Emergency Medical Responder Mid-Course Knowledge Evaluation

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1. Medical control is the process by which a physician directs the care given by pre-hospital care professionals to patients.

a) True b) False

2. Standing orders allow EMR personnel to provide certain types of care or treatments without talking to the physician. This is called direct medical control.

a) True b) False

3. The basic unit of life is the: a) nervous system

b) organ c) cell

d) body system

4. A group of organs and other structures that perform specific body functions is (are) the: a) vital organs

b) nervous system c) respiratory system d) body system

5. Anatomically speaking, anything away from the midline is called ____________. Anything towards the midline is called ____________. Anything towards the front of the body is called ___________. Anything towards the back is called____________.

a) posterior; medial; lateral; anterior b) medial; anterior; lateral; posterior c) lateral; medial; anterior; posterior d) medial; lateral; anterior; posterior

6. A (The) _______________ is a hollow place in the body that contains organs.

a) stomach b) bone c) body cavity

7. Which of the following is not a major body cavity? a) Pelvic

b) Thoracic c) Diaphragm d) Spinal

8. What is the small flap of tissue that covers the trachea when you swallow?

a) Esophagus b) Epiglottis c) Bronchi d) Alveoli

9. The ongoing breathing process is involuntary and is controlled by the brain.

a) True b) False

10. The pumping action of the heart is called a: a) beat

b) pulse c) contraction d) cycle

11. The purpose of the primary survey is to: a) ensure there are no dangers at the scene b) determine the number of patients

c) find all life-threatening injuries or conditions d) expose and treat all injuries

12. If the mechanism of injury alerts you to the possibility of a head and/or spine injury, you open the airway using:

a) the cross-over finger technique b) a head-tilt/chin-lift

c) a two-handed jaw thrust d) a tongue-jaw lift

13. Bones are usually held together at joints by fibrous bands called ________.

a) tendons b) ligaments

Emergency Medical Responder

Mid-Course Knowledge Evaluation

Please do not write on this sheet. Indicate your answers on the answer sheet provided.

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14. Exhaled air contains what percentage of oxygen? a) 10%

b) 16% c) 21% d) 80%

15. ____________ is a condition caused by disease-producing micro-organisms, also called pathogens or germs, in the body.

a) Herpes b) HIV c) Bacteria d) Infection

16. For an infection to occur, all of the following conditions must be present EXCEPT:

a) pathogen

b) sufficient quantity of pathogen c) pre-existing disease

d) entry site

17. During a scene survey, you are alerted to the possibility of a fracture due to a fall, or a head injury due to a car collision. This is an example of assessment by means of:

a) a rapid body survey

b) observing hazards at the scene c) a head-to-toe physical examination d) the mechanism of injury

18. General impression is part of the: a) ABCs

b) scene survey c) vital signs d) secondary survey

19. How often should you ventilate an adult who is not breathing, but does have a pulse?

a) 20–30 times a minute b) 15–20 times a minute c) 12–15 times a minute d) 10–12 times a minute

20. Place the components of the primary survey in the order in which they are to be completed.

1) Identify any hazards 2) Administer oxygen

3) Identify other resources that may be needed 4) Open airway

5) Introduce self 6) Suction airway 7) Apply traction splint 8) Ask SAMPLE questions 9) Conduct rapid body survey 10) Check breathing

a) 1, 5, 8 b) 5, 1, 4

c) 5, 4, 10 d) 3, 4, 10

21. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis are the most common conditions in the ________ family. a) asthma

b) cyanosis

c) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d) flu

22. Pneumonia is a term used to describe a group of illnesses characterized by lung infection and fluid or pus-filled alveoli.

a) True b) False

23. In measuring blood pressure, two different numbers are usually recorded. The first number reflects the pressure in the _________ when the heart is contracting. This pressure is called ___________________ blood pressure. The second number reflects the pressure in the arteries when the heart is ______________. This is called the _____________ blood pressure.

a) veins; diastolic; contracting; systolic b) arteries; systolic; resting; diastolic c) arteries; systolic; contracting; diastolic d) veins; systolic; resting; diastolic

24. The acronym SAMPLE relates to a patient’s signs and symptoms, medical history, allergies,

medications, events before the incident, and last meal.

a) True b) False

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25. The order in which the components of the secondary survey should be performed are: a) interview, vital signs, head-to-toe physical

examination

b) head-to-toe physical examination and interview c) vital signs, interview, bandaging

d) none of the above

26. The term used to describe low oxygen level in the cells is:

a) anoxia b) hypoxia c) aeroxia d) monoxia

27. After insertion of an oral airway, the patient starts to swallow and gag. Which of the following factors can cause this reaction?

a) The responder is squeezing the BVM too quickly b) The patient’s level of consciousness is

increasing

c) The oropharyngeal airway is too small d) The patient’s level of consciousness is

decreasing

28. __________ is a disease in which the lungs lose their ability to exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen effectively. _____________ is a severe allergic reaction. _________ is a sudden illness involving the death of heart muscle tissue when it does not receive enough oxygen-rich blood. _________ is the absence of electrical activity in the heart.

a) Asystole; Emphysema; Congestive heart failure; Arrhythmia

b) Emphysema; Anaphylaxis; Myocardial infarction; Asystole

c) Asthma; Congestive heart failure; Herpes; Asystole

d) Anaphylaxis; Myocardial infarction; Asystole; Emphysema

29. A patient has an adequate airway, respirations of 6 per minute, blue lips and only responds to pain by moaning. Your best treatment is to:

a) insert an oral airway and administer oxygen b) place the patient in the H.A.IN.E.S. recovery

position and administer oxygen

30. Normally the breathing reflex is triggered by: a) high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood b) high levels of oxygen in the blood

c) low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood d) low levels of oxygen in the blood

31. If severe bleeding is found during the circulation check, you should:

a) finish the check before intervening

b) stop, control bleeding, then finish your check c) stop, control and bandage the wound, then

finish your check

d) only stop the check to control bleeding if it is life threatening

32. In some people with chronic obstructive

pulmonary disease (COPD), the breathing reflex is triggered by:

a) high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood b) high levels of oxygen in the blood

c) low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood d) low levels of oxygen in the blood

33. An older adult male was injured in a drive-by shooting. He has been shot through the left thigh and there is a significant amount of blood loss. He has a rapid pulse, and his skin is pale, cool, and sweaty. He tells you he has emphysema. Your treatment would include oxygen by:

a) bag-valve-mask at 5 lpm b) resuscitation mask at 3 lpm c) non-rebreather mask at 6 lpm d) non-rebreather mask at 10 lpm 34. Shock is defined as:

a) profuse external bleeding, rapid weak pulse, decreased LOC

b) a psychological or physical state resulting from trauma

c) a condition where a person feels faint and disoriented

d) a condition where body cells do not receive enough oxygen-rich blood

35. Before applying direct pressure to a bleeding arterial wound, the EMR should:

a) treat the patient for shock b) apply oxygen at 10 lpm

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36. The most common and appropriate initial measure to control bleeding from a lacerated wrist is: a) direct pressure

b) splinting c) pressure point d) tourniquet

37. A patient is bleeding from a protruding open fracture on his forearm. Which one of the following methods should be used initially to control the bleeding?

a) Direct pressure b) Pressure points c) Tourniquet

d) Bulky dressing around protruding bones 38. After treating and covering a forearm wound, the

patients fingers turn blue. You should: a) remove and reapply a new bandage b) loosen the dressing

c) loosen the bandage d) reposition the arm

39. When measuring a patient for a nasopharyngeal airway, you measure the distance between the ________________________ and the _____________________.

a) bridge of the nose; corner of the mouth b) corner of the mouth; earlobe

c) tip of the patient’s nose; earlobe d) maxilla; mandible

40. It is acceptable to use a nasopharyngeal airway on a patient with a suspected skull fracture.

a) True b) False

41. Match the following key terms:

a) 3, 4, 5, 1, 6, 2 b) 5, 4, 6, 1, 2, 3 c) 6, 5, 4, 1, 3, 2 d) 1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4

42.To select the appropriate oropharyngeal airway, you should:

a)size it from the patient’s earlobe to the corner of the mouth

b)size it from the patient’s earlobe to the point of the chin

c) size it from the tip of the patient’s nose to the front teeth

d)select the one designated for a patient of that age

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The Canadian Red Cross Society

_____ Bag-valve-mask _____ Flowmeter _____ Non-rebreather mask _____ Nasal cannula _____ Pressure regulator _____ Oxygen delivery device 1. A device used to administer oxygen through the nostrils to a breathing patient 2. A device used to administer oxygen from an oxygen cylinder to a patient 3. A hand-held ventilation device 4. A device used to

regulate in litres per minute the amount of oxygen administered to a patient

5. A mask combined with a reservoir bag used to administer high-concentration oxygen to a patient 6. A device attached to

the oxygen cylinder that reduces the delivery pressure of oxygen to a safe level

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43. You are ventilating an unconscious patient using a BVM. You notice vomit in the throat and mouth. If the suctioning device will not remove all the vomitus you should:

a) place the patient on his side and finger sweep the airway

b) check the suction unit to ensure that it is working properly

c) maintain the head in the position found and finger sweep the airway

d) ventilate with the BVM for 30 seconds, then suction again

44. You assess a woman’s level of consiousness. You note that she opens her eyes when a painful stimulus is applied, while also grabbing at your hand (localizing pain). She is making incomprehensible sounds while you assess her. Her GCS would be:

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12

45. Someone who has pathogens enter the body by way of getting stuck with a dirty insulin needle would be an example of:

a) direct contact b) indirect contact c) airborne transmission d) vector-borne transmission

46. Which of the following is NOT to be considered a “soft sign” of a heart attack?

a) Gastric discomfort b) Tiredness

c) Pain radiating to the jaw and arm d) Flu-like symptoms

47. In which of the following cases would you suggest a patient take both his nitroglycerin and ASA? a) Blood pressure: 120/P; Pulse: 50; no

medications at all taken in the last 3 days; no known allergies; recent stroke

b) Blood pressure: 124/P; Pulse: 70; no known allergies or illnesses other than angina; no medications at all taken in the last 3 days c) Blood presssure: 130/P; Pulse: 70; no known

allergies or illnesses other than angina; no medications at all taken in the last 3 days; has never taken nitroglycerin before

d) Blood pressure: 84/P; Pulse: 110; no known allergies; history of asthma; 1 spray of

nitroglycerin taken in the past 48 hours; steroid inhaler taken that morning

48. Which of the following are considered to be a “shockable rhythm”? 1) Ventricular fibrillation 2) Asystole 3) Ventricular tachycardia 4) Sinus bradycardia a) 1 and 3 b) 1, 2, and 3

c) 2 and 3 d) All of the above 49. To assess someone who has had a suspected

stroke, you should check:

a) reaction time and speech patterns

b) mechanism of injury and onset time of signs and symptoms

c) anxiety level and blood pressure d) facial droop, arm weakness, and speech

abnormalities

50. Which of the following is most likely NOT to be considered a critical burn?

a) Sunburn (superficial) covering the entire back b) Electrical burn

c) Burns around the mouth due to inhalation of chemicals

d) A partial-thickness burn to the hands

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1. a (p. 4) 2. b (p. 4) 3. c (p. 48) 4. d (p. 48) 5. c (p. 45–46) 6. c (p. 47) 7. c (p. 47) 8. b (p. 50) 9. a (p. 51) 10. c (p. 53) 11. c (p. 68, 70) 12. c (p. 72) 13. b (p. 59) 14. b (p. 106) 15. d (p. 28) 16. c (p. 29) 17. d (p. 69) 18. b (p. 70) 19. d (p. 106) 20. c (p. 70) 21. c (p. 101) 22. a (p. 103) 23. b (p. 82) 24. a (p. 75) 25. a (p. 75) 26. b (p. 92) 27. b (p. 113) 28. b (p. 100–101, 126, 138) 29. d (p. 120) 30. a (p. 52) 31. d (p. 74) 32. d (p. 101–102) 33. d (p. 120–121) 34. d (p. 154) 35. d (p. 36, 150) 36. a (p. 150) 37. d (p. 196) 38. c (p. 194) 39. c (p. 115) 40. b (p. 115) 41. a (p. 115–122) 42. a (p. 113) 43. a (p. 107, 112) 44. c (p. 77) 45. b (p. 29–30) 46. c (p. 130–131) 47. b (p. 132–133) 48. a (p. 138) 49. d (p. 145) 50. a (p. 198–200)

Emergency Medical Responder

Mid-Course Knowledge Evaluation Answer Key

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