Physical Sciences Solutions for AAMC 3R
1. Reaction 4 is shown in the following equation, which is answer choice A.
PbCO3(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → PbCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Answers B and D do not show a reaction involving PbCO3(s), as required by Reaction 4. Answer C shows
an implausible and unbalanced equation. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer. 2. Reaction 1 is shown in the following equation.
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → PbSO4(s) + 2 NaNO3(aq)
Compound A, the white solid, is PbSO4(s). Neither the reactant Pb(NO3)2 nor the product NaNO3 can
precipitate because all nitrates and sodium salts are water soluble. PbI2 cannot precipitate because iodide
is not present. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
3. The dissolution of Pb(OH)2(s) is represented by the following equation.
Pb(OH)2(s) Pb2(aq) + 2 OH-(aq)
At pH 9, the concentration of OH-(aq) is greater than the concentration of OH-(aq) at pH 7. According to
Le Châtelier's principle, the additional common ion, OH-(aq), will shift the position of equilibrium to the left, and less Pb(OH)2 will dissolve. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
4. The reactions described in the passage show that lead(II) is successively precipitated as PbSO4,
PbI2, and PbCO3. This sequence shows (assuming equal anion concentrations, as must be done
here) that PbCO3 is less soluble than PbI2, and PbI2 is less soluble than PbSO4. The order in which
the anions precipitate Pb2+ is: CO
32- then I- then SO42-. When this sequence is applied to the
question, answer choice B is in the correct order, and answers A, C, and D are all in the opposite order. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.
5. The initial Na2SO4(aq) solution in Reaction 1 is 15 mL of 0.300 MNa2SO4(aq).
(15.0 mL) ( 1 L ) (0.300 mol Na2SO4) (2 mol Na+)
(1000 mL) (1 L Na2SO4(aq) ) (1 mol Na2SO4)
= 0.00900 mol = Answer B
6. The liquid and vapor phases coalesce at point D of Figure 2, where the densities of liquid and gaseous CO2 are equal. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
7. The question does not compare CO2 to a specific solvent, so we are looking for an inherent
property of CO2 that makes it a good solvent for an organic oil. Supercritical CO2 is similar to a
liquid and can be easily removed by evaporation because it changes into a gas when the pressure is lowered. Answers A, B, and C are not true of CO2, and answers A and C are not desirable
properties of an extraction solvent. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
8.
Polar water molecules are held together by relatively strong hydrogen bonds; whereas, the linear, nonpolar molecules of CO2 are held together at room temperature by weak London dispersion
forces. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
9. The critical point, shown as a dot (·) in Figure 1, is near 30oC and 80 atm. Answer choice C is the best answer.
10. According to the principle of “like dissolves like,” the covalent compound CO2 is a better solvent
for a covalent compound than it is for an ionic compound. Diethyl ether, C2H5OC2H5, is a
covalent compound and NaCl, NH4NO3, and KOH are ionic compounds. Thus, answer choice B
is the best answer.
11. The emission peaks P1 and P2 are described in the passage as due to an electron from an outer
energy level filling a vacant inner energy level, resulting in emission of an X-ray photon. These photons have discrete energies, and therefore discrete wavelengths, so they appear in the spectrum as peaks. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
12. The power P, supplied by the battery to accelerate the electron beam is given by the formula P =
I·V, where I is the beam current and V is the potential difference between the cathode and anode.
Therefore P = (5 x 10-3 A) x (105 V) = 5 x 102 W. Therefore, answer choice A is the best answer.
13. The emitted X-ray has the positive energy difference between the atomic energy levels as measured by their ionization potentials. For Pb n = 2 to 1, that is (1,400 x 10-17 J) - (240 x 10-17 J)
= 1160 x 10-17 J = 1.16 x 10-14 J. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
14. According to the passage, bremsstrahlung is produced when electrons are accelerated during collisions with ions. All the choices of answers are ions except He, a neutral atom. Therefore, answer choice A is the correct answer.
15. To increase the kinetic energy of the electrons, they must be accelerated by a higher voltage between the cathode and anode, thus the voltage of HV was increased. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
16. The probability of an X-ray emission event at a given wavelength is measured by its intensity in the spectrum. In Figure 2, P2 has a higher intensity than does P1. Thus, answer choice D is the
best answer.
17. The dipole moment of a molecule is the vector sum of all of the bond moments. According to the data in Table 1, the dipole moment of SnBr4 is zero; therefore, its bond moments add to zero or
cancel. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
18.
The σ2s electron cloud in NO is in a bonding molecular orbital (MO) that forms by the overlap of
the 2s orbital of an oxygen atom with the 2s orbital of a nitrogen atom. Because O is more electronegative than N, the electron cloud in the resulting σ2s MO is larger around the oxygen
atom than it is around the nitrogen atom. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
19. Table 1 gives the dipole moment of HF as 1.82 D. Chlorine is just below fluorine in the periodic table; therefore, the electronegativity of chlorine, though significant, is less than that of fluorine. Chlorine is less effective than fluorine in creating a separation of charge when bonded to
hydrogen, and the dipole moment of HCl is slightly less than that of HF. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.
20. HCl is polar covalent because H and Cl share a pair of bonded electrons that are more strongly attracted to the chlorine atom. The higher effective nuclear charge (i.e., the charge of the nucleus minus the shielding caused by extranuclear electrons) of chlorine accounts for its greater
electronegativity. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
21. Carbon dioxide,O=C=O, is linear. Therefore, the two CO dipoles cancel because they are in opposite directions. If one of the oxygen atoms is removed, the resulting CO will have a dipole because the species is linear and comprised of two different atoms. Thus, the dipole moment will change from zero in CO2 to a positive value in CO. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
22. An analysis of the two structures shows that the bond moments in PCl5 add to zero; whereas,
those in PCl3 do not. As shown in the figure, PCl3 is pyramidal not planar. Thus, answer choice B
is the best answer.
23. Work is the product of the force on an object and the distance the object moves in the direction of the applied force. In this case, work = 20 N x 10 m = 200 J. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
24. Evaporation occurs when a molecule attains sufficient speed or kinetic energy to overcome the attractive forces of a liquid. Resonance, surface tension and potential energy all relate to molecules that are not in motion. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.
25. The relation between distance, acceleration, and time is: d = (1/2)a · t2. To solve for the time it
takes the runner to use t = (2d/a)1/2 = (23/1.5)1/2 = 2 s. Therefore, answer choice C is the best
answer
26. A body is in transitional equilibrium when the components of all external forces cancel. For the sheet: F cos θ = 4 N, F sinθ = 3 N. The magnitude of F is found by adding the squares of the components: F2cos2 θ + F2 sin2 θ = F2 = 42 + 32 = 25 N2. Therefore F = 5 N. The F vector points in the proper direction since tan θ = 0.75 = 3/4. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
27. The only experimental difference in Trial 1 vs. Trial 2 is that, in Trial 2, the test tube is placed in water (20oC) to cool rather than in air (also 20oC). In other words, only the surroundings were
different. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.
28. The melting point of acetamide is 80oC; therefore, acetamide will melt when it is in a test tube
that is placed in a water bath at 90oC. The temperature of the water in the bath, not the amount of
water in the bath, determines whether or not the acetamide will melt. The period of time for acetamide to melt, starting at 90oC, is more than the corresponding period, starting at 100oC (i.e.,
the temperature of boiling water). Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
29. Without controlling the temperature (i.e., raising the temperature of the water bath above 80oC),
the experimenter could not have observed melting or freezing. Without monitoring the time, the experimenter could not have determined the period of time for the samples to melt or freeze. The temperature of melting (freezing) of a pure substance such as acetamide is independent of the amount melted, and Experiment 2 shows that the surroundings control the period of time for freezing to occur. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
30.
The time period of melting is independent of the time intervals used by the experimenter to record temperatures. The sample would freeze completely after 23 min regardless of the time interval used by the experimenter to record temperatures. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.
31. After Experiment 1, the sample was removed from a hot water bath as a liquid. Subsequently, the sample froze during Trial 1. Therefore, the sample had to be reheated in a water bath above its melting point to start Trial 2 as a liquid. Thus, answer D is the best answer.
32. If the data for Trial 1 were plotted, the temperature would drop to 80oC and remain at this melting
temperature for 23 min (or 23 min x 60 sec/min = 1380 sec). The line at 80oC would not slope downward at all in the figure, and it would extend well past 270 sec, the maximum time shown in the figure. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
33.
The tone with the shortest period has the shortest wavelength. In Figure 1a, the period of the third harmonic (the curve with the smaller dashes) is seen to be shorter than the other two harmonics. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
34. The three curves in Figure 1a intersect at three points in time. The second intersection occurs in the middle of the time axis. At that point all three curves have zero displacement. Therefore, answer choice C is the best answer.
35. The period T and frequency f of a tone are related by T = 1/f. If the first harmonic has a frequency of 100 Hz, then the second harmonic has a frequency of 200 Hz. The period corresponding to 200 Hz is 1/200 s-1 = 0.005 s. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
36. The amplitudes of the three harmonics can be compared in Figure 1a. The first harmonic is seen to be largest while the other two have equal amplitudes. Answer choice A best represents these observations.
37. A fourth harmonic would have a shorter period than the other three. Since T = 1/f, the fourth harmonic would have a higher frequency than the third harmonic. Therefore, answer choice D is the best answer.
38. The waveform in Figure 1c begins to repeat at the zero displacement point near the end of the time axis. This is the same time period as the first harmonic as seen in Figure 1a. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
39. The relation of wavelength, frequency, and wave velocity is λ·f = v. For light, v = 3 x 108 m/s.
The wavelength for Material B at an efficiency of 0.42 is read from Table 1 as λ = 1.06 x 10-6 m. The frequency of this light is 3 x 108 m/s divided by 1.06 x 10-6 m, giving 2.8 x 1014 Hz. Thus,
answer choice C is the best answer.
40. The passage states "a coating that maximized the absorption of light." Therefore, the coating also maximizes the conversion efficiency. Thus answer choice C is the best answer.
41. Identical voltage sources connected in parallel produce the same output voltage as a single source. (Whereas if they were connected in series, the source voltages would be added.) Therefore, answer choice D is the best answer.
42. The equation K = hf – ø given in the passage implies that the photon energy must be greater than the work function of the material in order to liberate an electron, i.e. for K to be positive. Thus, answer choice A is the best choice.
43. Applying a coating that makes ε independent of the wavelength means ε is the same for all λ. Thus, ε is constant when plotted versus λ, a horizontal line. Therefore, answer choice C is the best answer.
44. According to the data in Table 1, both structure and molecular weight (i.e., molar mass) affect the melting point of a compound. In order to assess the effect of molecular weight or mass alone, any other effects such as obvious structural differences must be minimized. This is best done by comparing two compounds that are structurally similar. Because the structures of propionic acid and butyric acid (Answer C) differ by only a CH2 group, they best show that melting point
increases with molar mass. All of the other answer choices compare two compounds that differ significantly in structure. Therefore, the melting points of these compounds include both molar mass and structural effects. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
45. Figure 1 shows the pH of the solution to be about 3 before any NaOH(aq) is added.
pH = -log[H3O+]
3 = -log[H3O+]
[H3O+] = 10-3 M = 0.001 M = Answer A
46. The freezing point depression of an aqueous solution is a colligative property (i.e., it depends on the number of solute particles in a given volume of water.) Given two solutions, the one with the greater number of solute particles per liter of solution freezes at the lower temperature. Answer C is the only answer that relates a larger number of solute particles directly to a lower freezing point. Oxalic acid is diprotic and ionizes in accord with the pKa values in Table 1 to a greater
extent than does crotonic acid. Subsequently, oxalic acid requires more NaOH than does crotonic acid to reach a pH of 4.7, and oxalic acid produces a larger number of particles in solution. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
47. In a titration of R–COOH, the concentrations of R–COOH and R–COO- are equal at the
mid-point of the titration. This is often called the half-equivalence mid-point. From the expression for the equilibrium constant of a weak acid HA, when [HA] = [A-], then [H
3O+] = Ka and pH = pKa.
Table 1 shows the pKa value for a monoprotic acid to be 4.69–4.88. Answer choice A (4.8) lies in
this range, the other choices do not. Alternatively, Figure 1 shows the pH at the half equivalence point of a weak acid to be about 4.8. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
48. The first sentence of the passage states that the unknown “was a liquid at room temperature (20oC).” Table 1 shows that the melting point of crotonic acid is 71.6oC, which means it is a solid
at room temperature (i.e., it melts 51.6oC above room temperature). Thus, answer choice C is the
best answer.
49. In general, catalysts lower the activation energy of the slowest step in a reaction. Thus, they increase the rate of the reaction without increasing the number of collisions, the kinetic energy of the reactants, or the Keq of a reversible reaction. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
50. Conservation of linear momentum requires: mradonvradon= mheliumvhelium with helium identified as the
alpha particle. The nuclear masses can be approximated by their mass numbers (222 and 4). Thus, the recoil speed of the radon is (4/222)1.5 x 107 m/s = 2.7 x 105 m/s. Therefore, answer choice B
is the best answer.
51. The overall order of a reaction is the sum of the exponents of the concentrations in the rate law. The exponent of [NO2] is 1 and that of [F2] is 1, and their sum is 1 + 1 = 2. Thus, the overall order
is two or second order. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
52. The problem gives ΔHfo for HCl as -92.5 kJ/mol. This means that the formation of one mole of
HCl from its elements liberates 92.5 kJ of heat, as shown in the following equation.
1/2 H2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) → HCl ΔHfo = -92.5 kJ
Therefore, the formation of two moles of HCl liberates twice this amount or –185.0 kJ.
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl ΔH = -185.0 kJ
The question asks for the enthalpy change (ΔH) for the reverse reaction. When the reaction is reversed, the sign of ΔH is changed from – to +. Thus, the reverse reaction requires +185.0 kJ = Answer D.
53. The ratio of object to image distance equals the ratio of object to image height. The ratio of image to object height is found by rearranging the ratios to give 4f /(4/3)f = 1/3. The image is
demagnified by a factor of 3. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
54. In the artery, the product of blood speed and artery cross-sectional area is everywhere constant because the volume flow rates are equal. At the point with half the normal area, the speed must double so that the same volume of blood passes through the constriction as does through the normal part of the artery. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
55. A stronger B field increases the magnetic force, Fm = q v B. The electric force must also
increase to achieve equilibrium. This implies a larger electric field in the artery and a larger voltage across the artery. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
56. Volume flow rate is the product of blood speed and artery cross-sectional area: (0.20 m/s)·(π/4)·(1.0 x 10-2 m)2 = 5π x 10-6 m3/s. Therefore, answer choice B is the best answer.
57. Since volume flow rate is proportional to blood speed, it doubles when v doubles. Therefore, answer choice B is the best answer.
58. A magnetic force acts on a moving charge in a direction that is perpendicular to both the velocity of the charge and the direction of the magnetic field. This is a basic law of the interaction of electric currents and magnetic fields. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
59. The passage states that sulfuric acid reacts with Cu(s) to produce Cu+ and SO
2. Thus, sulfuric acid
is converted into sulfur dioxide, or H2SO4→ SO2. The oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4 can
be found by assigning oxidation numbers of +1 for hydrogen and -2 for oxygen. For the formula H2SO4 to be neutral, the sum of the oxidation numbers must be zero. If x is the oxidation number
of sulfur in H2SO4, then: 2(1) + 4(- 2) + x = 0, and x = +6. Likewise, for SO2: 2(- 2) + x = 0, and x
= +4. The change in oxidation number is from +6 to +4, which is answer choice B.
60. The boiling point of HNO3 is given in the question as 86oC. Because HNO3 must boil out of the
flask and be trapped in the tube, the temperature of the flask must be above the boiling point of HNO3 (i.e., < 86oC) and the temperature of the tube must be less than the boiling point of HNO3
(i.e, < 86oC). Answer B meets these criteria; the other answers do not. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.
61. The combustion of elemental sulfur involves a reaction between oxygen (O2) and sulfur (S).
[Note: Though sulfur exists as S8 molecules, its reactions are normally written in terms of its
empirical formula S.] Only Answer D shows such a reaction. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
62. The reaction involves the formation of gaseous SO3 from gaseous O2 and gaseous SO2.
O2(g) + 2 SO2(g) → 2 SO3(g)
According to Le Châtelier's principle, any action that causes the reaction to shift toward the right will cause O2 and SO2 to react and increase the yield of SO3. Of the four possible actions (answers
A-D), the removal of SO3 as it forms will shift the reaction toward the right and is the most likely
action to increase the yield of SO3. Thus, answer C is the best answer.
63. The passage states that concentrated H2SO4 is 98% H2SO4 and 2% water by mass and that the
density of concentrated H2SO4 is 1.84 g/mL.
64. The problem hypothesizes the liberation of hydrogen in accord with the unbalanced equation below.
Fe(s) + H2SO4→ H2(g)
In the conversion, hydrogen goes from an oxidation state of +1 in sulfuric acid to 0 (zero) in H2.
Thus, the hydrogen in H2SO4 is reduced (i.e., it undergoes an algebraic decrease in oxidation
state). Fe(s) is the reducing agent (i.e., it causes the reduction). Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
65. The first ionization of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, is normally 100% in water. However, under
conditions of low water content, all of the H2SO4 cannot ionize. Qualitatively, the only source of
SO42- is HSO4-. The Ka for the second ionization step of a parent acid is a few orders of magnitude
smaller than that of the first step; therefore, SO42- must be the least abundant species, because it is
only formed in the second ionization step. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
Quantitatively, the mass relationship in 100 g of 98% H2SO4 is 98 g H2SO4 and 2 g H2O. The
molar mass of H2SO4 is 98 g/mol and of water is 18 g/mol. Thus, in 100 g of 98% H2SO4 there is
one mole of H2SO4 and 2/18 or 1/9 mole of H2O. In excess water, H2SO4 would ionize
react stoichiometrically with water to form H3O+ and HSO4-. Of this 1/9 mol, only a small
fraction of the HSO4-further ionizes to H3O+ and SO42-, because HSO42-is a weak acid. Therefore,
SO42-is the chemical with the lowest concentration. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
66. The reflected radar signal has a frequency shift due to the Doppler effect. Mercury must have been moving toward the Earth for the shift to be to a higher frequency. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
67. An equatorial bulge of the Sun would be caused by some process that is not the same in all directions. Of the four answers, only the Sun's rotation about an axis fulfills this condition. The bulge is related to the balance between the centripetal force and the gravitational force. Therefore, answer choice A is the best answer.
68. The perihelion will have moved through an angle θ = Ω·t after a time t has elapsed. The conversion of angles is given by the following. An arcsecond is 1/60 of an arcminute. An arcminute is 1/60 of a degree. The time for 500 arcseconds per century to accumulate to θ = 360 degrees is 360/(500/(60 x 60)) = 360 x 60 x (60/500) centuries. Thus, answer choice C is the correct answer.
69. The orbit of Mercury around the Sun is, by Kepler's and Newton's laws, an ellipse with the Sun at one fixed focus. Therefore, answer choice C is the best answer.
70. The time for the radar signal to travel from the Earth to Venus and return is the total distance divided by the velocity of light: 2 x 5 x 1010 m / 3 x 108 m/s = 3.3 x 102s ≈300 s. Thus, answer choice B is the correct answer.
71. The ellipse precesses around the Sun at one focus. Any fixed point on the ellipse is a constant distance from the focus. Therefore it traces out a circle around the focus. Answer choice A is the best answer.
72. As written, the equation shows the reduction of Zn2+ to Zn. The negative reduction potential for
Zn2+ means that Zn has a positive oxidation potential (i.e., Zn is easily oxidized.) Zinc will
displace hydrogen, which has a zero standard reduction or oxidation potential (i.e., hydrogen is the standard against which other substances are measured.). As given in the problem, ionic zinc is Zn2+. Therefore, zinc metal liberates hydrogen gas and produces ZnCl
2(aq). Answer choice B is
73. Power is defined as the rate of doing work. For the automobile, the power output is the amount of work done (overcoming friction) divided by the length of time in which the work was done. Therefore, answer choice D is the best answer.
74. The bonds labeled C and D in the figure are of equal length but shorter than bond B. This is because two resonance structures can be drawn: in one resonance structure, bond C is a double bond, and in the second resonance structure, bond D is double bond. Double bonds (bond order = 2) are shorter than single bonds (bond order = 1), so the bond order for bonds C and D is about 1.5 and for bond B about 1. Bond B is longer than bond A because of the small atomic radius of hydrogen compared to nitrogen. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.
Alternatively, the figure shows that C = D, so answer choices C and D can be eliminated. Also, A is clearly shorter than B; therefore B is the longest. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer. 75. Conservation of energy requires that the 15.0 eV photon energy first provides the ionization
energy to unbind the electron, and then allows any excess energy to become the electron's kinetic energy. The kinetic energy is this case is 15.0 eV-13.6 eV = 1.4 eV. Thus the correct answer is A.
76. In radioactive decay, the sum of the mass numbers A and atomic numbers Z, before and after decay, must balance. The numbers for beryllium undergoing positron decay are: mass (7 = 7 + 0) and atomic (4 = 3 + 1). The resulting nucleus is 73Li. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.
77. Work is the product of force and distance. The easiest way to calculate the work in this pulley problem is to multiply the net force on the weight mg by the distance it is raised: 4 kg x 10 m/s2 x 5 m = 200 J. Therefore, answer choice D is the best answer.
Verbal Reasoning Solutions for AAMC 3R
78. According to one authority on the drug problem, "tobacco shortens one's life, cocaine debases it; nicotine alters one's habits, cocaine alters one's soul." This authority would probably:
A) support the legalization of cocaine.
The argument presented for the legalization of cocaine requires the assumption that it is “not so dangerous as is commonly believed”. Someone who believes that it “debases life” and “alters one's soul” is unlikely to accept this argument.
B) approve the abolition of both cigarette and cocaine sales in the U.S.
The authority contrasts the effects of tobacco and cocaine in order to emphasize the greater devastation caused by cocaine. The faults of tobacco (shortening life and altering habits) are equally true of many behaviors – e.g., overeating, being sedentary – that are universally regarded as permissible personal choices. The authority is therefore unlikely to favor the abolition of cigarettes.
C) not consider either cocaine or tobacco particularly dangerous.
Although one might argue that the debasing of one’s life and altering of one’s soul make cocaine “dangerous” in a vague, spiritual sense of the word, the shortening of one’s life signifies that tobacco is physically dangerous.
D) consider both cocaine and tobacco to be harmful but cocaine more so.
The information that introduces the question does not imply agreement between the authority quoted and the passage author, so the correct response must be found in the quotation. Although the observations about tobacco constitute a warning – it shortens lives and alters habits – they are factual. In contrast, the expressions used about cocaine are moral judgments – it debases lives and alters souls – indicating a stronger
condemnation.
Solution
Guess
79. The author of the passage would probably support most strongly a federal law that: A) requires mandatory drug-treatment programs for convicted drug users.
If the author’s recommendations were adopted, there would be no convictions for drug use – and nobody may be compelled to undergo treatment for engaging in a legal activity. Furthermore, the passage stresses the budgetary advantages of drug legalization, so the author is unlikely to advocate government spending for a program requiring the services of physicians and other professionals, which would undoubtedly be quite costly, even if the treatment were voluntary.
B) grants tax-exempt status to income earned in the drug trade.
Besides the fact that the author advocates the decriminalization of drug use and not the active promotion of it, a tax advantage for drug-related profits would eliminate the anticipated “new tax revenue from legal drug production and sales . . . of at least ten billion dollars a year”, one of the author’s arguments for drug
legalization.
C) dispenses, free of charge, federally certified sterile needles to addicts.
The free distribution of needles would accord with “legalization scenarios” in at least three ways. (1) It would serve the goal of enhancing “the quality of urban life” by reducing the public-health risk from unsterile needles. (2) It would facilitate the investigation of any remaining drug-related crime by providing a means of identifying and monitoring addicts. (3) It would provide data to test one premise of drug legalization (which would be a prerequisite for a
needle-distribution program) – that “repealing many of the drug laws would not lead . . . to a dramatic rise in drug abuse”.
D) assigns to the military the task of intercepting drugs from foreign nations. If drugs were legal, as the author recommends, their importation would presumably no longer be subject to extraordinary restrictions.
Solution
Guess
80. Which of the following claims is/are explicitly presented in the passage to justify the supposition that public treasuries would enjoy a net benefit as a result of drug
legalization?
I. Income earned from the drug trade would be subject to taxation. II. Fewer law-enforcement personnel would be retained.
III. Fewer public funds would be spent on drug enforcement. A) I only
Option I is correct, but so is option III.
B) I and II only
Option II is neither stated nor implied. Drug legalization would presumably allow the law-enforcement personnel assigned to drug-enforcement activities to be reassigned.
C) I and III only
“Between reduced government expenditures on enforcing drug laws [option III] and new tax revenue from legal drug production and sales [option I], public treasuries would enjoy a net benefit.”
D) I, II, and III See rationale B.
Solution
Guess
81. Which of the following findings best supports the author's belief that drug legalization would not result in a dramatic increase in drug abuse?
A) Most Americans are currently hostile to the idea of drug legalization.
General hostility toward drug legalization indicates nothing about the probable effect of legalization on the prevalence of drug abuse.
B) Most Americans are unlikely to engage in an obviously dangerous activity.
Since drug taking involves well known risks (overdosing, psychosis, disease from contaminated needles, loss of employment, disintegration of personal
relationships, etc.), evidence that Americans tend to avoid risk-taking activities supports the argument for legalization.
C) Most Americans do not take the legal status of a substance into account when deciding whether or not to ingest it.
In the argument that the legal status of cocaine or heroin is irrelevant because few Americans would choose to inject it into their veins, the implied deterrent is the riskiness of such behavior. This argument does not pertain to either other currently illegal drugs or other means of ingestion. The use of such substances may be restricted by their price, for example, rather than by their legal status. And since legalization could be expected to make all street drugs more affordable, it might well promote drug abuse among current nonusers for whom expense is a major consideration.
D) The consumption of alcohol rose after the repeal of prohibition.
Evidence that alcohol consumption rose after Prohibition ended argues against the belief that drug use would remain constant following the repeal of anti-drug laws.
Solution
Guess
82. According to the passage, which of the following is most likely to be true about the relationship between the enforcement of drug-prohibition laws and the street prices of illicit drugs?
A) The more strict the enforcement, the higher the street price.
The relationship between the enforcement of drug laws and the street price of drugs is assumed in the passage to accord with the economic law of supply and demand. The reason that “many drug-control efforts are . . . counter-productive” is implicitly that they produce shortages or increase the dangers and costs to the suppliers, thus driving up prices. As a result, “many cocaine and heroin addicts spend hundreds and even thousands of dollars a week”. The sentence beginning “If the drugs to which they are addicted were significantly cheaper – which would be the case if they were legalized” . . . repeats the theme of a positive correlation between street price and law enforcement.
B) The more strict the enforcement, the lower the street price.
The passage provides no reason to suppose that the predictable outcome of strict enforcement, a reduction in the quantity of drugs available on the street, also reduces their price. (If it did, there would be no particular temptation to corruption by those engaged in the enforcement.)
C) The less strict the enforcement, the higher the street price.
Enforcement would decline to zero with legalization, the case in which drugs would be “significantly cheaper”.
D) There is no systematic connection between the strictness of enforcement and the street price.
The denial of a connection between the enforcement of drug laws and the price of drugs contradicts the passage argument (see rationale A).
Solution
Guess
83. The Bella Coola Indian legend best illustrates the author's point that: A) humans know very little about the wolf.
To “know very little” refers to a negative state – the absence of knowledge – and a negative state cannot be “illustrated.” Furthermore, the prevalence of this negative state among humans as a whole could not be indicated by a single example but only by reference to a range of incompatible opinions, which is the author’s method.
B) wolves provoke fanciful thinking.
The legend recounts the origin of the wolf’s human-like stare. The author refers to it to illustrate the “powerful influence on the human imagination” exerted by the wolf.
C) people have always revered the wolf.
The legend does not suggest reverence for the wolf (the origin of which it ascribes to a failed project), nor can the attitude it indicates be generalized across time and cultures.
D) wolves resemble humans in certain ways.
The legend itself concerns the resemblance between the direct gaze of wolves and the human stare. The author’s point, however, is not that wolves resemble humans in any way but that because of the boldness of their regard, they influence humans “to explain the feelings that come over them when confronted with that stare” and thus to create such legends.
Solution
Guess
84. In the context of the passage, the word rigorous means: A) unyielding.
While clouds are clearly yielding rather than unyielding, the yielding concept has no such relevance to the passage statement about wolves. The author is not advising readers to yield more to the opinions others express about wolves but to be more cautious in forming any conclusion.
B) harsh.
In expressing the futility of attempting rigor in characterizing wolves, the author is not advising readers to be less harsh in their judgment but to withhold judgment, since “we know little about the wolf”.
C) precise.
“You might as well expect rigor of clouds” indicates the impossibility of being precise in characterizing wolves. The one-sentence paragraph in which rigorous appears thus summarizes the idea expressed in the previous paragraph–that “everything we have been told . . . should have been said . . . with the preface that it is only a perception in a particular set of circumstances”.
D) judgmental.
Although the passage does advocate a less judgmental view of wolves, the context in which rigorous is used – “you might as well expect rigor of clouds” indicates that its intended sense is the antithesis of a quality to be expected of clouds. A lack of judgment is hardly a salient quality of clouds.
Solution
Guess
85. Which of the following statements, if true, would most WEAKEN the author's contention that the wolf is less known than created by us?
A) The incident the author described as a wolf's "winging a piece of caribou hide around like a Frisbee" never in fact occurred.
If even an instance of wolf behavior reported by the passage author were
imaginary, the conclusion that the wolf is a creature of human imagination would be strengthened.
B) Nunamiut Eskimos have very little interaction with wolves, and base their beliefs about wolves on folklore.
If unreliable ideas about wolves were held by even a group living in close proximity to them, the author’s premise would be strengthened.
C) The apparently intelligent behaviors that wolves exhibit, and that people have always found so intriguing, are entirely instinctive.
The issue of whether wolf behaviors indicate intelligence or instinct is irrelevant to the issue of whether these behaviors are generally known to humans.
D) Scientists have produced a wealth of knowledge about the wolf, the preponderance of which corresponds closely to the beliefs of Eskimo and Indian cultures.
If the descriptions of wolf activities provided by Native American observers were confirmed by a large body of scientifically gathered reports, the grounds for skepticism about our knowledge of the wolf would be undermined.
Solution
Guess
86. In organizing a party of natural historians to study wolves, the author would most likely advise them to approach the wolf with:
A) love, because contrary to popular belief, a healthy wolf will seldom harm a human being.
“Wolf-lovers want to say no healthy wolf ever killed anyone in North America, which isn’t true”. Furthermore, the author would be unlikely to be so
B) caution, because wolves are hunters, and some have been known to kill humans. “The Nunamiut Eskimo of the central Brooks Range speak of wolves as hunters”, and wolves “have killed Indians and Eskimos”, so the author would be likely to advise caution in approaching them.
C) contempt, because while they may be similar to domestic dogs, wolves are usually quite dangerous.
To characterize wolves as “quite dangerous” would be an exaggeration. Only “wolf-haters want to say they are born killers, which isn’t true”. Furthermore, the feelings of people in the presence of wolves includes respect, and there is nothing in the tone of the passage to suggest contempt for the subject of its author’s investigations.
D) confidence, because we now know much more about the wolf than we did in the past.
“The truth is we know little about the wolf”, and the natural historians would be making their expedition in order to learn more.
Solution
Guess
87. The 1928 edition of the World Book Encyclopedia defines the wolf as "a rapacious, flesh-eating animal belonging to the dog family" and states that the wolf "lacks [the dog's] courage and loyalty." If the author were to include this description in the passage, it would probably be used to:
A) support the point that wolves are excellent hunters.
The quotation does not mention hunting. It might have been applied to a scavenger.
B) illustrate the point that people often see wolves as being like themselves. Normal persons would be unlikely to describe themselves in this way.
C) emphasize that what we think we know about wolves is often the product of our imagination.
The emotionally toned anthropomorphism of the word rapacious and the
disparaging comparison with the domesticated dog in terms of courage and loyalty (despite the acknowledgment that the wolf belongs “to the dog family”) indicate that the writer of the encyclopedia definition relied at least as much on
D) explain the author's own opinion about wolves.
The author’s description is far from suggesting rapacity, cowardice, or a lack of loyalty: Wolves “share food with the old who do not hunt, and give gifts to each other”, implying both generosity and loyalty. The fact that they hunt caribou, a much larger animal than themselves, implies courage. And they “spend a good deal of time with their young”, another indication of loyalty.
Solution
Guess
93. According to the passage, the internal heat of earth is considered a result of all of the following factors EXCEPT:
A) fluid motions in the outer core.
The movement of the molten outer part of Earth’s core is not mentioned as contributing to its heat. The passage states only that this layer is hundreds of degrees cooler than the inner core.
B) primordial gravitational processes.
The gravitational pressure that caused orbiting gas and dust to coalesce into the primordial planet released enough energy to melt these materials.
C) decay of trapped radioactive elements.
The decay of radioactive elements trapped in Earth’s interior generates heat.
D) primordial separation of heavier from lighter materials.
The separation of the heavier metallic materials that were to form Earth’s center from the lighter silicate minerals that were to form its outer layers generated energy that added to the internal heat of the planet.
Solution
Guess
94. According to the information given in the passage, the amount of heat provided by the sun, in terawatts, is roughly:
A) 42 B) 4,200 C) 42,000
The passage estimates the 42 terawatts released from Earth’s surface as “a thousandth of the heat provided by the sun”. The heat from the sun is therefore a thousand multiplied by 42, or 42,000 terawatts.
D) 42 trillion
Solution
Guess
95. According to the passage, earth's core is predominantly: A) solid and radioactive.
B) gaseous and magnetic. C) fluid and metallic.
The passage states that the inner third of Earth’s core is now solid, implying that the core remains predominantly molten and also mentions “fluid motions in the outer core”. It refers to Earth’s “metallic core?” and to the core’s being “made up mostly of iron and perhaps some nickel”.
D) solid and magnetic.
Solution
Guess
96. According to the passage, the continuous existence of earth's magnetic field is best shown by analysis of the:
A) geological activity at the earth's surface.
Earth’s surface geological activity and its magnetic field are attributed to separate sources of heat from within the planet; the passage does not relate the two
phenomena.
B) magnetic data obtained from rocks.
“Magnetized rocks show that the earth has had a magnetic field for at least three billion years”.
C) electrical conductivity of rocks from the earth's mantle.
In order to sustain Earth’s magnetic field, electrical conductivity must characterize its core, not its mantle: “All these interactions must be working together smoothly in the outer core, for otherwise the dynamo would have long since ceased to function”.
D) conversion of mechanical into electrical energy by rocks.
The energy conversion is explained as a dynamo effect, which is created “by moving a conductive material through a magnetic field”. That is, it is “fluid motions in the outer core”, not the material in motion, that causes the conversion, and this material is the molten iron alloy of the core, not rocks.
Solution
Guess
97. According to the passage, the dynamo theory derives much of its credibility from the fact that it alone can account for the:
A) periodic reversals of the earth's persisting magnetic field.
“The only theory that can explain the persistence of the field and its propensity for reversing itself is the dynamo theory”.
B) weakness of the earth's magnetic field.
Earth’s magnetic field is not characterized as weak.
C) intense heat of the earth's core.
The core heat is attributed to “the planet’s fiery beginning” and to the release of energy “as the heavier materials separated from the lighter ones”, differentiating the core and the mantle.
D) electrical conductivity of the earth's inner core.
The conductivity of the solid inner core is irrelevant to the dynamo theory, which depends on fluid motions in the outer core.
Solution
Guess
98. According to the passage, magnetic fields are primarily by-products of: A) fluid motion.
B) the rotation of the earth. C) mechanical energy. D) electrical currents.
“The earth’s magnetic field, like any other, is a by-product of electric currents”.
Solution
99. The synthesis of geology, physics, chemistry, mathematics, and other disciplines required to develop theories such as the one described would be most similar to t
Guess
artistic inspiration.
Painting styles are variations within a discipline, not separate areas of study, and artistic inspiration is a subjective experience, not an objectively supported theory.
B) the art, history, and technology of antiquity to develop theories about ancient civilizations.
The synthesis of knowledge from the physical sciences and mathematics in a theory of global cooling is the application of a broad understanding of materials and forces to an explanation of past activities. This synthesis therefore resembles the combining of various aspects of antiquity in the development of theories o
civilizations.
C) child, adolescent, and adult problem develop a theory of intelligence. The study of possible age
problem solving does not require the synth disciplines.
D) the effects of different anesthetics to develop a theory of pain.
A comparison of the effectiveness of similar substances in performing a single function does not suggest a need to synthesize separate areas of knowledge.
Solution
Guess
100. The central thesis of the passage is that:
A) we are basically unaware of our conceptual system.
The automatic operation of the conceptual system is mentioned as the reason that it must be studied indirectly, through language, but our lack of awareness of its functioning is not the subject of the passage.
B) a culture can view argument as an aesthetically pleasing dance or as war.
The author uses argument as an example of a concept that is structured by a metaphor, developing the argument that those who view argument as war would not recognize the concept as
used by a culture that views it as dance. This example is
discussed only to serve the argument about the pervasiveness of metaphor.
C) metaphors control our perceptions, thoughts, and actions. The thesis of the passage is stated in the first two paragraphs, elaborated and restated in the next two, and clarified with an example in the remainder of the passage: “Our ordinary conceptual system, in terms of which we both think and act, is fundamentally metaphorical”.
D) metaphor is a poetic as well as a rhetorical device.
The thesis does not concern the conscious use of metaphor, poetically or rhetorically: “metaphor is pervasive in everyday life, not just in language but in thought and action”.
Solution
Guess
communication, since their goal is to defeat “an opponent” through “attack, defense, counterattack, etc.”.
Solution
Guess
102. Given the claims made in the passage, the expressions "She's brimming with vim and vigor," "She's overflowing with vitality," "He's devoid of energy," and "I don't have any energy left at the end of the day" would suggest that:
A) some people have more energy than other people.
The individual differences in energy level that can be inferred from a comparison of the expressions are irrelevant to passage claims, which concern the influence of metaphor on conceptual thought.
B) most people wish that they had more energy.
of the expressions. It is not evident from the metaphor underlying the concept and is therefore unrelated to passage claims.
C) many people think of vitality as a substance.
To characterize energy in the same terms as liquid in a container (brimming, overflowing) or as a quantifiable possession (devoid of, don’t have any) indicates that it is conceptualized as a substance.
D) some people think that vitality affect our ability to argue. Neither the expressions nor the passage suggests a connection between vitality and argumentativeness.
Solution
Guess
103. According to the passage, if a speaker says, "I've never won an argument with him," he or she is most likely thinking that: A) arguments are violent.
One may win something without having engaged in violence.
B) arguments are like contests.
The speaker’s implicit belief that arguments are “won” by one of the participants (rather than settled by both) equates arguments with contests.
C) conceptual systems are metaphorical.
The use of the word win indicates that the speaker’s concept of argument is controlled by the metaphor of a competition or conflict, not that the speaker believes conceptual systems to be metaphorical.
D) competition is unpleasant.
The statement does not reveal an emotional response to
competition–only the speaker’s assumption that arguments, like competitions, have winners and losers.
Solution
Guess
104. The ideas discussed in this passage would likely be of most use to: A) an ambassador to a different culture.
In suggesting that the metaphors underlying abstract concepts may differ with culture, the passage implies a need for
sensitivity in presenting and in interpreting ideas cross-culturally, as an ambassador must do.
B) a senator engaged in a serious debate.
A serious debate engaged in by a senator would probably concern a dispute over legislation or an election, issues that are concerned with overcoming political opposition and for which an aggressive orientation (“argument is war”) may thus be appropriate. Furthermore, the debate would presumably be conducted within a culture, so basic conceptual
misunderstandings would be unlikely. Therefore, attention to the implicit metaphors used in the debate would not serve the
senator.
C) a financial analyst for a large corporation.
The financial analyst would be concerned more with business and economic data that might affect the corporation–verifiable facts–than with concepts likely to be affected by metaphoric thinking.
D) a general preparing for battle.
The general would be preparing for a real battle, not a metaphorical one, a situation to which the philosophical and psychological ideas of the passage would have little
applicability.
Solution
105. An appropriate theory of metaphor derived from the information contained in the passage would state that metaphor involves:
I. understanding one thing in terms of another. II. experiencing one thing in terms of another.
Guess A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) I, II, and III
The idea that metaphor permeates all three aspects of conceptual functioning is stressed throughout the passage – e.g., “metaphor is pervasive in everyday life, not just in language but in thought and action. Our ordinary conceptual system, in terms of which we both think and act, is fundamentally metaphorical”. The three ways in which metaphor influences thought are also explicitly stated in reference to the hypothetical case of a culture with a dance metaphor for the argument concept: “In such a culture, people would view arguments differently [option I], experience them differently [option II], carry them out differently, and talk about them differently [option III]”.
Solution
Guess
106. The expression "This is driving me around the bend" would best support a metaphor that compares madness to:
A) a location.
The pronoun this refers to a source of stress that has the power to drive one to madness, which is conceptualized as a location that is “around the bend.”
B) a vehicle.
A vehicle is not invoked; one is being driven in the sense of being impelled onward before some force. And one is driven toward madness, not by madness.
C) a road.
Although the concept of a bend suggests a road, it is a road that one is on before reaching the bend around which lies madness, so madness is not the road itself.
D) a force.
The driving force is not madness but the stressful circumstance referred to as this.
Solution
Guess
107. According to information in the passage, the best way to conduct an argument with someone from a culture that views an argument as a dance would be to:
A) methodically attack the person's weaker claims.
The idea that some of the ideas expressed in an argument are “weaker” than others implies a war metaphor. In exchanging ideas with someone who considers argument a dance for two, an appropriate response to claims that seemed tentative or
incompletely supported might be to elaborate them, to ask about their implications, to consider their usefulness, etc., but not to attack them.
B) calmly respond to the person's charges.
Since the “charge” would not be intended as an attack but as a movement in an interactive performance, the appropriate response would be considered and graceful.
C) explain that arguments are not like dances.
Since “our conceptual system is not something we are normally aware of”, one is not apt to notice the metaphor controlling his or her own style of arguing and so would be unlikely to identify that of another culture. “We would probably not view them as arguing at all”.
D) irrationally defend your position.
Defense is unnecessary when there is no attack. Furthermore, irrationality would be unlikely to contribute to a performance that was “balanced and aesthetically pleasing”.
Solution
108. Which of the following statements is NOT presented as evidence for the metaphorical conceptual system on which arguments are supposedly based?
A) We gain and lose ground. “We gain and lose ground”.
Guess B) We attack an opponent's position.
“We see the person we are arguing with as an opponent. We attack his positions”.
C) We plan and use strategies. “We plan and use strategies”.
D) We claim that criticisms are on target.
The passage does not cite a metaphoric use of the term on target.
Solution
Guess
109. According to the passage, many people think that they can get along very well without metaphor because they believe that metaphor is:
I. used only by rhetoricians and poets.
II. a characteristic of language but not of thought. III. a device that alters one's perception of reality. A) II only
Option II is true but incomplete.
B) III only
Option III: “Our concepts structure what we perceive”, and “our conceptual system is largely metaphorical”. These assertions express the author’s belief that metaphor alters perception. They do not imply that this effect is widely understood or is believed to constitute a reason for considering metaphor expendable.
C) I and II only
Option I: “Metaphor is for most people a device of the poetic imagination and the rhetorical flourish”. Option II: “Metaphor is typically viewed as a characteristic of language alone, a matter of words rather than thought”. “For these reasons, most people think they can get along perfectly well without metaphor”.
D) I, II, and III See rationale B.
Solution
Guess
110. The author's central thesis is that:
A) promises, commitments, excuses, pleas, and pacts are verbal conventions. Not only are promises, commitments, pleas, and pacts not the focus of the passage; the passage author implicitly deplores the degeneration of such performative utterances from sacred rituals into empty verbal conventions: “these . . . are ceremonies or they are nothing”.
B) li is effective in controlling the behavior of others.
The effectiveness of li in directing behavior (inducing a student to bring one a book) is mentioned only as an example of its incidental power to
accomplish physical ends; it “can also be used” in this way. Furthermore, the willful control of others would be antithetical to the concept of li presented.
C) performative utterances are more honest than are stated intentions.
The honesty of performative utterances is not at issue. They are discussed only to provide Western examples of the Eastern idea of binding,
ceremonious words.
D) the powers that are uniquely human are revealed in traditional ceremonies. The thesis topic is “the truly, distinctively human powers” considered by Confucius. The central thesis about these powers is that they must be approached “by way of the notion of li”, the meaning of which “is close to ‘holy ritual,’ ‘sacred ceremony’”. This thesis is elaborated throughout the passage.
Solution
Guess
111. The passage suggests that Confucius would be most likely to endorse which of the following reasons to use li?
A) It acknowledges the dignity of others.
The idea that unlike coercion, which violates the dignity of others, “li works through spontaneous coordination rooted in reverent dignity” is traced to Confucius.
B) It works invisibly through magical powers.
The powers that are distinctively human have “a magical quality”. Implicitly, these powers are the “invisible and intangible” forces of li: Through ceremonious
is magical figuratively in its results, not literally in its means. It is “rooted in reverent dignity”, not in the occult.
C) It does not require the expenditure of effort.
The idea that the practice of li does not involve effort is presented as an aspect of its magical quality, not as a reason for its use.
D) It avoids the risks involved in using force.
The passage does not suggest that risk avoidance is a valid reason to strive for “the perfection in Holy Rite”.
Solution
Guess
112. Which of the following assertions does the author support with an example? I. Some human powers have a magical quality.
II. Words can function as actions.
III. Much of human existence consists of ceremony. A) I only
Option I is true but incomplete.
B) III only
Option III is asserted, but “much of human existence” is so broad and vague a concept that no example of it could be offered.
C) I and II only
Option I: “A book from my office” that appears “in my hands, as I wished” is an example supporting the assertion that some human powers have a magical quality. Option II: “I give and bequeath my watch to my brother” is an example supporting the assertion that words can function as actions.
D) II and III only See rationale B.
Solution
Guess
113. The powers discussed by Confucius are described as “magical.” What is the most likely reason for the choice of this word?
A) The word directs attention to the power behind ordinary social conventions. The adjective magical refers to powers “so familiar and universal as to be unnoticed”. This context, as well as that in which the noun magic later appears, expresses a sense of wonder at the effectiveness of conventional social forms: The only action taken is “the proper ritual expression of my wish,” yet the wish is accomplished without “effort on my part”. The magical quality of such
transactions is emphasized by the phrases “merely express ... my wish” and “in almost no time” as well as by an exclamation point.
B) The rituals involved in li harness supernatural phenomena.
There is no suggestion that the revelations of Confucius concerned supernatural methods. The dimension of human existence to which the word magical is applied is unnoticed only because it is “already so familiar and universal”.
C) These powers can be learned only from Confucian masters of the occult.
The occult is not invoked, and although “one has to labor long and hard to learn li”, there is no suggestion that the services of a master are required. The difficulty in acquiring “the ability to act according to li and the will to submit to li” is not that the concept is difficult to understand but that its perfection “is esthetic as well as spiritual”.
D) Those with these powers can move physical objects through the use of words alone.
The moving of objects by means of words is presented as an incidental aspect of li: It “can also be used to accomplish physical ends, although we usually do not think of it this way”. Furthermore, in the example of a book that appears without being actively sought by the author, the words do not act on the desired object but on “one of my students”, who willingly delivers it.
Solution
Guess
114. According to the passage, which of the following sentences is/are performative utterances?
I. Please help me. II. I promise to help. III. May I help you?
A) I only
A request (option I) does not constitute the performance of an act by the speaker. Rather, it is a “stimulus to” action by another.
B) II only
Option II is a performative utterance because to utter the words “I promise” is to commit oneself through one’s words. The utterance is “the very execution of the act [of commitment] itself”, in the same way as “‘I give and bequeath my watch’ . . . is not a report of what I have already done but is the very act of bequeathal”.
C) I and III only
A question (option III) does not constitute the performance of an act by the speaker. Rather, it is a “stimulus to” action by another–that of replying.
D) II and III only See rationale C.
Solution
Guess
115. The author suggests that Confucius considered the ceremonies of society to be “holy” because they are:
A) expressions of respect.
The adjective holy refers to ritual, the concept in which the Confucian term li originated, indicating that Confucius revered tradition. In the discussion of the teachings of Confucius, the description of conventions as “authentic” and
“reasonable”, the association of li with “reverent dignity”, and the contrast drawn between the user of li and one who uses coercive means further imply that for Confucius, the holiness of ceremonies derived from the respect for self, for others, and for tradition that they express.
B) divinely sanctioned laws.
The passage does not suggest that Confucius believed in the existence of a divine lawgiver capable of sanctioning social conventions.
C) customary in refined society.
The ceremonies extolled by Confucius conveyed “distinctively human powers”. They were not the ephemeral customs of a privileged class but a “familiar and universal . . . dimension of [human] existence”.
D) performed by holy persons.
Although “one has to labor long and hard to learn li”, and although without li, one cannot possess “that perfect and peculiarly human virtue or power”, there is no suggestion that only holy persons succeed in learning to perform social
ceremonies or that persons who practice holy rites become holy themselves.
Solution
Guess
116. What does Austin's concept of performative utterances imply about language? A) Language has no direct relationship to actions.
Austin’s idea is that language sometimes is the action to which it refers.
B) Language is sometimes used to conceal facts.
Although performative utterances may sometimes be intended to conceal facts– e.g., a false declaration made under oath–this use of language is not implicit in the concept.
C) Language and actions can be inseparable.
Austin’s idea, that “innumerable statements . . . are the very execution of the act itself” means that in declarations in which the verb refers to one’s own current linguist act (I admit . . ., I assure you . . ., I name you . . .), language is inseparable from the action being taken.
D) Language is necessary for social conventions.
The idea that social conventions involve ritual words (but not that they require them) is implicit in the passage. However, this idea is not implied by the concept of performative utterances, which refers to particular forms of ceremonial speech, not to social conventions in general.
Solution
117. The author argues that people bind themselves more inescapably through words or ceremony than through strategies or force. Which of the following claims, if true, would most WEAKEN the argument?
A) People rarely try to meet their moral obligations.
Moral obligations are often expressed socially by ceremonial vows and promises. A general tendency to violate moral obligations would therefore directly
Guess contravene the argument that one’s own words and the ceremonies in which one participates are more binding on one’s behavior than are external constraints.
B) People rarely act ceremoniously.
A rarity of ceremonious actions would not indicate that they are not considered binding. On the contrary – it would suggest an appreciation of their seriousness.
C) People often respond to force or strategies.
The demonstrated power of external forces to compel behavior is irrelevant to the argument that the force of ceremoniously undertaken obligations is even stronger.
D) People often avoid making promises.
A disinclination to make promises would not indicate that such ceremonious acts are not considered binding (see response B).
Solution
Guess
118. According to the author's account, a Confucian would be likely to place a high value on a person who is:
A) gifted at creating magical illusions.
The “forces at work in li are invisible and intangible”, but they are also “familiar and universal” in humans, not illusory, and there is no suggestion that they create illusions. The idea of giftedness also seems antithetical to Confucian thought, not only because of the universality of the powers it concerns but because of the difficulty of perfecting them through li.
B) sensitive to the feelings evoked by ceremonial acts.
The author suggests that a Confucian would value those who show consideration for others by equating the ceremonious manner and ritual speech of li with politeness: “I turn politely, i.e., ceremonially . . . [and] express in an appropriate and polite (ritual) formula my wish”.
C) clever in applying techniques of verbal persuasion.
Cleverness in the manipulation of others implies a lack of the reverence and spiritual qualities that characterize li. The term verbal techniques also trivializes the Confucian concept of “sacred” forces.
The Confucian teachings did not concern philosophical abstractions but “the entire body of the authentic tradition and reasonable conventions of society”, and the passage suggests that a Confucian would value a practitioner of li more highly than a teacher of abstract ideas. Furthermore, the word talented implies inherent ability, whereas “one has to labor long and hard to learn li”.
Solution
Guess
119. People often use conventionally polite words and behavior toward those whom they do not respect. What question might this information reasonably suggest about the author's explanation of li?
A) Whether the forces at work in li are necessarily invisible
Whether a disrespectful attitude can be detected beneath superficial politeness is irrelevant to the invisible forces at work in li, which are “rooted in reverent dignity”.
B) Whether li might not be just cynical manipulation See rationale A.
C) Whether the English words “ritual” and “ceremony” adequately convey the reverence of li
The fact that in our culture, the conventions of politeness often mask an underlying lack of respect suggests that the spiritual quality of the Confucian teachings about traditional forms is not adequately conveyed by such English nouns as ritual and ceremony. This consideration probably influenced the author to modify these nouns with the adjectives holy and sacred when using them in reference to li.
D) Whether li might express contempt as well as respect See rationale A.
Solutio n
Guess
120. The author's claim that some popular songwriters can be "dedicated, energetic poets" is supported by:
A) the testimony of some literature teachers. Although some teachers of literature are exempted from the general indifference that the passage author considers common, no testimony from them is cited.
B) examples of popular song lyrics. No example of song lyrics is provided.
C) comparison with more academic poets. These song writers are “more interesting than many of the . . . randy academics”.
D) an analysis of Coleridge's poetry.
The name Coleridge is simply mentioned as an item on a curriculum.
Solution
Guess
121. The author most likely believes that one of the main purposes of teaching fiction and poetry should be to provide students with:
A) an awareness of major literary themes.
The author writes disparagingly and rather sarcastically of this restriction in literary instruction: “since the life-enhancing value of a course in literature is difficult to measure–since, moreover, many people in a position to put pressure on educational programs have no real experience in or feeling for the arts–it is often tempting to treat life-enhancement courses as courses in useful information . . . [so] books are taught . . . because, as a curriculum committee might put it, they ‘illustrate major themes in American literature’”.
B) a sense of objectivity.
Putting a course in literature “on the same ‘objective’ level as courses in civics, geometry, or elementary physics” is attributed to ignorance.
C) an ability to analyze texts.
Although the passage author acknowledges that the message of anthologies designed to teach analysis “is in important ways true”, the passage opposes the classroom emphasis on form: “the whole idea of the close critical analysis of literary works has had the accidental side effect of leading to the notion that the chief virtue of good poetry and fiction is instructional”.
D) engaging experiences.
The passage author evidently believes that “the business of education is to give the student life-enhancing experience”, “the incomparably rich experience we ask and expect of all true art”, “experiences that can delight and enliven the soul”.
