1.What is associated with: Starry sky pattern? Burkitt's lymphoma 2.Which organ most commonly recieves mets? Adrenal gland (rich bld supply)
3.What is the most common testicular tumor in children? in Men? Yolk sac tumor, Seminoma
4.What is associated with: Auer's rods? Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M3
5.What is associated with: Aschoff's bodies? Rheumatic fever 6.What is associated with: Birbeck granules? Histiocytosis X
7.What is associated with: Neurofibrillary tangles? Alzheimer's disease
8.What is associated with: Bence-Jones proteinuria? Multiple myeloma
9.What is associated with: Cal-Exner bodies? Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
10.What is associated with: Cowdry type A bodies? Herpes virus 11.What is associated with: Codman's triangle on an x-ray? Osteosarcoma
12.What is associated with: Councilman bodies? Toxic or viral hepatitis
13.What is associated with: Calf pseudohypertrophy? Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
14.What is associated with: Reed-Sternberg cells? Hodgkin's lymphoma
15.What is associated with: Heinz bodies? G-6-PD deficiency 16.What is associated with: Homer-Wright rosettes? Neuroblastoma 17.What is associated with: Curschmann's spirals? Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
18.What is associated with: Kayser-Fleischer rings? Wilson's disease 19.What is associated with: Lewy bodies? Parkinson's disease
20.What is associated with: Orphan Annie cells? Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
21.What is associated with: Russell bodies? Multiple myeloma 22.What is associated with: Reinke's crystals? Leydig cell tumor 23.What is associated with: Blue sclera? Osteogenesis imperfecta 24.What is associated with: Soap-bubble appearance on an x-ray? Giant cell tumorof the bone
25.What is associated with: Pseudorosettes? Ewing's sarcoma 26.What is associated with: Lucid interval? Epidural hematoma
27.What is associated with: Bloody tap on lumbar puncture? Subarachnoid hemorrhage
28.What is associated with: Pseudopalisades? Glioblastoma multiforme
29.What is associated with: Charcot-Leyden crystals? Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
30.What is associated with: Cafe au fait spot on the skin? Neurofibromatosis
31.What is associated with: Streaky ovaries? Turner's syndrome 32.What is associated with: Keratin pearls? Squamous cell carcinoma 33.What is associated with: Signet ring cells? Gastric carcinoma 34.What is associated with: Mallory's bodies? Chronic alcoholism 35.What is associated with: Blue-domed cysts? Fibrocystic change of the breast
36.What is associated with: Schiller-Duval bodies? Yolk sac tumor 37.What is associated with: Senile plaques? Alzheimer's disease 38.What is associated with: WBCs in the urine? Acute cystitis
39.What is associated with: RBCs in the urine? Bladder carcinoma 40.What is associated with: RBC casts in the urine? Acute glomerulonephritis
41.What is associated with: WBC casts in the urine? Acute pyelonephritis
42.What is associated with: Renal epithelial casts in the urine? Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
43.What is associated with: Waxy casts? Chronic end-stage renal disease
44.What is the most common: Cause of chronic metal poisoning? Lead
45.What is the most common: Cause of congenital cyanotic heart disease? Tetralogy of Fallot
46.What is the most common: Congenital cardiac anomaly? Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
47.What is the most common: Cardiac tumor? Left atrial myxoma 48.What is the most common: Vasculitis? Temporal arteritis
49.What is the most common: Primary tumor of the liver? Hemangioma (benign)
50.What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the lungs? Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
51.What is the most common: Cause of nephrotic syndrome? Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis
52.What is the most common: cause of nephrotic syndrome in children? Lipoid nephrosis
53.What is the most common: Organism that causes pyelonephritis? Escherichia coli
54.What is the most common: Renal cell cancer type? Clear cell
55.What is the most common: Tumor of the liver? Metastatic cancer (GI, breast, lungs)
56.What is the most common: Malignant tumor of the esophagus? Squamous cell carcinoma
57.What is the most common: Tumor arising within the bone? Multiple myeloma
58.What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tractin the world? Cervical neoplasia
59.What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tractin the US? Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
60.What is the most common: Tumor of the female genitourinary tract? Leiomyoma
61.What is the most common: Benign tumor of the ovary? Serocystadenoma
62.What is the most common: Benign tumor of the breast? Fibroadenoma
63.What is the most common: Benign lesion that affects the breast? Fibrocystic change of the breast
64.What is the most common: Malignant tumor of the breast? Invasive ductal carcinoma
65.What is the most common: Tumor in men between the ages of 15 and 35? Testicular tumors
66.What is the most common: Germ cell tumor in men? Seminoma 67.What is the most common: Testicular tumor in infants and children? Yolk sactumor
68.What is the most common: Malignant germ cell tumor in women? Choriocarcinoma
69.What is the most common: Solid tumor in the body? Nephroblastoma
70.What is the most common: Acquired GI emergency of infancy? Necrotizing enterocolitis of infancy
71.What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the ovary? Serocystadenocarcinoma
72.What is the most common: Cardiac tumor of infancy? Rhabdomyoma
73.What is the most common: Acute metal poisoning? Arsenic
74.What is the most common: Proliferative abnormality of an internal organ?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
75.What is the most common: Malignant tumor in the bone of teenagers? Osteosarcoma
76.What is the most common: Site of a cerebral infarct? Middle cerebral artery
77.What is the most common: Cause of dementia between the ages of 60 and 90 years? Alzheimer's disease
78.What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor in adults? Glioblastoma multiforme
79.What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor in children? Medullablastoma
80.What is the most common: Tumor on sun-exposed sites? Basal cell carcinoma
81.What is the most common: Chromosomal disorder? Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
82.What is the most common: Heart defect in Down syndrome? Endocardial cushion defect
83.What is the most common: Chromosomal disorder involving sex chromosomes? Kleinfelter's syndrome
84.What is the most common: Cardiac pathology in patients with SLE? Libman-Sacks endocarditis
85.What is the most common: Cause of urinary tract obstruction? BPH
86.What is the most common: Eye tumor in children? Retinoblastoma 87.What is the most common: Intraspinal tumor? Ependymoma
88.What is the most common: Lymph node affected in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma? Periaortic lymph nodes
89.What is the most common: Renal pathology in patients with SLE? Diffuse proliferative GN
90.What is the most common: Cause of cirrhosis in the USA? Alcohol 91.What is the most common: Malignant tumor in women? Breast 92.What is the most common: Cancer of the vulva? Squamous cell carcinoma
93.What is the most common: Testicular tumor in children? Yolk sac tumor
94.What is the most common: Benign GI tumor? Leiomyoma 95.What is the most common: Thyroid cancer? Papillary carcinoma 96.What is the most common: Malignancy in children? ALL
97.What is the most common: Cause of diarrhea in children? Rotavirus
98.What is the most common: Cause of hospitalization in children younger than 1 year of age? Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
99.What is the most common: Helminthic parasite worldwide? Ascaris lumbricoides
100.What is the most common: Cause of anovulation? Polycystic ovaries
101.What is the most common: Cause of death in neonates? Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
102.What is the most common: Cardiac anomaly in children? Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
103.What is the most common: Congenital heart defect in adults? Atrial septal defect (ASD)
104.What is the most common: Complication of PDA? Subacute bacterial endocarditis
105.What is the most common: Cardiac anomaly in Turner's syndrome? Coarctation of the aorta
106.What is the most common: Cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy? Amyloidosis
107.What is the most common: Cause of pulmonary hypertension in children? VSD
108.What is the most common: Cause of reversible hypertension in the USA? Alcohol abuse
109.What is the most common: Inflammatory arthritis? Rheumatoid arthritis
110.What is the most common: Cause of spontaneous pneumothorax? Emphysematous bleb
111.What is the most common: Cause of nonorganic pneumoconiosis? Asbestosis
112.What is the most common: Cause of painless hematuria? Renal cell carcinoma
113.What is the most common: Cause of hematuria? Infection
114.What is the most common: Hematologic cause of papillary necrosis? Sickle cell disease
115.What is the most common: Organ involved in amyloidosis? Kidney
116.What is the most common: Cause of abnormal bleeding? Thrombocytopenia
117.What is the most common: Cause of a nontraumatic splenic rupture? Malaria
118.What is the most common: Cause of death in SLE? Renal failure 119.What is the most common: Cause of infection for a patient on a ventilator? Pseudomonas aeruginosa
120.What is the most common: Esophageal carcinoma? Squamous cell carcinoma
121.What is the most common: Cause of chronic pancreatitis? Alcohol abuse
122.What is the most common: Cause of infectious pancreatitis? Mumps
123.What is the most common: Complication of nasogastric tube feeding? Aspiration pneumonia
124.What is the most common learning disability? Dyslexia 125.What is the most common: Cause of insomnia? Depression 126.What is the most common: Form of necrosis? Coagulative
127.What is the most common: Cause of blindness worldwide? Chlamydia trachomatis
128.What is the most common: Cause of blindness in the USA? Diabetes mellitus{india ---vit a deficieny}
129.What is the most common: Cause of the croup? Parainfluenza virus
130.What is the most common: Cause of a cold in the winter and summer? Coronavirus
131.What is the most common: Cause of a cold in the spring and fall? Rhinovirus
132.What is the most common: Cause of viral pneumonia leading to death? RSV
133.What is the most common: Pituitary tumor? Chromophobe adenoma
134What is the most common: Cause of panhypopituitarism? Sheehan's syndrome
135.What is the most common: Cause of Cushing's syndrome? Pituitary adenoma
136.What is the most common: Kidney stone type? Calcium oxalate 137.What is the most common: Site of ischemia in the GI tract? Splenic flexure
138.What is the most common: Cause of intestinal obstructions in adults? Adhesions and hernias
139.What is the most common: Cause of neonatal bowel obstruction? Hirschsprung's disease
140.What is the most common: Cause of rectal bleeding? Diverticulosis
141.What chromosomal translocation is associated with: Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML? Chromosome 9,22 (Philadelphia chromosome)
142.What chromosome: Ewing's sarcoma? Chromosome 11,22 143.What chromosome: Adult familial polyposis? Chromosome 5,21 144.What chromosome: Burkitt's lymphoma? Chromosome 8,14
145.What chromosome: Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)? Chromosome 15,17
146.What chromosome: Follicular lymphoma? Chromosome 14,18 147.What chromosome is associated with: Cru di chat? Chromosome 5p
148.What chromosome: Patau's syndrome? Chromosome 13 149.What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis I? Chromosome 17 150.What chromosome: Huntington's disease? Chromosome 4p 151.What chromosome: Familial hypercholesterolemia?
Chromosome 19
152.What chromosome: Gaucher's disease? Chromosome 1 153.What chromosome: Neimann-Pick disease? Chromosome 11p 154.What chromosome: Tay-Sachs disease? Chromosome 15q 155.What chromosome: Cystic fibrosis? Chromosome 7
156.What chromosome: Albinism? Chromosome llp
157.What chromosome: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)? Chromosome 12
158.What chromosome: Marfan's disease? Chromosome 15 159.What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis II? Chromosome 22q 160.What chromosome: Down syndrome? Chromosome 21 161.What chromosome: Edward's syndrome? Chromosome 18
162.What mineral is associated with impaired glucose tolerance? Chromium (Cr)
163.What mineral is associated with hypothyroidism? Iodine (I)
164.What mineral is an important component of the enzyme xanthine oxidase? Molybdenum (Mb)
165.What vitamin deficiency has the following signs: angular stomatitis, glossitis, and cheilosis? Riboflavin (B2) deficiency
166.What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)? Thymine (Bl)
167.Avidin decreases the absorption of what vitamin? Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
168.What are the four Ds of niacin deficiency? 1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
169.What mineral is an important component of glutathione peroxidase? Selenium (Se)
170.What mineral deficiency in children is associated with poor growth and impaired sexual development? Zinc (Zn) deficiency
171.What mineral, via excessive depositions in the liver, causes hemochromatosis? Iron (Fe)
172.What vitamin is needed in the production of heme? Pyridoxine(B6)
173.What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty acid synthase and acyl CoA? Pantothenic acid
174.What vitamin deficiency has the following signs: homocysteinuria and methylmalonic aciduria? Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency [Folic acid deficiency has only homocysteinuria as a sign.]
175.What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by the following signs: poor wound healing, loose teeth, bleeding gums, petechiae, and ecchymosis? Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)
176.What vitamin is given as prophylactic treatment for patients who suffer from alcoholism? Thiamine (B1)-to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's encephalopathy
177.What are the three carboxylase enzymes that require biotin? 1. Pyruvate 2. Acetyl CoA 3.Propionyl CoA carboxylase
178.What vitamin requires intrinsic factor (IF) for absorption? Cyanocobalamin (B12)
179.What mineral is a component of cytochrome a/a3? Copper (Cu) 180.Leukopenia, neutropenia, and mental deterioration are signs of what mineral deficiency? Copper (Cu) deficiency
181.What vitamin deficiency causes a glove-and-stocking neuropathy seen in alcoholics? Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency
182.What mineral deficiency involves blood vessel fragility? Copper (Cu) deficiency
183.Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin deficiency? Folic acid deficiency
184.What is the antidote for an overdose with: Carbon monoxide? Oxygen
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Mercury? Dimercaprol What is the antidote for an overdose with: Isoniazid? Pyridoxine What is the antidote for an overdose with: Atropine? Physostigmine What is the antidote for an overdose with: Arsenic?
Dimercaprol, D-penicillamine
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Digoxin? Antidigoxin Fab fragments
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Gold? Dimercaprol What is the antidote for an overdose with: Ethylene glycol? Ethyl alcohol
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Opiates/narcotics? Naloxone, naltrexone
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Organophosphates? Atropine, 2-PAM
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Copper? D-Penicillamine What is the antidote for an overdose with: Heparin? Protamine sulfate What is the antidote for an overdose with: Iron? Deferoxamine
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Cyanide? Amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, or sodium thiosulfate
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Methyl alcohol? Ethyl alcohol
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Acetaminophen? N-Acetylcysteine
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Nitrates? Methylene blue What is the antidote for an overdose with: Lead? EDTA (calcium disodium edetate), dimercaprol, succimer
1.What structure is derived from the prochordal plate? The mouth 2.What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin? Spleen
3.In which direction and how far does the gut rotate? Counterclockwise 270 degrees
4.What structure connects the primitive gut to the yolk sac? The yolk stalk (vitelline duct)
5.What is the artery of the embryonic foregut? The celiac artery 6.When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? 6 weeks 7.When does it return back into the embryo? 10 weeks
8.What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo? Omphalocele and gastroschisis
9.Around what structure does the midgut rotate? Superior mesenteric artery
10.What three things cause the indifferent gonad to become a testis? 1.Testis-determining factor (TDF) from the short arm of the Y
chromosome 2.Miillerian inhibiting factor (MIF) from Sertoli cells 3.Testosterone from Leydig cells
11.Where does the embryologic foregutend? At the first part of the duodenum
12.What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut? The inferior mesenteric artery
13.What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion? 1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Symcytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembrvonic mesoderm 14.Which neuropore closes last? Caudal-and it is the first to open, too.
15.What is the artery of the embryonic midgut? The superior mesenteric artery
16.From where are nephrons derived embryonically? Metanephros 17.What are the five derivatives of the ventral mesentery? 1. Falciform ligament 2. Hepatoduodenal ligament 3. Hepatogastric ligament 4 and 5. Coronary andtriangular ligaments of the liver. All else is derived from the dorsal mesentery.
18.When do the septum primum and the septum secundum of the heart fuse? After birth
19.The cerebral cortex is a derivative of what? The telencephalon 20.What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Umbilical vein?Ligamentum teres
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Ductus venosus? Ligamentum venosum
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Foramen ovule? Fossa ovule
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Ductus arteriosus? Ligamentum arteriosum
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Umbilical artery? Medial umbilical ligament
21.Where does the hindgut end? At the superior portion of the anal canal
22.Where does the midgut end? At the right two thirds of the transverse colon
23.From where is the tongue musculature derived? Occipital somites 24.What two branchial arches contribute to the formation of the anterior two thirds of the tongue? First and some of the second
25.What are the two fourth pharyngeal pouch derivatives? Superior parathyroid glands and the ultimobranchial body
26.What two structures are derived from the fourth aortic arch? Arch of the aort
a and the right subclavian artery
27.What adult structures are derived from preotic somites? Muscles of the i
nternal eye
28.What structure is derived from the first pharyngeal pouch? The middle ear
29.What two branchial arches contribute to the posterior two thirds of the tongu
e? Third and part of the fourth
30.What are the two third pharyngeal pouch derivatives? Inferior parathyroid gla
nds and the thymus
31.What structure is derived from the first aortic arch? Maxillary artery 32.From what are the urinary bladder and the urethra derived? Urogenital sinus
33.From what are the pulmonary trunk and the ascending aorta derived? Truncus
arteriosum
34.What disorder will result when there is a failure of the urachus to close, ca
using a leakage of urine out of the umbilicus? Urachal fistula
35.The common carotid and the internal carotid arteries are derivatives of what
embryonic structure? Third aortic arch
36.The palatine tonsils are derived from what embryonic structure? Second p
haryngeal pouch
37.What are the sixth aortic arch derivatives? Right and left pulmonary arterie
s and the ductus arteriosus
38.The stapedial artery is derived from what? Second aortic arch 39.The mesonephric ducts contribute to what renal structures? The collecting d
ucts, calyx, renal pelvis, and ureters
40.Of what embryonic structureis the coronary sinus a derivative? The left
horn of the sinus venosus
41.What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: First pharyngeal arch?
CN V
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Second pharyngeal arch? CN VII
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Third pharyngeal arch? CN IX
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fourth pharyngeal arch? CN X
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fifth pharyngeal arch? None-it
degenerates
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Sixth pharyngeal arch? CN X
42.From where is the external auditory meatus derived? First pharyngeal groove
43.From where is the smooth portion of the right atrium derived? Right ho
rn of the sinus venosus
44.Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of what embryonic structure? Vitellin
e duct (yolk stalk)
45.The pons and cerebellum are derived from what portion of the embryonic neural
tissue? Metencephalon
46.The medulla is a derivative of what portion of the embryonic neural tissue?
Myelencephalon
47.What structure "tells" the overlying cells to begin neurulation? The noto
chord
48.What structure splits the cloacal membrane, resulting in the formation of the
perineum? Urorectal septum
49.In the adult, the thoracic veins are derived from what structure? The card
inal veins
50.The gastrointestinal tract and abdominal veins are derived from what structur
e? Vitelline veins
51.From what is the thyroid gland derived? The floor of the endoderm (the p
osterior aspect of the tongue)
52.The thalamus and its related structures are derivatives of what? The dien
cephalon
1.Transcriptionally active DNA is known as what? Euchromatin 2.Transcriptionally inactive DNA is called? Heterochromatin
3.What is the only histone not found inside the nucleosomes? H1 histone-Its f
unction is to bind nucleosomes together.
4.What coating protects proteins from intracellular degradation? Clathrin
coating
5.A nucleosome is made up of what two components? Histories and DNA
6.What are the four functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)? 1. Stero
id synthesis 2. Drug detoxification 3. Ca2+ handling 4. TAG resynthesis
7.What are the long microvilli found in the inner ear and the male reproductive
tract called? Stereocilia
8.What cell junction type allows for communication between two adjacent cells?
Gap junctions (nexus)
9.Where are the enzymes for ATP production and the ETC located? Inner fold of th
e mitochondria membrane
10.What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has act
in randomly assorted within its structure? Microvillus
11.What is the function of desmosomes? To hold adjacent cells together (i.e., a
dhesion)
12.What is the microtubule configuration of a basal body? 9 + 0 microtubul
e arrangement
13.What are the four components of the basement membrane? 1. Laminin 2. He
paran sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen 14.The proteins that are to stay within the cell are produced by what organelle?
Free polysome (polyribosome)
15.What is the lysosomal post- translational modification of proteins? Phosphor
ylation of mannose residues
16,What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium
has a 9 + 2 microtubular configur- ation and movement as its function? Cilia
17.What protein binds hemidesmosomes to the basal lamina? Integrin 18.What intermediate filament is found in the zona adherens? Actin 19.The proteins to be exported or incorporated into the lysosome are produced by
what organelle? Bound polysome (polyribosome), attached to rough endopla
smic reticulum (RER)
20.What is the function of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens?
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable b
arrier
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Desmin
? Muscle cells
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Cytoke
ratins? Epithelial cells
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Viment
in? Mesenchymal cells
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Neurof
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Glial
filaments? Astrocytes
21.The basal lamina + the reticular lamina = what? The basement membrane
22.What is the name of the organelle where collagen is made? Rough endoplasmi
c reticulum (RER)
23.What vitamin is needed for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collage
n synthesis? Vitamin C - {DEFICIENCY--Survy}
24.What are the two amino acids that cross-link elastin molecules? Desmosin
e and isodesmosine
25.What is the major inorganic component of bone? Hydroxyapatite 26.What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system? Osteocla
sts
27.What are the two types of cells located in the perichondrium of cartilage?
Fibroblasts and chondroblasts
28.What cell in the CNS is part of the mononuclear phagocytic system? Microgli
a{CNS PHAGOCYTE}
29.What substance, found in eosinophils, is toxic to parasitic worms? Major ba
sic protein
30.Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril? Extracellularly
31.What cell surface extension allows osteocytes in the lacunaeto "talk" to each
other? Canaliculi
32.What cell type produces myelin in the CNS? Oligodendrocytes 33.In which ventricles is/are choroid plexus found? All four ventricles 34.What muscle type has calmodulin? Smooth muscle
35.What element is needed for the proper alignment of the tropocollagen molecule
s? Copper (Cu+)
36.What is added to the procollagen molecules to prevent intracellular precipita
tion? Registration peptides
37.In what tissue can you find intercalated disks? Cardiac muscle 38.What are intercalated disks? Dense bands containing intercellular junctions t
hat link adjacent cells mechanically and electrically
39.Of what are intercalated disks composed? Fascia adherens (mainly) Desmoso
mes Gap junctions
40.What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone? Chondroitin sulfate and
keratan sulfate
41.What is the only glycosamino- glycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion o
f the proteoglycan? Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core portion)
42.What is the portion of an axon that lacks myelin and is rich in Na+/K+ pumps?
Node of Ranvier
43.What type of CNS cells have cilia, line the ventricles, and contribute to the
blood-brain barrier? Ependymal cells
44.What are the largest glial cells in the CNS (Hint: They contribute to the blo
od- brain barrier.)? Astrocytes
45.Myelin is produced by what type of PNS cells? Schwann cells 46.What is the dominant cell type in the lacunae of cartilage? Chondrocytes
47.What structure runs perpendicular to the Haversian canals in the bone?
Volkmann's canal
48.What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinoc
ytosis by the capillaries
49.What types of muscle have troponin? Skeletal and cardiac
50.What type of muscle is uninuclear and nonstriated? Smooth muscle - it lacks
T tubules and has gap junctions
51.On what area of the spleen are the APC{antigen presenting cells}s located?
Marginal zone
52.What is the dominant cell type in the red pulp of the spleen? Red bloo
d cells
53.On what area of the lymph node can you locate plasma cells? Medulla
54.What is the name of the area in the thymus where T cells are produced?
Hassall's corpuscle
55.What type of muscle is striated and multinuclear? Skeletal muscle- it of T
tubules and SR at the A-I junction
56.In what region of the spleen are the germinal centers located? White pu
lp-where B cell differentiation takes place
57.What layer of the skin is missing in thin skin? Stratum lucidum 58.What are the phagocytic cells of the GI tract called? Paneth cells (Pa
neth's granular cells)
59.Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the GI tract?
IgA
60.In what area of the spleen are the T cells located? Periarterial lymphatic s
heath (PALS)
61.In what area of the lymph node are the T cells and the APCs located? Paracort
62.What type of muscle is striated, branched, and uninuclear? Cardiac muscle-d
yadic T tubules with SR at the Z line
63.What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not? An inter
nal elastic lamina
64.What two layers of skin makeup the malphighian layer? Stratum basalis
and spinosus (mitotic area)
65.What type of skin cells have the mature melanin granules? Keratinocytes. M
elanocytes inject melanosomes into the keratinocytes and mature there.
66.What type of skin cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Langerhans' cells
67.What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechano- r
eceptors? Merkel's cells (Merkel's tactile cells)
68.What layer of the epidermis acts as a sealant to protect against desiccation?
Stratum granulosum
69.What layer of the skin is composed of non-nucleated cells full of keratin?
Stratum corneum
70.What are the antigen- presenting cells in the Peyer's patches of the GI known
as? M cells
71.What are the three "tunica" layers of a blood vessel wall? 1. Tunica intima
2. Tunica media 3. Tunica adventitia
72.Within what layer of the heart are the nerves and conducting fibers located?
Subendocardial space
73.Which organs have fenestrated capillaries with diaphragms? Kidney, Intestin
es, Endocrine organs
74.What secondary lymphoid tissue is encapsulated and has germinal centers?
Peyer's patches{duodenum}
75.What organs have sinusoid capillaries (leakiest type)? Liver, Bone marr
ow, Spleen
76.What type of vessel has a thick tunica media? Arteries {Veins have a thick tunica adventitia.}
77.Is the spleen a capsulated organ with trabeculae? Yes-although it does not
have cortical or medullary regions
78.What secondary lymphoid organ is found just below the stratified squamous epi
thel- ium and is partially capsulated? Tonsils
79.What type of capillary lacks fenestrations and has pinocytotic vesicles?
Continuous capillary
80.What region of the body has fenestrated capillaries without diaphragms?
Kidney glomeruli.
81.Does the thymus have germinal centers? No. Germinal centers are associa
ted with B cells.
82.What cell of the liver is part of the mononuclear phagocytic system? Kupffer
cells
83.What papillae are respons- ible for sweet taste? Circumvalate papillae
84.What are the three epi- dermal derivatives? 1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands
(both apocrine and sebaceous)
85.What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII? Fungifor
m papillae
86.What is the area of mitotic activity in the GI tract? The crypts of Li eberkuhn
87.What cells of the GI tract secrete HCl and intrinsic factor? Parietal cells o
f the stomach
88.What type of sweat gland is under cholinergic stimulation? Eccrine gland
89.What gland produces a serous secretion that is approximately 20% of the total
saliva produced? Parotid gland
90.What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via
CN V3 (mandibular division)? Filiform papillae
91.Secretin and CCK are produced in what portion of the GI tract? Small in
testine
92.What cells of the stomach secrete pepsinogen? Chief cells
93.What cell type produces dentin of the teeth? Odontoblasts (neural crest)
94.What cell type produces enamel of the teeth? Ameloblasts (ectoderm)
95.What gland produces 70% of the total salivary secretions and is a mixture of
serous (predominantly) and mucous alveoli and secretory units? Submandibular gl
and
96.What type of cells of the respiratory system secrete surfactant? Type II
pneumocytes
97.What zone of the liver is the first to be affected in times of hypoxia? Central region (around the central vein)
98.In what region of the respiratory system do you first see Clara cells?
Terminal bronchioles
99.What substance does the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete in respon
se to low blood pressure? Renin
100.In what region of the liver is fat stored? Space of Disse -{Ito cells and V
101.In what region of the GI tract does exfoliation take place? At the tip of th
e villi
102.What are the mucus secreting cells in the respiratory tract above the level
of the terminal bronchioles? Goblet cells
103.What cells of the distal convoluted tubule are sensitive to the low ion cont
ent of the urine? Macula densa
104.What cells comprise 95% of the alveolar surface and are responsible for gas
exchange? Type I pneumocytes
105.What are the two hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland via the
para- ventricular supranuclei? ADH and oxytocin
106.What area of the nephron is impermeable to water? Ascending limb of the lo
op of Henle
107.What region of the kidney is affected by ADH? Collecting duct for wate
r reabsorption- but the DCT is also affected by ADH
108.What portion of the kidney actively pumps Cl- out of the tubule? Thick as
cending limb of the loop of Henle
109.What region of the kidney has a countercurrent multi- plier producing a grad
ient of hypertonicity in the tubule lumen? Loop of Henle
110.What region of the liver is first affected in toxic doses of drugs? Peripher
al zone (because extraction of substances occurs there first)
111.What are the two acidophilic hormones secreted by the adenohypophysis?
GH and prolactin "
112.In what region of the kidney does the greatest extraction of nutrients occur
? Proximal convoluted tubule (-66% of nutrient extraction occurs here) 113.What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin? Parafollicular C cells
114.What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives? Chromaff
in cells (adrenal medulla)
115.What cells secrete glucagon? Alpha cells of the islet of Langerhans
116.What hormone inhibits glucagon release and pancreatic exocrine secretions?
Somatostatin
117.What hormone causes milk letdown? Oxytocin
118.Low levels of what hormone stimulates the uterus to go into its proliferativ
e stage? Estrogen
119.What cells of the genito- urinary system secrete testosterone? Leydig c
ells (stimulated by LH)
120.What is the mucus-secreting gland in the male reproductive system? Bulboure
thral glands (Cowper's glands)
121.Elevated levels of what hormone cause the endometrium to enter the secretory
phase of the female cycle? Progesterone
122.What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce parathyroid hormone
(PTH)? Chief cells
123.What hormone produced during the night causes a decrease in gonadal function
? Melatonin
124.Where is melatonin produced? Pineal gland
125.What are the four basophilic hormones released from the adenohypophysis?
1. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) 2. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3. L
uteinizing hormone (LH) 4. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 126.What cells form the blood-testis barrier? Sertoli's cells What is the chromosome number of-G1? 46 (2n)
What is the chromosome number of-S phase? 46 (4n) What is the chromosome number of-G2? 46 (4n)
What is the chromosome number of-Mitosis? 46 (4n) to 46 (2n) What is the chromosome number of a primary spermatocyte? 46 (4n) In females, meiosis is arrested twice - when and at what stages of meiosis?
1. First, in utero at prophase I, 2. Second, at ovulation in metaphase II What must occur for an egg to complete ovulation? It needs to be fertilize
d by a sperm. If it is not, the egg is released in metaphase II and meiosis is i
ncomplete.
What is the chromosome number at the end of meiosis I? 23 (2n)-it is the reduct
ive phase of meiosis.
127.What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, a
nd androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the sperma
tid? Sertoli cell
128.What is the major androgen released from the zona reticularis? Dehydroe
piandrosterone (DHEA)
129.What hormone causes an increase in the accumulation of adipose and collageno
us tissue of the breast and an increase in the branching of the ducts of the bre
ast? Estrogen
130.What promotes further prolactin and oxytocin release? Suckling 131.What part of the placenta is derived from the mother? Decidua basalis
132.What is the most common site of fertilization? Ampulla of the fallopian
tube
133.What is the only cranial nerve that comes off the dorsal surface of the brai
134.What type of fiber is carried in the dorsal root? Sensory or motor. Sensor
y only
135.How would a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion present? Hyporeflexia, fa
siculations and flaccid paralysis (always ipsilateral)
136.What is the name of the brain stem tract in which the dorsal columns run?
Medial lemniscus
137.What is the ability to tell what something is without looking at it and usin
g only your hands? Stereognosis
138.In what tract do pain and temperature fibers run? Spinothalamic tract
139.What gyrus in the cerebral cortex receives information from fibers of the do
rsal column tract? Postcentral gyrus
140.What area of the brain is responsible for contralateral gaze? Frontal
eye field (Brodmann area 8)
141.What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the visual system? Lateral genicula
te body (LGB)
142.What is the function of the ossicles? They increase the intensity of s
ound
143.What muscle in the eye is responsible for accommodation? Ciliary muscle
144.What area of the eye has the greatest visual acuity? Fovea (it is mad
e up soley of cones)
145.What cell type in the eye is for color vision? Cones (Cones and color)
146.If there is macula sparing in a visual deficit, where is the lesion? In the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex (optic radiations)
...
147.Which way do the eyes drift in a frontal eye field lesion?To the side of the
lesion
148.What is the thalamic relay nucleus that CN V needs to "speak" to in order to
pass its information on to the cerebral cortex?Ventroposteromedial(VPM)
149.Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the mesencephalic nucleus of CN V?Pr
oprioception of the face (CN V) and motor (jaw jerk reflex)
150.If a patient presented with an LMN lesion in CN V, CN VII, or CN XII, what w
ould you see? Ipsilateral paresis
151.What is the motor relay nucleus of the thalamus?Ventrolateral (VL) nucleus o
f thalamus
152.What is the only cell type to leave the cerebellum?Purkinje (inhibitory) - G
153.If a patient presented with a right-sided cerebellar lesion, which way would
the patient fall if he closed his eyes? To the right
154.What is the function of the superior olivary nucleus? To localize and detemi
ne the nature of sounds (Sound and superior start with S.)
155.If a patient presents with a left nystagmus, where is the lesion? On the rig
ht, because the nvstagmus is named for the fast component, and the fast componen
t is to the unaffected side.
156.What region of the cerebellum is responsible for the planning of movements?
Cerebellar hemisphere
157.What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the limbic system? Anterior nucleus
158.What fluid is found in the anterior chamber of the eye? Aqueous humor
159.What is the dividing line between the anterior and posterior chambers of the
eye? The lens
160.If there is a total anopsia of the left eye, where is the lesion? Optic nerv
e of the left eye
161.What is the center for ipsilateral gaze? The paramedian pontine reticular fo
rmation (PPRF)
162.What fluid of the inner ear has an electrolyte content like that of the extr
acellular fluid compartment (ECF)?Perilymph
163.What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system? MGB 164.What region of the cerebellum is responsible for balance and eye movement?
Flocculonodular lobe
165.What is the only cell in the cerebellum to have an excitatory neurotransmitt
er? Granule cell
166.What does the nystagmus look like if cold water is placed in the right ear?
Slow drift to the right, fast drift to the left COWS = Cold Opposite - Warm Same
(named in reference to the fast component)
167.Information from the cerebellum leaves via what? Superior cerebellar pedu
ncle
168.In what portion of the internal capsule are you if you can see the caudate n
ucleus? Anterior limb
169.What type of memory is lost in a hippocampal lesion? Long-term memory
170.In what region of the brain stem does the corticospinal tract cross over?
Medullary decussation
171.From what gyrus of the brain does the corticospinal tract originate?
Precentral gyrus
172.What type of fibers are carried in the ventral rami? Both sensory and
motor (from the spinal nerve on both sensory and motor fibers)
173.What are the hallmark signs of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion? 1. Hyper
reflexia 2. Spastic paralysis 3. Positive Babinski sign
174.What tract carriers fibers for voluntary refined movements of the distal ext
remities? Corticospinal tract
175.What is the name of the tract in which the dorsal columns from the lower ext
remities run? Fasciculus gracilis (It is medial of the two tracts on a cross-s
ection of the spinal cord; the lateral tract is the fasciculus cuneatus.) Rememb
er: Lower extremities dancing-graceful-gracilis.
176.What is the function of the superior colliculi? Cell bodies that are to
be relayed to the thalamus for sight are found there. (Sight and superior start
with S.)
177.In order for sensory information from the dorsal columns and the spinothalam
ic tract to get to the cerebral cortex, they must use what thalamic relay nucleu
s? Ventroposterolateral (VPL)
178.In which region of the spinal cord does the spinothalamic tract cross over?
Ventral white commissure (VWC)
179.Sensory information from the spinothalamic tract sends its information to wh
at region of the cerebral cortex? Postcentral gyrus
180.In which region of the brain stem do the dorsal columns cross over? Lower me
dulla (synapse on nucleus gracilis or cuneatus)
181.What tract carries conscious proprioception,fine touch, two-point discrimina
tion, and vibratory sense? Dorsal column tract (all senses except pain and
temperature)
182.What tract of the spinal cord carries dorsal column information from the upp
er extremities? Fasciculus cuneatus
183.If the right side of the corticobulbar tract to the muscles of facial expres
sion were damaged, where would the deficit be seen? In the contralateral low
er face (left)
184.If the corticobulbar tract for CN V and CN XII were cut on the right side, w
here would the lesion be? There would be no deficit, because the corticobu
lbar tract receives bilateral input.
186.What peduncle(s) carry information into the cerebellum? Inferior and mid
dle cerebellar peduncles
187.Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the trigeminal ganglion? Touch, p
ain, and temperature
188.When the head moves, what causes the eyes to move in the opposite direction?
Vestibular system
189.Unconscious proprioception, body sense, and motor execution are functions of
what part of the cerebellum? Vermis and intermediate lobe
190.What three structures contain perilymph? 1. Scala tympani 2. Scala vestib
uli 3. Semicircular canals
191.The gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head are located in
what part of the inner ear? Saccule and utricle
192.What cells are for black and white vision (night vision)? Rods 193.What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye? Vitreous humor
194.What type of fluid in the inner ear has the consistency of intracellular flu
id (ICF)? Endolymph (high levels of K+)
195.Name three lesions that can cause left homonymous hemianopsia? 1. Lesio
n of the right optic tract 2. Lesion of the lateral geniculate body (LGB) 3. Les
ion of the optic radiation
196.What lesion produces a tremor upon movement? A cerebellar lesion
197.What part of the inner ear is sensitive to angular acceleration and decelera
tion? Semicircular canals
198.What is the normal volume of CSF? Approximately 140 ml{135ml most accurate
ly}
199.What muscle of the eye is under parasympathetic control? Sphincter pupill
ae (part of iris)
200.What cranial nerve receives sensory information from the cornea? CN VI (o
phthalmic division)
201.What artery supplies blood to the trunk and the lower extremities on a homun
culus map of the cerebral cortex? Anterior cerebral artery
202.What structures of the inner ear contain endolymph? 1. Scala media 2. Semici
rcular ducts 3. Saccule Utricle
203.With what type of lesions do you see tremors at rest? Lesions of the b
asal ganglia
204.What muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control? Dilator pupillae
205.Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right nasal hemianopsia?
Right internal carotid artery compression on the optic chiasm
206.What part of the inner ear functions in head movement? Semicircular duc
ts
207.What part of the internal capsule are you in if you see the thalamus?
Posterior limb of the internal capsule
208.What region of the basal ganglia is affected in Parkinson's disease?
Substantia nigra (degeneration)
209.Hemorrhagic destruction of the contralateral subthalamic nuclei results in w
hat disorder? Herniballismus (wild flailing movements)
210.Slow writhing movements (athetosis) are caused by what? Hypermyelinizati
on of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy) 211.Atrophy of the striatum of the basal ganglia results in what? Chorea (
involuntary quick movements)
212.What tracts are found in the genu of the internal capsule? Corticobulbar tr
acts
213.What tracts are found in the posterior limb of the IC? Corticospinal Sp
inothalamic Dorsal column Thalamocortical
215.What tracts are found in the anterior limb of the IC? Thalamocortical
tracts
216.If warm water is placed in the right ear, what does the nystagmus look like?
Slow drift to the left and fast drift to the right (COWS = Cold Opposite & Warm
Same)
217.What lesion causes a bitemporal hemianopsia? Optic chiasm lesion
218.What area of the brain is known as the motor speech area? Broca's area
219.What does Meyer's loop lesion cause? Contralateral homonymous superio
r quadrantopia
220.Blood supply to the head/neck area and the upper limb on a homunculus map in
the cerebral cortex comes from what artery? Middle cerebral artery 221.What area of the brain is known for language comprehension? Wernicke's area
222.Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right homonymous inferior
quadrantanopia? Left upper loop lesion
223.What region of the cerebellum is affected if a patient has dystaxia of the l
egs and trunk during walking? Anterior vermis (It is most commonly caused by c
224.Where is the lesion in a patient who presents with a broad-based gait, hypot
onia, intention tremors, nystagmus, and ataxia? Cerebellum
225.What are the functions of the external auditory meatus? Sound collection
and protection of the tympanic membrane
226.What is the function of the inferior colliculi? To receive bilateral aud
itory input and arrange the input tonotopically
227.If a patient presents with nystagmus, dystaxia, and hypotonia of the ipsilat
eral limbs, what area of the cerebellum is affected? Hemisphere 228.What lesion of the cerebellum is usually caused by an ependymoma or medullob
lastoma, resulting in dystaxia of the trunk with an inability to maintain an upr
ight posture? Posterior vermis lesion
229.What spinal cord injury results in flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy?
Polio (bilateral ventral horn lesion)
230.What spinal cord lesion results in a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion at the
level of the lesion and an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion below the level of th
e lesion? Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)-Lou Gehrig's disease 231.What arterial occlusion would result in a loss of all tracts in the spinal c
ord except the dorsal columns? Anterior spinal artery occlusion (posterior spin
al artery supplies the dorsal columns)
232.What spinal cord lesion results in a bilateral loss of pain and temperature
at the level of the lesion? Syringomyelia (VWC lesion)
233.What spinal cord lesion causes a bilateral dorsal column loss below the leve
l of the lesion? Tabes dorsalis (neurosyphilis)
234.What disease is associated with demyelination of the dorsal column, spinocer
ebellar tract, and corticospinal tract? Subacute combined degeneration
235.What arterial occlusion results in contralateral spastic hemiparesis, contra
lateral spastic lower face, and ipsilateral oculomotor palsy (dilated, ptosis, e
ye down and out)? Posterior cerebral artery occlusion (ventral midbrain sy
ndrome)
236.What syndrome is associated with an ipsilateral UMN lesion below the level o
f the lesion, ipsilateral dorsal column loss at and below the level of the lesio
n, an LMN lesion at the level of the lesion, bilateral loss of pain and temperat
ure at the level an Brown-Sequard syndrome (heimisection of the spinal cord)
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Contralateral spastic hemiparesis of the body? Vertebral artery
-pyramid
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Contralateral loss of position and vibration? Vertebral artery
-medial lemniscus
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Ipsilateral paralysis of the tongue? Vertebral artery-CN XII What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Ipsilateral limb ataxia? Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-infe
rior cerebellar peduncle
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Ipsilateral pain and temperature loss of the face? Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-spinal nucleus of CN V
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Contralateral pain and temperature of the body? Anterior inferio
r cerebellar artery- spinotbalamic tract
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Nystagmus away from the lesion? Anterior inferior cerebellar art
ery- vestibular nuclei
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome? Anterior inferior cerebellar art
ery- descending autonomics
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Ipsilateral facial paralysis? Anterior inferior cerebellar art ery-CN Vll
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and spec
ific region.): Deafness? Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN VIll 1.What is the name for the most prominent spinous process in the spine? Vertebra
prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)
2.What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?
Nucleus pulposus
3.What three muscles comprise the erector spinae? 1. Iliocostalis 2. Longi
ssimus 3. Spinalis
4.What are the names given to the first and second cervical vertebrae? C1-atlas
C2-axis
5.To what vertebral level does the spinal cord extend? LI to L2
6.What is the name of the extension of the dura mater that attaches at the level
of S2? External filum terminale
7.How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord? 31 pairs 8.What is the name of the region where the manubrium and the body of the sternum
articulate? Sternal angle of Louis
9.What muscle originates from the third to the fifth ribs and inserts into the c
oracoid process? Pectoralis minor
.10.Damage to what nerve will give you "winged scapula'."? Long thoracic ne
rve To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: Long has
an "n" for nerve; lateral 3 & has an "a" for artery.
11.The ventral rami of what regions of the spinal cord make up the brachial plex
us? C5-TI
12.What bone houses the ulnar groove? Humerus (between the medial epicondyle a
nd the trochlea)
13.What muscle initiates Abduction of the arm? Supraspinakis 14.What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm? Deltoid `
15.What nerve is damaged if a patient presents with "wrist drop"? Radial n
erve
16.What forms the anatomic snuff box? Extensor pollicis longus, abductor polli
cis longus, extensor pollicis brevis
17.What vein, in the antecubital fossa, forms the communica- tion between the ba
silic vein and the cephalic vein? Median cubital vein (most common site fo
r venipuncture)
18.What two muscles are inner- vated by the axillary nerve? Deltoid and tere
s minor
19.What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome? Median nerve
20.In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
21.Foot drop is caused by a compromise in what nerve? Common peroneal nerve
22.What nerve is damaged if the patient cannot ADduct the thigh? Obturato
r nerve (nerve to the medial compartment of the thigh) 23.What is the longest muscle of the body? Sartorius
24.What two nerves innervate the pectineus muscle? Femoral and obturator ne
25.What superficial vein empties into the popliteal fossa? Short saphenous
vein
26.What is the artery of the anterior compartment of the leg? Anterior tibia]
artery
27.What nerve supplies the lateral compartment of the leg? Superficial pero
neal nerve
28.What sensory nerve are you testing when you touch the first web space of the
toes? Deep peroneal nerve
29.The peroneal artery is a branch of what artery? Posterior tibial 30.Inflammation of the pre- patellar bursa is often referred to as what? Housemaid's knee
31.What is the prominent "bump" on the lateral aspect of the knee? Head of
the fibula
32.How many ribs articulate with the sternum? Seven (Ribs 8, 9, and 10 articul
ate with the costal cartilage of rib 7.)
33.What is the part of the lung that extends above the level of the first rib?
The cupula
34.What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ? Visceral pleura
35.How many lobes does the right lung have? Three
36.How are they separated? By the oblique and the transverse fissures
37.Into what chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins empty? Left atrium (Rem
ember-the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.)
38.What is the only valve in the heart that has two cusps? Mitral (bicuspid
) valve
39.What vein travels with the right coronary artery? Small cardiac vein 40.At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate? T4-T5 (It is known as th
e carina.)
41.What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?
Chordae tendineae
42.Around what thoracic structure does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve loop
before ascending into the larynx? Right subclavian artery 43.At what vertebral level does the esophagus originate? C6
44.At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into the common iliac arteri
es? L4-L5
45.The obturator artery is a branch of what major artery? Internal iliac a
rtery
46.What is the first branch off the abdominal artery? Inferior phrenic artery
47.Into what vessel does the right gonadal vein drain? The inferior vena cava
48.Into what vessel does the left gonadal vein drain? The left renal vein
49.At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate? C4
50.At what vertebral level is the hyoid bone found? C3
51.The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel? Internal carotid artery
52.What forms the portal vein? The union of the superior mesenteric and the spl
enic veins
53.Where does the inferior mesenteric vein drain? The splenic vein 54.What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins?
Superior vena cava
55.What is the only muscle in the larynx that is not inner- vated by the recurre
nt laryn- geal nerve? Cricothyroid (It's innervated by the external laryngeal
nerve.)
56.The folds of the mucosa of the stomach are known as what? Rugae
57.What is the artery of the embryonic foregut? Celiac artery
58.What comprises the portal triad? 1. Common bile duct 2. Hepatic artery 3.
Portal vein
59.What structures differentiate the anatomic right and left lobes of the liver?
Ligamentum teres and ligamentum venosum
60.What structure "runs" along the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae?
Ureters
61.To enter into the lesser peri-toneal sac, you must traverse through what fora
men? Foramen of Winslow
62.What is another name for the rectouterine pouch? Pouch of Douglas
63.What bones comprise the acetabulum? Pubis, ilium, and ischium 64.What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum? Bound an
d ovarian ligaments
65.What muscles comprise the deep perineal space (the urogenital diaphragm)?
Deep transverse perineal and sphincter urethrae
66.What three ligaments com- prise the broad ligament of the uterus? 1. Mesos
alpinx 2. Mesovarium 3. Mesometrium
67.What structure traverses the diaphragm at the level of T8? IVC 68.What are the components of the pudendal canal? Pudendal nerve and inter
nal pudendal artery and vein
69.What range of movements can be performed at the metacarpal/phalangealjoint?
70.A fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus will most likely damage what n
erve? Axillary nerve
71.What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion of the hip and extensi
on of the knee? Anterior compartment of the thigh
72.What nerve roots comprise the lumbosacral plexus? L4 to S4 73.What is the function of gray rami communicans? They are postganglionic
sympathetic axons.
74.What compartment of the lower extremities allows ADduction of the thigh and f
lexion of the hip? Medial compartment of the thigh
75.What are the only splanchnics in the body that carry preganglionic parasympat
hetic fibers? Pelvic splanchnics (P begins preganglionic, parasympathetic, and
pelvic.)
76.What postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion is associated with CN III?
Ciliary ganglion
77.What is the name of the ganglion that houses the cell bodies for the postgang
lionic sympathetic fibers to the head and neck? Superior cervical ganglion
78.What two muscles do you test to see if CN XI is intact? Trapezius and st
ernocleidoinastoid
79.What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit? Motor as
pect
80.Toward what side would the uvula point if the right CN X were damaged?
The left (points to the unaffected side)
81.What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the ureth
ra exits? Urinary trigone
82.What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibe
rs? Adrenal rnedulla
83.The pudendal canal is formed by splitting the fascia of what muscle? Obturato
r internus
84.What is the name of the duct formed by the union of the vas deferens and the
duct of the seminal vesicle? Ejaculatory duct
85.What are the fingerlike projections at the end of the fallopian (uterine) tub
es? Fimbriae
86.Where is the seminal vesicle located? On the posterior aspect of the u
rinary bladder
87.What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior? Subclavian vein
88.What muscle divides the anterior from the posterior triangles of the neck?
Sternocleidomastoid
89.Where does the parotid (Stenson's) duct enter the oral cavity? Opposite
the second upper molar tooth
90.What is the function of the arachnoid granulations? Resorb CSF into the bloo
d
91.What muscle is the most superiorly situated muscle in the orbit? Levator
palpebrae superioris
92.What is the triad of Horner's syndrome? Miosis, ptosis, and anhydrosis
93.What bone of the middle ear articulates with the tympanic membrane? Malleus
94.What chamber of the eye is located between the iris and the lens? Posterio
r chamber
95.What bone houses the ear? Temporal bone
96.What is the only muscle of the tongue not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve
? Palatoglossus
97.Where does the nasolacrimal duct terminate? Inferior meatus of the nasal cav
ity
98.What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck? Thyroid gland
99.What two regions of the vertebral column are con- sidered primary curvatures?
Thoracic and sacral
100.What are the only muscles in the body innervated by dorsal rami? Intrinsi
c (deep) muscles of the back (All other muscles are innervated by ventral rami.)
101.What is the portion of the second cervical vertebra that projects superiorly
to act as the body for C1? Odontoid (dens) process
102.What is the actual space that contains CSF? Subarachnoid space 103.What is the protective covering that is adherent to the spinal cord and CNS
tissue? Pia mater
104.What is the name of the spinal cord that passes within the subarachnoid spac
e that forms the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?
Cauda equina
105.What are the names ligaments that would pierced, in order, by a lumbar punct
ure? 1. Supraspinous ligament 2. Interspinous ligament 3. Ligamentum flavum
106.What is the inferiormost segment of the sternum? Xiphoid process
107.True or false-the pectoralis major medially rotates the arm? True; it
also ADducts and flexes the arm.
108.What are the borders of the axillary artery? Lateral border of the fi rst rib to the inferior border of the teres major
109.What vessels arise from the three segments of the axillary artery? 1. Super
ior thoracic artery 2. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial trunk 3. Subs
capular artery, and the anterior and posterior humeral circumflex One artery fro
m the first segment, two arteries from the second segment, and three arteries fr
om the
110.What muscle is the main lateral rotator of the arm? Infraspinatus muscle
111.What innervates the flexor compartment of the arm? Musculocutaneus nerve
112.What nerve is most commonly affected when there is a fracture of the midshaf
t of the humerus? Radial nerve C deer "(Int4.1 a .
113.What vein courses along the medial aspect of the forearm? Basilic vein
114.What is the blood vessel in the upper extremity most commonly palpated while
taking a pulse? Radial artery
115.What is the nerve supply to the forearm? Median nerve (except for the fle
xor carpi ulnaris and flexor digiti profundus muscles of the pinkie and ring fin
ger, which are supplied by the ulnar)
116.What are the "LOAF" muscles of the hand? LOAF stands for the muscles of t
he hand innervated by the median nerve: Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor
pollicis brevis, and Flexor pollicis brevis; All other intrinsic muscles in the
hand are innervated by the ulnar nerve
117.What muscles in the hand ADduct the fingers? The palmer interosseus a
dducts, whereas the dorsal interosseus abducts (PAD and DAB) 118.In order to pronate the hand, what bones need to cross? Radius crosses o
ver the ulna
119.At what point does the femoral artery become the popliteal artery? When it
traverses the adductor hiatus
120.Loss of ABduction of the lower limbs results in Trendelenburg gait; what ner
ve is compromised to cause this? Superior gluteal nerve
121.What two arteries join together to form the super- ficial and deep palmar ar
ches of the hand? Uhiar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier) 122.What muscle "fills" the greater sciatic foramen? Piriformis
123.What nerve is affected when a patient has difficulty rising from a sitting p
osition? Inferior gluteal nerve (nerve to the gluteus maximus)
124.Why are IM injections in the gluteal mass given in the upper outer quadrant?
