Class 10 Nso 5 Years e Book14

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(1)o eb. ok NATIONAL SCIENCE OLYMPIAD. 5 10. (2009-2013) Including Set A and Set B of Year 2012 and 2013.

(2) Copyright © 2014 Science Olympiad Foundation. Printed with the permision of Science Olympiad Foundation. No part of this publication may be reproduced, transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior permission of the copyright holder. Ownership of an ebook does not give the possessor the ebook copyright. All disputes subject to Delhi jurisdiction only.. Disclaimer : The information in this book is to give you the path to success but it does not guarantee 100% success as the strategy is completely dependent on its execution. And it is based on last years papers of NSO exam.. Published by : MTG Learning Media (P) Ltd. Corporate Office : Plot 99, 2nd Floor, Sector 44 Institutional Area, Gurgaon, Haryana. Phone : 0124 - 4951200 Web: mtg.in Email: info@mtg.in Regd. Office : 406, Taj Apt., Ring Road, Near Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi-110029.

(3) CLASS 10. Contents ªª 12th NSO 2009 ªª 13th NSO 2010 ªª 14th NSO 2011 ªª 15th NSO 2012 - SET A ªª 15th NSO 2012 - SET B ªª 16th NSO 2013 - SET A ªª 16th NSO 2013 - SET B.

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(9) Class. 1 to 10.

(10) JEE Main & Advamced | AIPMT | BOARDS | OLYMPIAD | NTSE. FoUNdaTioN CoUrsE For Classes 8, 9 & 10 Class 8. Class 9. Class 10.

(11) Class 10 12th. Year 2009.

(12) CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009. MENTAL ABILITY 1. . The sides of a regular hexagon of length 2 cm are extended. The alternate sides meet in 6 new points. The area of the starshaped region so obtained is______ (A) 12 3 cm 2 . (B) 6 2 cm 2 . (D) 12 2 cm 2 . (C) 6 3 cm 2 . 2. . Find the number of triplets of integers in arithmetic progression, the sum of whose squares is 1994. (A) 36 (B) 45 (C) 12 (D) Does not exist . 3. . In right angled triangle ABC, BC = 5, AC = 12, and AM = x; MN ^ AC, NP ^ BC; N is on AB. If y = MN + NP , then . B N A . (A) y = 4. . 5. . 1 2 . (5x + 12) . (B) y =. 5 x 12 + 12 5 . (C) y =. 144 - 7 x 12 . (B) 4 cm . (C) 5 cm . (D) 3 cm . C . M . (D) y = 12x E . Four parallel lines are cut by two transversals t 1 and t 2 as shown in the given figure. If AB = 2 cm, EF = 3 cm and CD = 2 cm, then length of GH is _____ . (A) 2 cm . P . A F B G . C D t 1 . H t 2 . Which one of the following is correct ? (A) {( 3 7 + 7 3 )( 3 7 + 7 3 - 2)} - 24 = ( 3 7 + 7 3 + 4)( 3 7 + 7 3 - 6) 3 7 3 7 (B) {( 7 + 3 )( 7 + 3 + 2)} + 24 = ( 3 7 + 7 3 + 4)( 3 7 + 7 3 - 6) 3 3 (C) {( 3 7 + 7 3 )( 3 7 + 7 3 + 2)} - 24 = ( 7 + 7 3 - 4)( 7 + 7 3 - 6) 3 3 3 3 7 7 7 7 (D) {( 7 + 3 )( 7 + 3 - 2)} + 24 = ( 7 + 3 - 4)( 7 + 3 + 6). 6. . O is the centre of a circle of diameter 4 cm and OABC is a square. If the 1 shaded area is area of the square, then the side of the square is______ 3 (B) 3p cm (A) p 3 cm (C) 3 p cm . 7. . 8. . 9. . (D) 3p cm . This table shows the relationship between area (a) and width (w) for rectangles that have perimeter of 40 centimetres. Which algebraic equation correctly describes this relationship? . A . O . B . C Area (a ) (cm) 2 Width (w ) (cm) 75 96 . 5 8 . 100 . 10 . (A) a = 15 w . (B) a = 10 w + 25 . 96 . 12 . (C) a = 20 w – w 2 . (D) a = 100 – w 2 . 75 . 15 . Babul visits Japan and Australia on his vacation. The exchange rates between United States dollars and the currencies of the countries he is visiting are shown in the adjoining figure. When he arrives in Australia, he still has 10,500 Japanese yen. How much is this worth in Australian dollars ? (A) 64.72 Australian dollars . (B) 99.53 Australian dollars . (C) 162.23 Australian dollars . (D) 171.97 Australian dollars . The table shown here contains coordinates for two endpoints of a circle's diameter. Which of these points is the centre of the circle? (A) (2, 0) . 12 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 . (B) (6, 5) . (C) (1, 5) 2 . (D) (0, 5). x y 2 5 – 2 5 .

(13) CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009. Sara's Sales 1 2 3 Week Sales Rs. 1920 Rs. 1680 Rs. 3360 . 10. At an electronics store, Sara earns a 5% commission on her sales. The table here shows her sales for four weeks. . 4 Rs. 2640 . What was Sara's total commission for these four weeks? (A) Rs. 12 . (B) Rs. 40 . (C) Rs. 120 . 11. The table shown here contains pricing information for the chopper (a kitchen tool) that is advertised on television. The price depends on how soon a customer calls after the end of the advertisement. . Minutes (m ) after television advertisement ends . Approximately, how much more would a customer who orders 3 choppers, 23 minutes after the end of the television advertisement pay than a customer who orders 2 choppers, 17 minutes after the advertisement ? (A) Rs. 15 . (B) Rs. 35 . (D) Rs. 480 . 0 £ m £ 10 10 < m £ 20 20 < m £ 30 30 < m £ 40 m > 40 . (C) Rs. 40 . Price per chopper (in Rs.) 34.95 39.95 44.95 49.95 59.95 . (D) Rs. 55 . 12. Hospital A has 360 beds, 30 of which are for criticalcare patients. Hospital B is smaller with only 164 beds, 14 of which are for criticalcare patients. Which of these following statements correctly compares the percentage of criticalcare beds at the two hospitals? (A) Hospital A at 8.3% has a greater percent of criticalcare beds than Hospital B (B) Hospital A at 12.0% has a greater percent of criticalcare beds than Hospital B (C) Hospital B at 8.5% has a greater percent of criticalcare beds than Hospital A (D) Hospital B at 11.7% has a greater percent of criticalcare beds than Hospital A 13. How many trapeziums will be needed to make the 20 th ornament in the sequence illustrated in the adjoining figure? . The first ornament takes 6 trapeziums . The second ornament takes 10 trapeziums . (A) 82 trapeziums The third ornament takes 14 trapeziums . (B) 80 trapeziums (C) 78 trapeziums . The fourth ornament takes 18 trapeziums . (D) 86 trapeziums 14. Which one of the following pairs of point coordinates falls on the same vertical line? (A) Points L (6, 5) and M (5, 6) (B) Points P (5, 8) and S (4, 8) (C) Points X (6, 9) and Y (9, 6) . (D) Points T (5, 7) and R (5, 8) . 15. Three boys agree to divide a bag of marbles in the following manner. The first boy takes one more than half the marbles. The second takes a third of the number remaining. The third boy finds that he is left with twice as many marbles as the second boy. Find the original number of marbles ? (A) 8 or 38 (B) Cannot be determined from the given data (C) 20 or 26 (D) 14 or 32 . SCIENCE 16. You  hold a plane mirror 1.0 m in front of your eyes and are able to see a 15 m high tree behind you. If the mirror is 20.0 cm high, and the tree image completely fills the mirror, how far are you standing from the tree ? (A) 50 m (B) 75 m (C) 100 m (D) 25 m 17. Which of the following phenomena cannot be explained by scattering of light ? (A) Blue colour of sky (B) White colour of clouds (C) Tyndall effect (D) Formation of rainbow 3 . 12 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 .

(14) CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009. 18. For ensuring dissipation of same energy in all three resistors (R 1, R 2 , R 3 ) connected as shown in figure, their values must be related as ______ (A) R 1 = R 2 = R 3 (B) R 2 = R 3 & R 1 = 4R 2 1 (C) R2 = R3 & R1 = R 2 (D) R 1 = R 2 + R 3 4. R 1 2W V in . 19. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will _____ (A) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire (B) Move away from the wire or towards right (C) Move towards the wire (D) Remain stationary 20. Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at an angle 30° at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray undergoes reflections (including the first one) before it emerges out is _____ (A) 30 (B) 31 (C) 32 (D) 34 . (B) 1.5 V . (C) 2 V . (D) 3 V . R 3 . i . Q . P . l i . R . S . 2 3 m B 30° . 0.2 m A . 3W. 4W. 21. The potential drop across the 3 W resistor is______ (A) 1 V . R 2 . 6W 3V . 22. Coal, petroleum, natural gas, and propane are fossil fuels. They are called fossil fuels because______ (A) They are burnt to release energy and they cause air pollution (B) They were formed from the buried remains of plants and tiny animals that lived hundreds of millions of years ago (C) They are nonrenewable and will run out (D) They are mixed with fossils to provide energy 23. The current flowing through a resistor connected in an electrical circuit and the potential difference developed across its ends are shown in the given diagrams. . mA . 100. 0 . V . 200. 1 . . 300 . 0 . 2 3 . The value of resistance of the resistor in ohms is _____ (A) 25 . (B) 20 . (C) 15 . (D) 10 . 24. When a plane mirror is placed horizontally on level ground at a distance of 60 metres from the foot of a tower, the top of the tower and its image in the mirror subtend at the eye, an angle of 90°. The height of the tower is _____ (A) 30 metres (B) 60 metres (C) 90 metres (D) 120 metres 25. Equal currents i flow in two wires along x and y axis as shown. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below. x Column I Column II i (a) Magnetic field in first quadrant (p) Inwards y i (b) Magnetic field in second quadrant (q) Outwards (c) Magnetic field in third quadrant (r) May be inwards or outwards (d) Magnetic field in fourth quadrant (A) (a) – (r), (b) – (q), (c) – (r), (d) – (p) (B) (a) – (p), (b) – (r), (c) – (q), (d) – (r) (C) (a) – (q), (b) – (q), (c) – (p), (d) – (r) (D) (a) – (r), (b) – (q), (c) – (q), (d) – (p) 26. The image of a distant object is obtained on a screen by using a concave mirror. The focal length of the mirror can be determined by measuring the distance between ______ (A) The object and the mirror (B) The object and the screen (C) The mirror and the screen (D) The mirror and the screen as well as that between the object and the screen 12 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 . 4 .

(15) CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009. 27. Statement  I : Respiration is an exothermic process. Statement  II : CH 4 + 2O 2 CO 2 + 2H 2 O, is an endothermic process. (A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct explanation for statement I. (B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I. (C) Statement I is true and statement II is false. (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true. 28. The given figure shows important products of chloralkali process. What are X, Y and Z respectively ? (A) NaOH, Cl 2 , H 2 (B) H 2 , Cl 2 , NaOH At anode (C) Cl 2 , H 2 , NaOH . NaCl At cathode . X . Z (aq. solution) . Y . (D) Cl 2 , NaOH, H 2 29. In the given flow chart I, II, III and IV are ______ (A) Electrolysis, Concentration, Roasting, Calcination (B) Concentration, Electrolysis, Calcination, Roasting . Ore I . (C) Calcination, Concentration, Electrolysis, Roasting (D) Concentration, Electrolysis, Roasting, Calcination . Metals of high reactivity . Metals of medium reactivity . Metals of low reactivity . II . Sulphide ores . Carbonate Pure metal ore . Sulphide ore . III . Roasting . IV . Metals Oxide of metal Refining Purification of metal. 30. Gas X when directed towards a burning candle extinguishes it. The compound in ignition tube is _____ . Reduction to metal . X . Thread . Thread . Ignition tube . (A) H 2 S (aq) . (B) dil. H 2 SO 4 . (C) NaCl . (D) NaOH . Wash bottle Ignition tube Sodium hydrogencarbonate . 31. xFe + yH 2 O zFe 3 O 4 + wH 2 What are x, y, z and w respectively ? (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 1, 2 . (C) 3, 4, 1, 4 . (D) 3, 3, 3, 3 . 32. Match the following and select the correct answer from codes given below (a) (b) (c) (d) . Column I CR 2 ® R 2 CHCHR 2 R 2C D ® ZnO + CO 2 ZnCO 3 ¾¾¾ D ® 2ZnO + 2SO 2 2ZnS + 3O 2 ¾¾¾ Fe 2O + 2Al ® 2Fe + Al 2O 3 3 . (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) . Column II Roasting Calcination Thermite process Addition . (A) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) . (B) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) . (C) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii) . (D) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i) . 5 . 12 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 .

(16) CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009. 33. Statement I : Soap solution appears cloudy. Statement II : Soap micelles are large enough to scatter light. (A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct explanation for statement I. (B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I. (C) Statement I is true and statement II is false. (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true. 34. Suresh took some sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube as shown in figure. When he brought a wet litmus paper near the test tube then he observed______ (A) No effect on litmus paper (B) Blue litmus turns red (C) Red litmus turns blue . Test tube Spatula containing sulphur powder Burner . (D) Unpredictable . 35. A liquid X is used in medicine such as tincture of iodine, cough syrups, etc. On reaction with sodium metal it gives a gas Y which burns with a pop sound. On reaction with conc. H 2SO 4 it gives an unsaturated hydrocarbon. What are X and Y respectively ? (A) CH 3 COOH, O 2 (B) C 2 H 5 OH, CO 2 (C) CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 , H 2 (D) CH 3 CH 2 OH, H 2 36. Match the following and select the correct answer from codes given below. Column I (Acid) Column II (Source) (p) Acetic acid (i) Sting of bees (q) Butyric acid (ii) Apples (r) Formic acid (iii) Vinegar (s) Lactic acid (iv) Rancid butter (t) Maleic acid (v) Sour milk (A) (p) – (iii), (q) – (i), (r) – (ii), (s) – (v), (t) – (iv) (B) (p) – (ii), (q) – (v), (r) – (iii), (s) – (iv), (t) – (i) (C) (p) – (iii), (q) – (iv), (r) – (i), (s) – (v), (t) – (ii) (D) (p) – (i), (q) – (ii), (r) – (v), (s) – (iii), (t) – (iv) Directions for Q.Nos. 37 and 38 : Read the passage carefully and answer the given questions. Elements when arranged in order of increasing atomic number Z, lead to the classification known as the 'Modern Periodic Law'. Prediction of properties of elements could be made with more precision when elements were arranged on the basis of increasing atomic number. 37. An element belongs to group 17. It is present in third period and its atomic number is 17. What is the atomic number of the element belonging to same group and present in fifth period ? (A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 53 38. What are a, b, c, d and e in the given figure ? a b c d e (A) Si P S Ge Sb (B) Si P S Sb Ge (C) Si P Sb S Ge (D) . P . S . Si . Ge . a . b . c . d . As . S e . Sn . e . Te . Sb . 39. In both evaporation and transpiration water is lost in the form of vapour yet they differ because______ (A) Transpiration is a physical process and evaporation is a physiological process (B) Transpiration is a physiological process and evaporation is a physical process (C) Rate of water loss differs (D) Frequency of water loss is different in both of them 40. Diaphragm is a thin muscular membrane that separates abdominal cavity from thoracic cavity. When diaphragm of man is completely dome shaped it shows______ (A) End of expiration and beginning of inspiration (C) Increased rate of breathing 12 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 . 6 . (B) Beginning of expiration and end of inspiration (D) Decreased rate of breathing.

(17) CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009. 41. The heart is a hollow, muscular, coneshaped organ, lying between the lungs in the thoracic cavity. In the given diagram of heart, certain parts have been labelled as a, b, c, d and e. Select the correct option. (A) The part labelled c closes shortly after the start of ventricular systole while the d closes shortly after the diastole starts (B) The parts labelled c and d have three and two flaps respectively (C) The part labelled b carries impure blood (D) The part labelled a carries pure blood while e carries impure blood . e a b . d c . 42. When the plant Mimosa pudica is touched, it begins to fold up and droop. The types of movement it shows are given below. Select the correct option. (i) Seismonastic movement (ii) Nyctinastic movement (iii) Thigmonastic movement (iv) Chemonastic movement (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (i) 43. Refer the given figure and select the correct option. (A) The parts labelled a and b give rise to seed and fruit respectively c . (B) The parts labelled c and b give rise to seed and fruit respectively a . (C) The part labelled d results in endosperm . b d . (D) Both (A) and (C) 44. When parents P 1 and P 2 were crossed, F 2 progeny was produced with three fourth similar features in phenotype to P 2 and F 1 and one fourth possessed contrasting traits. If the traits being considered here are for height with 'T' for tall and 't' for short. What will be the possible genotype of P 1 and one fourth of F 2 ? (A) tt and Tt (B) Tt and tt (C) Tt and Tt (D) tt and tt 45. Water harvesting is an age old concept in India. Given below are few water harvesting and water conveyance structures (Column I) used in different states (Column II). Match column I with column II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) Khadins, nadis (i) Bihar (b) Bandharas, tals (ii) Kerala (c) Bundis (iii) U.P. (d) Ahars, pynes (iv) Rajasthan (e) Surangams (v) Maharashtra a b c d e (A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) (B) (iv) (v) (iii) (i) (ii) (C) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii) (D) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 46. The rate at which producers in an ecosystem capture and store chemical energy as biomass is called _____ (A) Gross primary productivity (B) Net primary productivity (C) Net secondary productivity (D) Gross secondary productivity 47. The figure shows the arrangement of blood vessels in the uterus wall and placenta of a pregnant woman. Which of the following will increase in concentration in the blood as it flows from 1 to 2 ? (A) Amino acids (C) Glucose . (B) Carbon dioxide (D) Oxygen. 1 . 2 Placenta . Space filled with mother's blood . Baby's blood Umbilical cord Developing baby . 7 . 12 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 .

(18) CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009. 48. Speciation is the formation of one or more new species from an existing species. A new species of organism is formed when ______ (A) A series of mutation occur so that an organism becomes different from the others in population, but it still shows successful interbreeding (B) Climate changes drastically leading to structural changes in the given population (C) A group of organisms isolated from the rest of the species by geographical barrier (D) None of these . 49. Statement I : Mendel picked common garden pea plants for the focus of his research. Statement II : Garden pea plants can be grown easily in large numbers and their reproduction cannot be manipulated. (A) Both statements I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I. (B) Both statements I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I. (C) Statement I is true and statement II is false (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true. 50. Which of the following statements regarding the given figure of human brain are correct ? (i) Labelled part a is involved in control of blood pressure, salivation c and vomiting (ii) Labelled part b is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and balance of the body d e (iii) The part labelled c is responsible for change in size of the pupil and a b activity like walking in a straight line (iv) The secretions of part labelled d are responsible for functioning of hypothalamus (v) The part labelled e receives and integrates signals from spinal cord. (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (v) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK. 12 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 . 8 .

(19) Class 10 13th. Year 2010.

(20) CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010. MENTAL ABILITY 1. . A triangle has sides 8 cm, 17 cm and 15 cm. The area of the triangle is ________ (A) 50 cm 2 . 2. . (B) 68 cm 2 . (C) 40 cm 2 . (D) 60 cm 2 A . In the adjoining figure, if BO and CO are the bisectors of ÐEBC & ÐDCB respectively the value of ÐBOC is ________ (A) 60° . (B) 120° . (C) 30° . (D) 90° . 60° B 70° 1 . C . 2 . E . D O . A. 3. . What is the area of a right angled triangle if the radius of its circumcircle is 3 cm and altitude drawn to the hypotenuse is 2 cm? (A) 4 3 cm 2 (C) 7 cm 2 . 4. . 9. . (C) 27 cm . (D) 30 cm . (B) 5a + b = 0 . (C) a – 5b = 0 . (D) 5a – b = 0 . (B) –2 < b < 2 . (C) b > 2 . (D) b < – 2 . The 9 th term of an A.P. is 449 and 449 th term is 9. The term which is equal to zero is ________ (A) 501 th . 8. . (B) 26 cm . If the equation x 2 – bx + 1 = 0 does not possess real roots, then ________ (A) –3 < b < 3 . 7. . C . B . If 2x – 3y = 7 and (a + b) x – (a + b – 3) y = 4a + b represent coincident lines, then a and b satisfy the equation ________ (A) a + 5b = 0 . 6. . (D) 6 cm 2 . The areas of two similar triangles DABC and DDEF are 144 cm 2 and 81 cm 2 respectively.  If the longest side of larger DABC be 36 cm, then the longest side of the smaller triangle DDEF is ________ (A) 20 cm . 5. . D . (B) 6.5 cm 2 . (B) 502 th . (C) 508 th . (D) None of these . If tan 2 45° – cos 2 30° = x sin 45° cos 45°, then x = ________ 1 (A) 2 (B) – 2 (C) – 2 . (D) . 1 2 . A number x is chosen at random from the numbers –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3. The probability that |x| < 2 is ________ 5 2 3 1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 7 7 7 7 . 10. In the given question, group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once. (A) 7, 8, 9; 2, 4, 3; 1, 5, 6 (B) 1, 3, 2; 4, 5, 7; 6, 8, 9 (C) 1, 6, 8; 3, 4, 7; 2, 5, 9 (D) 1, 6, 9; 3, 4, 7; 2, 5, 8. . 1 . 2 . 3 . 4 . 5 . 6 . 7 . 8 . 9 . 11. Find the alternative which contains Fig. (X) embedded in it. Fig. (X) . (A) . 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 . (B) . (C) . 2 . (D).

(21) CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010. 12. Consider the adjoining diagram : What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the given figure such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour? (A) 3 . (B) 4 . (C) 5 . (D) 6 . 13. In the given question, a set of figures carrying certain characters is given. Assuming that the characters in the set follow a similar pattern, find the missing character. (A) 35 15 . (B) 48 . 2 . 9 . 80 . (C) 72 . 6 . 5 . 7 . 13 . 65 4 . 16 ? . 6 . 8 . 11 . (D) 120 14. If REQUEST is written as S2R52TU, then how will ACID be written? (A) 1394 . (B) IC94 . (C) BDJE . (D) 1D3E . (C) 5 . (D) 51 . 15. Find the missing number if 17 : 52 : : 1 : ? (A) 3 . (B) 4 . SCIENCE . V . V . V . V . 16. I Fig(I) . I Fig(II) . I Fig(III) . I Fig(IV) . The relation between the potential difference (V) and current (I) across a conductor is correctly represented by ________ (A) Fig(I) . (B) Fig(II) . (C) Fig(III) . (D) Fig(IV) . 17. Optical density of a medium depends on ________ (A) Density of the medium . (B) Thickness of the medium . (C) Velocity of light in that medium . (D) None of these . 18. Two equilateral prisms are arranged as shown in figure such that a ray of white light is incident at point X. The ray of light which emerges out of the prism Q ________ . e l hit W. igh. (A) Will show all the colours of spectrum . (B) Will be white light . (C) Will be orange in colour . (D) Will be dull white in colour . t X . Q P . 19. A long sighted person cannot see objects clearly at a distance less than 40 cm from his eyes. The power of the lens needed by him to read a paper at 25 cm is ________ (A) –2.5 D . (B) +2.5 D . (C) – 6.25 D . (D) +1.5 D . 20. During a planned manoeuvre in a space flight, a freefloating astronaut X pushes another freefloating astronaut Y, the mass of X being greater than that of Y. Then, the magnitude of the force exerted by astronaut X on astronaut Y is ________ (A) Equal to zero . (B) Equal to the force exerted by Y on X . (C) Greater than the force exerted by Y on X . (D) Less than the force exerted by Y on X. 3 . 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 .

(22) CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010. 21. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Fine particles in atmosphere scatter the light of shorter wavelength more. Statement 2 : Sky appears blue. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 22. Which of the following is the best thing to do during heavy lightning ? (A) Lying on the ground in an open place (B) Going into the nearest water body (C) Staying indoors away from metallic doors or windows (D) Standing under a tall tree P . 23. Study the diagram carefully and select the correct statement. Q (A) Water flowing through hole 'P' will move a smaller distance as compared Water to that through 'Q' and 'R'. R (B) Water flowing through hole 'Q' will move maximum distance. (C) Water flowing through 'R' will move more distance than 'Q' but less than 'P'. (D) Water flowing through all holes will travel same distance as pressure exerted by a liquid is equal in all directions. DIRECTION : Read the passage carefully and answer Q. nos. 24 and 25. An electric bulb 'P' rated 220 V, 60 W is working at full efficiency.  Another identical bulb 'Q' is connected across the mains as shown here. . 220 V . 24. The total power consumed is ________ (A) 20 W . Bulb Q . Bulb P . Mains . (B) 40 W . (C) 30 W . (D) 70 W . 25. What will be the total power if the bulbs are connected in parallel? (A) 120 W . (B) 60 W . (C) 200 W . (D) 70 W . 26. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) Fleming’s left hand rule (i) Application of electromagnetic induction (b) Fleming’s right hand rule (ii) Direction of magnetic force on a current carrying conductor in uniform magnetic field (c) Solenoid (iii) Similar to bar magnet (d) Electric generator (iv) Direction of induced current. (A) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (B) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (C) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (D) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 27. A few substances are arranged in order of increasing force of attraction between their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement? (A) Milk, Sugar, Air . (B) Air, Sugar, Milk . (C) Sugar, Milk, Air . (D) Air, Milk, Sugar . 28. Two mixtures containing mustard oil and water, and carbon disulphide and water are poured into separating funnels and kept undisturbed for some time. Two layers separate out according to their densities. Which of the following observations do you think are correct ? (A) (i) and (ii) . Oil Water . (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii) 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 . Carbon disulphide . Water Oil . (i) . (ii) . 4 . Carbon disulphide . Water . Oil . Water . Water . Carbon disulphide . Water . (iii) . (iv) .

(23) CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010. 29. Which of the following involves fractional distillation? i. Separation of constituents from liquefied air. ii. Separation of constituents from crude petroleum. iii. Separation of carbon tetrachloride from water. iv. Separation of naphthalene from common salt. (A) i and ii . (B) i and iv . (C) ii and iv . (D) i and iii . 30. 1.2375 g of cupric oxide on being heated in a current of hydrogen, gave 0.9322 g of the metal. In another experiment, 0.9369 g of pure copper was dissolved in nitric acid. Excess of acid evaporated and the residue was ignited. The weight of the cupric oxide left was 1.2469 g. Which law of chemical combination is shown by the above results? (A) Law of constant proportions . (B) Law of multiple proportions . (C) Law of conservation of mass . (D) Law of constant volumes . 31. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Only one out of every 12000 alpha particles rebound in Rutherford’s experiment. Statement 2 : Most of the space in the atom is empty. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. . (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false. . 32. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. (a) (b) (c) (d) . Column I Electron Proton Nucleus Neutron . (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) . Column II Chadwick J.J. Thomson Goldstein Rutherford . (A) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv) . (B) (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (iv), (d) (i) . (C) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii) . (D) (a) (iv), (b) (i), (c) (ii), (d) (iii) . 33. Out of 4 g of methane and 11 g of CO 2, which has more number of molecules? (A) Methane . (B) Carbon dioxide . (C) Both have equal number of molecules . (D) It is not possible to compare . 34. Solution X is taken into test tube1 and made to react with dilute Thistle funnel Iron stand HCl. Gas Y is evolved in the reaction which is made to pass through Rubber cork the delivery tube into test tube2 having solution Z and a milky Hard glass test tube solution is obtained. What are X, Y and Z respectively ? (A) NaOH, CO 2 , Na 2 CO 3 . Delivery tube . Test tube 2 Gas Y Solution Z . Dilute hydrochloric acid . (B) Ca(OH) 2 , H 2 , Ca(HCO 3 ) 2 . Substance X . (C) Ca(OH) 2 , CO 2 , CaCO 3 . Test tube 1 . (D) CaCO 3 , CO 2 , Ca(OH) 2 35. Which of the following elements does not belong to the same period ? 16 8. (A) . 16 8 . P . (B) . 20 23 P , 19 9 Q, 10 R and 11 S . 19 9 Q . (C) . 5 . 20 10 R . (D) . 23 11 S. 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 .

(24) CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010. 36. Study the following flow chart and mark the correct options from the given choices to fill (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi). Organic compounds (Hydrocarbons) Closed chain or Cyclic . Open chain or Aliphatic . (ii) . (A) (B) (C) (D) . (i) Cyclobutane Benzene Butane Butene . (iii) . (ii) Cyclobutene Butene Butene Butyne . Aromatic e.g. (vi) . Alicyclic . Unsaturated e.g. . Saturated e.g. (i) . Saturated e.g. (iv) . (iii) Butane Cyclobutane Butyne Butane . Unsaturated e.g. (v) . (iv) Butene Butyne Cyclobutane Cyclobutene . (v) Butyne Butane Cyclobutene Cyclobutane . (vi) Benzene Cyclobutene Benzene Benzene . (C) Colourless, brown, blue, colourless . Aluminium sulphate solution . (D) Colourless, green, blue, colourless . P . Aluminium wire . (B) Colourless, colourless, colourless, colourless . Copper wire . Zinc metal . (A) White, brown, blue, green . Iron nail . 37. Four test tubes P, Q, R and S were taken and filled half with a solution of aluminium sulphate in water.  Clean piece of metal zinc was placed in test tube P, iron nail in test tube Q, copper wire in test tube R and aluminium wire in test tube S.  What colour change will be observed in all the four test tubes respectively ? . Q . R . S . 38. Three students were given colourless liquids of water, lemon juice and a mixture of water and lemon juice. After testing these liquids with pH paper, a sequence in colour change of pH paper was reported. Which is the correct sequence ? (A) Blue, red and green . (B) Orange, green and green . (C) Green, red and red . (D) Red and green I Ethanol + CO  + Energy 2 . 39. Glucose . Pyruvate . II III . Lactic acid +Energy CO  + H O + Energy 2 2 . The above flow chart shows the three steps of glucose breakdown in different conditions. Which of the given steps is responsible for muscle cramps? (A) Step I . (B) Step II . (C) Step III . (D) Both (A) & (B) . 40. The given figure is associated with which of the following types of plant tissues ? (A) Vascular bundle (B) Epidermis (C) Endodermis (D) Pith. 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 . 6 .

(25) CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010. 41. The given figure shows the pathway taken by a nerve impulse in a reflex action. Which part serves as a link between other neurons ? . Message to brain . P . (A) P (B) Q . Q S . R . (C) R (D) S 42. Each ovule consists of a large oval shaped cell called the embryo sac and the mature embryo sac contains ________ nuclei. (A) Two . (B) Three . (C) Five . (D) Eight . 43. Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits to the farmers? (A) Use of high quality seeds, fertilizers and no irrigation. (B) Use of quality seeds, irrigation, fertilizers and crop protection measures. (C) Use of ordinary seeds, irrigation and fertilizers. (D) Use of quality seeds, irrigation and protection measures. 44. Which of the following is correct about chromosomes? (A) It is composed of DNA and lipids. (B) It is composed of DNA and proteins. (C) It is composed of DNA only. (D) It is composed of RNA and proteins. 45. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the given figure ? . Violet flowers ´ White flowers . (A) It shows Mendel's monohybrid cross. F1 generation . (B) The ratio of violet and white flowers is 3 : 1. (C) Violet flowers are dominant. . F2 generation . (D) All of these. 46. Preserved traces of living organisms are called fossils. What type of fossil is shown in the figure ? (A) Fossil of a tree trunk (B) Fossil of Trilobite (C) Fossil of Ammonite (D) Fossil of Knightia . 47. The green plants or producers capture _______ of energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves to prepare food by photosynthesis. (A) 2% . (B) 1% . (C) 10% . (D) 50% . 48. In a grassland ecosystem which of the following groups of animals are likely to occupy the same trophic level ? (A) a, b, c (B) b, c, e (C) c, d, e (D) b, d, e . a . b . c . d . e . 49. Ozone higher up in the atmosphere acts as a shield to prevent UV rays from reaching the Earth's surface. These UV rays are responsible for which of the following diseases? (i) Skin cancer (ii) Eye damage (iii) Lung cancer (iv) Damage to immune system (v) Colour blindness (A) (i), (ii) & (iii) . (B) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v) . (C) (i), (iii), (v) 7 . (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 .

(26) CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010. 50. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Our main aim of conservation is to preserve the biodiversity. Statement 2 : Loss of biodiversity leads to loss of ecological stability. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. . (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. . SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK. 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10 . 8 .

(27) Class 10 14th. Year 2011.

(28) 2. CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011. MENTAL ABILITY 1.. On a page of a telephone directory, there are 300 telephone numbers. The frequency distribution of the digits at the unit's place is given below : Unit digit. 0. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. Frequency. 35. 21. 28. 30. 25. 14. 16. 38. 38. 55. Without looking at the page, a number is chosen at random from the page. What is the probability that the digit at the unit's place of the number chosen is greater than 3 but less than 9 ?. (A) 186/300. 2.. A hall-room 39 m 10 cm long and 35 m 70 cm broad is to be paved with equal square tiles. Find the number of tiles required so that the tiles exactly fit.. (A) 483. 3.. 30 trees are planted in a straight line at intervals of 5 metres. To water them, the gardener needs to bring water for each tree, separately from a well, which is 10 metres from the first tree in line with the trees. How far will he have to walk in order to water all the trees beginning with the first tree ? Assume that he starts from the well.. (A) 4785 metres. 4.. If every side of a triangle is doubled, then increase in the area of the triangle is _____.. (A) 100 2% . 5..   If  ( . (B) 131/300. (B) 358. (B) 4795 metres. (B) 200%. (C) 161/300. (C) 475. (C) 4800 metres. (C) 300%. (D) 216/300. (D) 583. (D) None of these. (D) 400%.   a  −2  2   1 −    a  b   = 1 and a + b = 5, then find a and b respectively. a − b )2 + 2 ab . (A) 3, 2. (B) 4, 1. 6.. If the animals which can walk are called 'swimmers', animals who crawl are called 'flying', those living in water are called 'snakes' and those which fly in the sky are called 'hunters', then what will a lizard be called ?. (A) Swimmers. 7.. For the set of numbers 2, 2, 4, 5 and 12, which of the following expressions is true ?. (A) Mean = Median. 8.. Namita walks 14 metres towards west, then turns to her right and walks 14 metres and then turns to her left and walks 10 metres. Again turning to her left she walks 14 metres. What is the shortest distance (in metres) between her starting point and the present position ?. (A) 10. 9.. How many numbers from 1 to 100 are there each of which is not only exactly divisible by 4 but also has 4 as a digit ?. (A) 7. (B) Snakes. (B) Mean > Mode. (B) 24. (B) 10. 10. Simplify by combining similar terms : 3 147 −. 189. (A). 3 3. 175 (B) 3 3. (C) 2, 3. (C) Flying. (C) Mean < Mode. (C) 28. (C) 20. (D) –1, 6. (D) Hunters. (D) Mode = Median. (D) 38. (D) 12. 7 1 1 +7 3 3 3 208 3 3 . (C). 203. (D). 3 3.

(29) 3. CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011. 11. Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English alphabet ?. (A) C. (B) E. (C) I. (D) T. 12. If both a and b belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of equations of the form ax2 + bx + 1 = 0 having real roots is ______.. (A) 10. (B) 7. 13.. Consider the (i) adjacent (iii) opposite Which of the. (A) (i) and (iii) . (C) 6. (D) 12. following statements : When two straight lines intersect, angles are complementary (ii) adjacent angles are supplementary angles are equal (iv) opposite angles are supplementary following statements must be true? (B) (ii) and (iii) . (C) (i) and (iv) . (D) (ii) and (iv). (C) 1. (D) 2. 14. If sinq + sin2q = 1, then cos2q + cos4q = _______ .. (A) 0. (B). 2. 15. The middle digit of a number between 100 and 1000 is zero and the sum of the other digits is 11. If the digits be reversed, the number so formed exceeds the original number by 495; find it.. (A) 304. (B) 308. (C) 403. (D) 803. science 16. The answer to which of the following options will distinguish between a magnetic material and a. non-magnetic material? (A) Is it a metal or a non metal? (B) Is it a conductor or an insulator? (C) Can it be given an electric charge? (D) Does it affect the direction in which a compass needle points?. 17. Figure shows a ray of light P striking a mirror AB. The mirror AB and the mirror CD make an angle of 120° with each other. The angle of reflection of ray P at CD is _____.. (A) 20° . (B) 30°. (C) 50° . (D) 70°. 18. A boy of mass 55 kg, runs up 40 stairs, each measuring a height of 0.15 m, in 5 s. Column II gives numerical values for quantities described in column I. Match both the columns and select the correct option from the codes given below. . Column I . Column II. Work done by all the forces Work done by conservative forces Work done by external forces Work done in uniform acceleration (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i). Change in potential energy Change in kinetic energy Change in mechanical energy Zero (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii). (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (C). (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (D). 19. The equation, E = Dmc2 gives the amount of energy released as a result of nuclear fission. What. does Dm stand for? (A) The original mass of the nuclei (B) The final total mass of the nuclei (C) The increase in total mass of the nuclei (D) The difference in mass between the original nuclei and the product nuclei.

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