below include supporting details for activity cost estimates? A. Documentation about how the estimate was arrived at
B. Documentation of assumptions and constraints C. Indication of the range of possible estimates
D. Indication of the confidence level of the final estimate Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
192) Which of the below does project cost control not include? A. Ensuring that all change requests are acted on in a timely manner
B. Preventing unapproved changes from being included in the reported cost or resource usage
C. Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated cost D. Bringing expected cost overruns within acceptable limits
Answer choices: 1. All of the above 2. None of the above 3. A
4. B
193) Using the below information, calculate the EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the budgeted rate. Actual cost: $1000 Earned value=$900 Budget at completion=$1200 EAC is: A. $1000
B. $1300 C. $1200 D. $700
194) Using the below information, calculate the EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the present CPI.
Cost performance index=1.2 Budget at completion=$1200 EAC is: A. $100 B. $1000 C. $1200 D. $700
195) You hire a consultant to help with network setup and security for your online business. Your site has just launched and you don’t know how much your business will grow, how much the traffic will be, and how much if any, maintenance work is needed. You ask the consultant to log the hours he works per month and offer to pay him for the number of hours he has worked based on a fixed amount per hour. This is an example of:
A. Fixed price contract
B. Time and materials contract C. Cost reimbursable contract D. Hybrid contract
196) Which of the below is/are true about tolerance? A. Is an allowable variation to a metric
B. Is a project attribute
C. Is the same as measurement D. Can be expressed as a percentage 1. A, B
2. B, C 3. A, D 4. C, D
197) Which of the below is not true about program management?
A. Program managers monitor the progress of program components to ensure the overall goals, schedules, budget, and benefits of the program will be met
B. Program managers develop the overall program plan and create high-level plans to guide detailed planning at the component level
C. Programs have a larger scope and provide more significant benefits
D. Program managers manage the project staff and the project managers; they provide vision and overall leadership
198) Which of the below is not true about project management?
A. Projects have defined objectives. Scope is progressively elaborated throughout the project life cycle
B. Project managers expect change and implement processes to keep change managed and controlled
C. Project managers monitor the progress of program components to ensure the overall goals, schedules, budget,
and benefits of the program will be met
D. Success is measured by product and project quality, timeliness, budget compliance, and degree of customer satisfaction
199) Which of the below is not true about portfolio management?
A. Portfolios have an organizational scope that changes with the strategic objectives of the organization
B. Portfolio managers create and maintain necessary processes and communication relative to the aggregate portfolio
C. Portfolio managers may manage or coordinate portfolio management staff, or program and project staff that may have reporting responsibilities into the aggregate portfolio D. Portfolio managers monitor strategic changes and aggregate resource allocation, performance results, and risk of the program
200) Which of the below is not true of a project? A. A project need not be part of a program
B. Projects within a program may not be related through the common outcome or collective capability
C. Success is measured by product and project quality, timeliness, budget compliance, and degree of customer satisfaction
D. Projects have defined objectives. Scope is progressively elaborated throughout the project life cycle
181) Your project is to construct a huge shopping mall at the city center. It is a three year long project and you want to sign a contract that allows final price adjustments to account for inflation and changes in materials and labor costs over three years. This is an example of (Choose the best answer):
A. Fixed price contract B. Firm Fixed Price Contract
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract 182) Which of the below is true about schedule baseline?
A. It is an approved version of a schedule model that can be changed only through informal change control procedures
B. Used as a basis for comparison to planned results
C. During monitoring and controlling, the approved baseline dates are compared to the planned start and finish dates to determine whether variances have occurred
D. It is a part of the project management plan
183) As a project manager, you prepare a schedule presentation for your management. The presentation shows high-level timelines and is in a summary form. The schedule is called: A. Master schedule
B. Milestone schedule C. Detail schedule
D. Project time management plan Answer choices: 1. A 2. B 3. Both A and B 4. Neither A nor B
184) Which of the below are examples of project schedule network diagrams? A. Pure logic diagram
B. Logic bar chart
C. Time-scaled logic diagram D. Milestone chart Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
185) You present your project status to management every Wednesday morning. Your presentation states that the status of the project is green as of mm/dd/yyyy. In this case, mm/dd/yyyy is the: A. Status date B. As-of date C. Presentation date D. Recording date Answer choices: 1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
186) Which of the below must schedule data include? A. Schedule milestones
B. Schedule activities C. Activity attributes
D. Documentation of all identified assumptions and constraints Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
187) When planning your project’s cost, you are referring to the published commercial information guidelines for resource cost per hour. This is an:
A. Enterprise environmental factor B. Organizational process asset C. Financial database
188) Which of the below is true about the accuracy of a project’s estimate? A. It increases as the project progresses through its life cycle
B. It decreases as the project moves forward C. It remains the same
D. It can increase or decrease depending on other factors that influence costs 189) Which of the following is not true about analogous cost estimating? A. It is a gross value estimating approach
B. It is used to estimate a value when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project
C. It uses historical information and expert judgment
D. It relies on the actual cost of the current project as the basis to estimate previous, similar projects
190) Which of the below are required for analogous estimating to be accurate? Choose the best answer.
A. Previous projects should be similar to current project in fact
B. Project members preparing the estimate should have the required expertise C. Estimating should be done early in the project
D. Known differences in project complexity should not be accounted for Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
191) Which of the below include supporting details for activity cost estimates? A. Documentation about how the estimate was arrived at
B. Documentation of assumptions and constraints C. Indication of the range of possible estimates
D. Indication of the confidence level of the final estimate Answer choices:
1. A 2. A, B 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
192) Which of the below does project cost control not include? A. Ensuring that all change requests are acted on in a timely manner
B. Preventing unapproved changes from being included in the reported cost or resource usage
C. Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated cost D. Bringing expected cost overruns within acceptable limits
Answer choices: 1. All of the above 2. None of the above 3. A
4. B
