Test Preparation – Reading And Writing
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TEST PREPARATION
PRELIMARY ENGLISH TEST
Reading and Writing
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INTRODUCTION
Reading
Part Task Type Marks What does it test? What do you do?
1 Three-option
multiple choice
5 Your ability to understand short texts Read and choose one option
2 Matching 5 Your ability to understand longer
texts
Match descriptions of people with short texts
3 True/ false 10 Your ability to find specific
information
Answer true/ false questions
4 Four-option
multiple choice
5 Your ability to understand attitude, opinion and purpose in a text
Answer a multiple-choice questions on a longer text.
5 Four-option
multiple choice cloze
10 Your knowledge of vocabulary and grammar
Choose the correct options to complete a short passage
Writing
Part Task Type Marks What does it test? What do you do?
1 Sentence
transformations
5 Your knowledge of grammar Change the sentence using one to
three words
2 Short message 5 Your ability to write a short message Write a short message of about 35
– 45 words
3 Longer piece of
writing
15 Your accuracy and range in writing Write a story or letter of about 100 words
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Reading part 1 SHORT TEXTS 1. Introduction
- This part tests your understanding of various kinds of short texts. These may be: o public notices and signs
o instructions/ information on packages or bottles o notes, emails, cards or postcards
2. Tips
- First read the text carefully to understand the general meaning of the text.
- Look at the background of the text (the visual information). It may help you to understand the situation and the purpose of the text.
- Read all three options carefully.
- Compare each option with the text and then choose one of them.
- Look again at the incorrect options and underline the words that show that they are wrong. - Re-read the text and the option you chose to make sure it is the correct answer.
3. Practice Task 1:
Look at texts 1 – 6 and match them with text types a – c
a. text message b. notice c. postcard
1. Why don‟t we meet up on Friday and play tennis? Please let me know before 5.30 because I need to book the court today.
2. ANY BIKES LEFT HERE WILL BE REMOVED IMMEDIATELY
3. It‟s a beautiful place – the beach is fantastic and within easy walking distance of the hotel. The weather‟s great too! Wish you were here with us!
4. Identity cards must be shown in order to enter building
5. We have to be at the sports centre before 9 tomorrow morning. Shall I meet you at the corner of Green Street so we can walk there together?
6. USE OF MOBILE PHONES FORBIDDEN INSIDE HOSPITAL
Task 2:
Match these phrases from the texts in task 1 with purposes a – f below. 1. Why don‟t we meet up
2. Please let me know
3. Bikes left here will be removed 4. Identity cards must be shown 5. We have to be at the sports centre 6. Use of mobiles forbidden
a. a prohibition/ something not allowed b. a rule c. a suggestion d. a polite request e. a warning f. an obligation Task 3:
Put these phrases into three groups of similar meanings. a. It is prohibited b. It is required c. It is permitted d. It is allowed e. You need to f. It is forbidden g. You can h. It is necessary i. It is not allowed j. You mustn‟t
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Task 4: The following words in the box usually appear in signs and public notices. Choose the correct word for each gap in the sentences below. You can only use each word/ phrase once.
allowed area cancelled card changing rooms disabled entrance forbidden hour instructions luggage may no longer on time passengers property put responsible
rooms seat use warning
1. Do not __________ equipment in this box before reading __________. 2. Weekday parking: __________ than 20 minutes in any __________.
3. __________ coins in the coffee machine slowly – if in difficulty, go to room 2. 4. Smoking is __________ during lectures but is __________ during the coffee break. 5. This __________ is closed today – use back of building beside car park.
6. __________ for international flights – check in __________ here.
7. Visitors to the port __________ must collect an identity __________ at the main gate. 8. Offer this __________ to old or __________ people, or those carrying young children.
9. __________ next to escalator. Customers __________ take in no more than 4 pieces of clothing. 10. All the trains are running __________ today except the 8.15 which has been __________. 11. The college is not __________ for private __________ left in this building.
12. __________-security cameras in use around this building.
Task 5:
Read messages 1 & 2 and decide what they mean (A, B or C).
1. Hi Elena I think I left my wallet on your kitchen table. Please check for me and see if there are two theatre tickets inside. I‟ll need them on Saturday night. Give me a ring as soon as possible! Love Joanna.
A. Joanna wants Elena to confirm that the theatre tickets in her wallet are safe. B. Joanna wants Elena to check she has theatre tickets for the right evening. C. Joanna wants Elena to call her about the wallet she lost in the theatre.
2. Hi Martin
I‟ve just heard that my science project must be completed before Friday and not next week! Can you come round and help me finish it tonight? Eduardo
A. Eduardo wants Martin to help him with his project next week. B. Eduardo wants Martin to finish his project on Friday if possible. C. Eduardo needs Martin‟s help so he can finish his project quickly.
Task 6:
Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Circle the correct letter A, B or C.
1. Clerigos Tower
225 steps
Unsuitable for the elderly and very young children
What is the purpose of this notice? A. To apologise.
B. To make a suggestion. C. To give a warning.
2. City Park
Take a free calendar for times and prices of next month‟s events
A. Entrance to the park will be free at certain times.
B. This will tell you what‟s on in the park next month.
C. There will be no charge for park activities next month.
3. New Street Station
All trains are running late today due to a lack of staff
A. There will be a delay to your journey today. B. Ask station staff for information on train times
today.
C. We apologise for the late arrival of your train. 4. Road repairs here 13 – 15 June
Road will remain open, but no parking allowed
A. It will not be possible to drive here for three days.
B. Workmen will not finish repairing this road until 13 June.
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C. You cannot leave cars here between 13 and 15 June.
Task 7:
Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Circle the correct letter A, B or C. 1. George,
I’m not going to college today. Can you ask Lisa to call me at home about tonight? My mobile’s broken and I don’t know her number.
Tim
What should George do? A. Give Lisa a message. B. Call Lisa this evening. C. Find Lisa‟s phone number.
2. Hi Chloe,
I think I left a scarf at your house – it’s my mum’s and she wants it back. Let me know if it’s there and I’ll come and collect it.
Sue
Sue wants Chloe to
A. return the scarf to Sue‟s mother. B. tell her when she can collect the
scarf.
C. check whether she has the scarf.
Task 8:
Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Circle the correct letter A, B or C.
1. Mark,
I’ve arrange flights. No tickets, we just show our booking number and passports at the check-in desk. Can you check bus times to the airport?
Rob
Rob wants Mark to
A. meet him at the check-in desk. B. find out about transport to the airport. C. let him know his passport number.
2. Josh,
What do you think about going to Adventure World on Friday? We have to sign the list before Tuesday if we’re interested. If you go, I’ll go too.
Katie
Why has Katie emailed Josh about Adventure World?
A. She doesn‟t want to go on the trip alone.
B. She wants Josh to take her there on Tuesday.
C. She doesn‟t have enough information about it.
3. Chelsworth Zoo
One free teacher ticket for every five student tickets bought
A. Groups of five students must have a teacher with them.
B. To get for nothing, a teacher must buy five student tickets.
C. Teachers can get six student tickets for the price of five.
4. I enjoyed seeing the city from the river on this sightseeing cruise,
but we couldn’t get off anywhere so I’m looking forward to visiting the sights on foot tomorrow.
Meg
A. Meg was disappointed with the river trip.
B. Meg has already been to most of the city sights.
C. Meg is planning to walk around part of the city.
Reading part 2 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Introduction
- This part tests detailed understanding of factual information. There are five short descriptions of people and eight short texts on the same topic. You have to match each person to one of the texts. There are three texts which you will not need.
2. Tips
- Read the five descriptions of people and underline key words.
- Now read one description and try to find the matching text. The correct text must have all the points that the person requires. For example, if the person wants a romantic book that is short, you must find a text which matches the two requirements: romantic and short.
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- Underline the parts of the text that match the person‟s description. But be careful about „word spotting‟! It is often not enough to find the same word in the person‟s description and in the text. It may be the wrong answer. If you find the same word, re-read the person‟s description and the whole text again carefully.
- Usually the correct answer will not contain exactly the same words as the person‟s description. You may have to recognize different ways of saying the same thing, for example, „love story‟ instead of „romantic‟, and „a book I can read quickly‟ instead of „a short book‟.
- If you think that there are two texts that seem to match the same person, read the description and the two texts again carefully. Only ONE text will match ALL of a person‟s requirement.
- This part of the Reading test cannot be done quickly because you need to read the details in each text carefully, and you may have to go back to a text and re-read it several times. When you are sure you have found an answer, you may want to cross out that particular text as you will not need to read it again.
3. Practice Task 1:
Link an expression on the left with a similar meaning on the right. 1. thriller
2. cities 3. tears 4. takes days 5. voyage
6. know how it will end 7. drawings
8. widely-read 9. laugh
10. can be read quickly 11. unexpected ending 12. daily activities a. journey b. a funny side c. guess d. easy e. can‟t guess f. cry g. towns h. everyday life i. illustrations j. long
k. danger and excitement l. well-known
Task 2:
These people all want to improve their health and fitness. Read about the fitness centres below and decide which fitness centre would be the most suitable for them.
1. Paulina is a runner and recently broke a bone in her foot. She needs help with a daily exercise programme to help her improve her fitness before she starts racing again.
A. Bodyspace
Forget the stress of everyday life in our ultra-modern gym and 20-metre swimming pool in the heart of the business district. Membership benefits include a free fitness check and a personal diet plan prepared by one of our friendly gym staff. There are discounts for families.
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2. Louis and Jane would like to take their seven-year-old twin boys to a fitness centre on Saturdays and Sundays. They would all like to do a different activity.
B. Chestnuts Health Club
Located in the city centre, this fitness club has weights, cycles, a dance studio, a steam room and sauna, making it perfect for a lunchtime workout. There is also a beauty salon and a juice bar. Membership can be for one, three or twelve months.
3. Leroy works in a city office and would like to get fit by swimming regularly in his lunch hour during the week.
C. Eastwick Leirsure
This lovely public leisure centre has over 100 very reasonably-priced activities including weekend games sessions for kids. There is a 25-metre pool (closed weekdays 9 a.m. – 3.30 p.m. for local schools) plus a gym and a children‟s pool. For relaxation there are sunbeds and steam rooms. There‟s also a snack bar and a baby-care room.
D. Empire Health Club
This members-only sports club has two floors of serious fitness and weight-training equipment, including boxing facilities. There is a steam room to relax in after your session. Tuesdays and Thursdays are for women only. Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays are reserved for men. E. Lifeline
Our modern, fully-equipped gym is open to members seven days a week with 25 different classes, each suitable for a range of fitness levels. Whether you want to lose weight or recover from an injury, we can offer you a professional personal trainer to help you achieve your goal.
Task 3:
These people all want to do an art course. Below are descriptions of five courses. Decide which course would be the most suitable for the following people.
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1. Akio is an experienced artist looking for an enjoyable course where he can improve his skills. He enjoys painting outdoors and is free in the afternoons.
A. Complete beginners will learn how to create art based on their everyday experience. The course will explore subjects such as the street, the city, and friends and family. Students will also research a modern artist of their choice in order to become familiar with the language of painting. Classes are on Fridays, 2.30 – 4.30 p.m.
2. Jo is free during the day. She doesn‟t paint, but loves modern art and would like to learn more about it. She hopes to avoid spending all her time in the classroom.
B. This course is for anyone looking for a new hobby or a career change. Students will study some painting techniques and will also be introduced to the main areas of the cartoon industry, including drawing for books and newspapers. There is also advice on how to sell your work. Classes are on Mondays, 6.30 – 9.00 p.m.
C. This is a fun course, taught by a professional artist. Most lessons will take place in the countryside, where students will learn new techniques, not only from the teacher, but also from one another. The course takes place on Tuesdays 1.30 – 5.00 p.m.
3. Hugo draws in his free time, but would like to be able to earn money from it as he is bored with his current job. He can attend classes in the evening or at the weekend.
D. This course aims to provide an enjoyable introduction to the most important art from the Renaissance to the late 19th century. The course will focus on looking works of art and discussing them, and will help students decide whether to study the subject further. The course takes place on Tuesdays, 10.30 a.m. – 12.00 p.m.
E. This course looks at some of the most important art in the 21st century. Students will learn about a wide variety of artists, and will discuss the ideas behind their work. The course will include lectures, discussions and films, along with museum and gallery visits. Classes take place on Thursdays from 1.00 – 3.00 p.m.
Task 4:
These people all want to see a film. Read the descriptions of five films. Decide which film would be the most suitable for the following people.
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1. Antonio enjoys films with complicated stories that demand his attention. He likes films with plenty of action, as he gets bored quite easily.
A. Famous at Last
Toby and Amelia win a competition to star in a TV documentary about their lives. What they don‟t realise is that the show will become a huge success and that their lives will never be the same again. Younger audiences will find plenty to laugh at in this movie, but it does have a serious message as well about the price of fame.
2. Julia has two children aged 10 and 12, who love comedies. Julia prefers drama, but would like to find a film that they will all enjoy.
B. Escape
This entertaining film is based on a true story. A teenage criminal steals millions of dollars and then goes on the run. The film explores the developing relationship between him and the detective who is chasing him. This is quite a serious film, so don‟t expect car chases and gun fights – you‟ll be disappointed.
C. Remember
The last thing Anna remembers is the murder of her son. Despite having no money from that day on, she is determined to find his killer. This exciting, eventful film is split into two separate stories, one going back in time and one going forward. You have to concentrate throughout or you will get completely lost, but it‟s worth the effort! 3. Josef likes exciting films
set in beautiful landscapes. He particularly enjoy films about real people who follow their dream despite facing many difficulties on the way.
D. Flying Phoebe
This film tells the true story of Australian, Tim Starr, whose life-long ambition was to take his 1930s motorcycle, which „Phoebe‟, to the Atacama desert in Chile, to test its speed. Tim battles with ill-health and lack of money. He eventually makes it to Chile, but will the motorbike perform as he hopes? There is never a dull moment in this story.
E. Clowns Allowed
Adrian dreams of becoming a clown and runs away from home to join the circus. He is helped by ex-clown Mikey, who agrees to teach him everything he knows. Children will certainly find this comedy very amusing, but there is little depth to the story and the adults sitting with them may wish they were elsewhere.
Reading part 3 TRUE/ FALSE 1. Introduction
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- This part tests your ability to read a longer text and look for factual information. You have to find practical information in a leaflet, an advertisement, a website, a holiday brochure, etc.
2. Tips
- First, read the whole text quickly to get a general understanding of what it is about. - Then read a sentence and read the text to find the part that has the answer.
- Re-read that part of the text very carefully. You do not need to re-read the whole text carefully, only the parts that have answers to questions. Part three is the longest text in the test, but it has a lot of information you will not need.
- In this part, you may find some words you do not know. You do not need to understand every word to answer the
questions correctly. Just concentrate on getting the information you require to answer the question and do not worry about unfamiliar words.
3. Practice
Task 1: What is the meaning of these phrases? Tick A or B 1. walk for up to two hours at a time during a normal six-hour trek.
a. You can stop and have a break after two hours, and then again after the next two hours. b. You can have just one long two-hour break during a normal six-hour walk.
2. participants will not only … but also …
a. Participants will choose between two things. b. Participants will be able to do both things
3. … an overnight guided trip, staying in forest cabins …
a. Participants on the overnight guided trip will stay in forest cabins.
b. Participants on the overnight guided trip may prefer to stay in forest cabins.
4. an area … little known outside of New Zealand
a. People in other countries hardly know about this area. b. New Zealand people do not know about this area.
5. depending on the weather
a. We hope the weather is suitable. b. If the weather is suitable …
6. essential items which cannot be bought locally a. You are not able to buy these items here. b. Local people may be able to get these items.
7. Upon receipt of the form we will check X …
a. We will check X before we receive the form. b. We will check X after we receive the form.
8. If you decide not to go after all
a. … if we decide to cancel your booking. b. … if you change your mind about going. 9. needs to be paid to us
a. You need this money from us.
b. We need to receive this money from you.
10. … to arrange your own travel insurance ..
a. to be responsible for your travel insurance
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Task 2: Look at the sentences below about a man who owns a chain of restaurants. Read the text to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, put a tick (√) in the box under A for YES. If it is not correct, put a tick (√) in the box under B for NO.
A
B
1. The first „El Rio‟ became a popular restaurant as soon as it opened. 2. As a teenager, Andrew Benton always had clear plans for his future. 3. Andrew worked in number of restaurants before he turned 40. 4. Andrew‟s first job involved working with musicians.
5. Andrew failed in his career as a stage designer.
6. The idea of starting a restaurant came from Andrew‟s friend.
7. Andrew thought about opening a restaurant for many years before deciding to do it.
Andrew Benton, restaurant owner and businessman
Andrew Benton opened his first „El Rio‟ in 2003, selling Mexican food in a bright, modern environment. It was an immediate success and he now has a chain of restaurants across the country. All this is not bad for someone who left school at the age of 15 with no idea of what he wanted to do with his life.
He had several jobs through his 20s and 30s, but none of them had anything to do with food or cooking. In fact, he started out as a „roadie‟ for a rock band. He looked after the band‟s instruments and sound equipment and set up the stage for them. After that, he became a stage designer. He designed sets for some very famous bands, and became well known in the industry, but he never felt satisfied with his achievements and was always thinking of other things he could do instead. One day, he was discussing a few ideas with a friend of his, when the friend suggested he should open a restaurant. Andrew says he knew straight away that that was what he wanted to do. He went away and began doing some research, and two years later opened his first „El Rio‟. The rest is history.
Task 3: Look at the sentences below about adventure racing. Read the text to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, put a tick (√) in the box under A for YES. If it is not correct, put a tick (√) in the box under B for NO.
A
B
1. Adventure racing takes place at traditional sporting venues.
2. An even for first-time racers usually includes three different sporting skills. 3. Adventure racers sometimes have to climb the walls of tall buildings.
4. The tests for racers at checkpoints are designed to measure their levels of fitness. 5. There is an age limit for competitors.
6. There are organized opportunities for racers to improve their racing skills.
Adventure racing
Adventure racing developed from the triathlon, the three-part athletics even in which athletes race on foot, on bikes and in the water. During the 1980s, athletes added a range of other activities, and adventure racing was born.
A typical adventure race for beginners lasts 4 – 6 hours and includes swimming in a lake or river, mountain biking and running across rough countryside. Advanced-level races can be over several days and may include sports such as rock-climbing, mountaineering, roller-skating or skiing. A city event might include biking down stone stairs, getting through a large pipe or descending on a rope from the top of a block of flats.
Adventure races include checkpoints along the route, where racers are given tasks designed to test their ability to think clearly when physically very tired. For this reason, adventure racing is known as a „thought sport‟: winning or losing depends not only on speed and strength, but also on skills such as map-reading, planning and decision-making.
Almost anyone can try adventure racing, but for insurance purposes, you have to be 18 or over. For entry-level races you should be able to swim 1 kilometre, cycle 20 kilometres and run 5 kilometres. However, the ability to keep going without giving up is just as important as your sporting skill.
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If you decide to take adventure racing further, there are weekend training camps where you can learn more about various aspects of the sport, for example bike-handing, climbing down a cliff or race preparation! These courses usually end with a race in which you can try out what you have just learned.
Task 4: Look at the sentences below about Bloomingdale‟s, a department store in New York. Read the text to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, put a tick (√) in the box under A for YES. If it is not correct, put a tick (√) in the box under B for NO.
A
B
1. The brothers Lyman and Joseph called their first shop „Bloomingdale‟s‟. 2. Lyman and Joseph sold a range of different clothes in their shop. 3. The brothers moved their shop because business was bad on the old site. 4. From its earliest days, Bloomingdale‟s attracted customers with a lot of money. 5. People had to visit Bloomingdale‟s to find out what they sold.
6. Lyman organised special events for the public at Bloomingdale‟s. 7. Bloomingdale‟s designer shopping bags can be worth a lot of money. 8. The store began to attract younger customers in the 1970s.
9. Bloomingdale stores can be found in many countries around the world.
Bloomingdale’s
Store history
When the Bloomingdale brothers started doing business in New York City in 1872, clothes shops usually sold just one thing. But brothers Lyman and Joseph‟s new shop, known as the Great East Side Bazaar, carried a variety of items such as gloves, hats, skirts and underwear. It was the beginning of what would become a „department store‟.
The shop was very successful and, in 1886, the brothers relocated to 59th Street and Lexington Avenue. This area of town was home to many wealthy people and, of course, to their servants. It was to this group of workers – not their employers – that Bloomingdale‟s originally aimed its services.
Bloomingdale‟s was always looking for new ways to bring in customers. Lyman advertised in newspapers and on posters to let people know about the store‟s products and prices. He had some interesting ideas of how to make Bloomingdale‟s more popular. For example, he was one of the first to install elevators, or „sky-carriages‟ as he called them. The store also became the venue for fashion shows and other important occasions, including „Woman of the Year 1947‟.
In the 1960s, Bloomingdale‟s team came up with the first designer shopping bags. Since then many of these have become collectors‟ items and people pay a great deal for them. By the 1970s, the store was famous around the world. Even Queen Elizabeth paid a visit. For the first time in its history, it became fashionable with the under-25s. These days there are 36 Bloomingdale‟s stores in the USA and there are plans to open more. The first Bloomingdale‟s outside the USA is due to open in 2010 in Dubai.
Reading part 4
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1. Introduction
- In this part, there is a text of about 300 words followed by five multiple choice questions with four options, A, B, C or D. The text includes attitudes and opinions as well as facts.
2. Tips
- Read the questions and the text once fairly quickly to get an idea of the topic and general meaning of the text. - Think about the writer‟s purpose.
- Read the text again very carefully and then start dealing with the questions one by one, checking your answer each time with the text.
- The first question always tests writer purpose. To find the answer, you need to read the whole text. So, if you are not sure of the answer, leave this question to the end. Learn the meaning of words that describe writer purpose, e.g. advise,
complain, describe, encourage, explain, inform, insist, suggest and warn.
- Questions 22, 23 and 24 may test opinion, attitude and/ or detail. They follow the order of information in the text. - Questions 25 tests global understanding and the four options are longer. You will need to look back at different parts of
the text to answer this question.
3. Practice
Task 1: Look at the text below and match each one with a writer purpose (a, b or c)
1. We need to be careful to avoid the problems we had in the past. This time they might be more serious. a. to complain about present problems
b. to explain the reasons for past problems c. to warn about possible future problems
2. The hotel is one of the most beautiful parts of the city and so it should do better than it actually does. All the
managers would need to do is provide certain facilities for guests.
a. to describe the area where the hotel is b. to suggest improvements to the hotel c. to encourage people to stay at the hotel
3. I am going to say this just once, and I hope you will all take notice of my words. You are now in your final year at
school and you need some experience of the real world before you go to university. There is no better way to do this than by taking a year out and travelling.
a. to encourage students to travel b. to inform students about school travel c. to advise students on places to travel
Task 2: Read the text and questions below. For each question, circle the correct answer, A, B, C or D. A journey back in time
Kentwell Hall is a large, 16th-century house built 400 years ago during the Tudor period of English history. For several weeks every summer, up to 200 actors re-create Tudor life there. Visitors to the Kentwell Re-Creation will watch people who dress, talk and do things just as they used to do them in Tudor times.
You don‟t have to be a professional to be in the annual Kentwell Re-Creation and you won‟t be paid, but anyone of any ago can apply to take part. Sixteen-year-old Sally Hampton started doing it four years ago.
„There are lots of different roles. For three years I was a servant in the kitchen and learnt a lot about the food and ingredients the Tudors used, and also about the society at that time. This year I‟m in a group of players who go round performing songs and dances. Sometimes I play an original Tudor instrument, rather like a flute, and I‟ve learnt lots of 16th -century tunes. My favourite is called Greensleeves.‟
„The Kentwell Re-Creation is a fantastic opportunity to get away from the 21st century. It means leaving your mobile and
your jeans behind and living like a 16th-century person. When I first started I felt a bit stupid in my costume, trying to speak old-fashioned English but I got over it very quickly because everyone else was doing the same. And I‟ve made so many friends here, I can‟t wait to come back again.‟
1. Where would you find this text?
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B. In a history book. D. In a travel guide.
2. In her present role at the Kentwell Re-Creation, Sally
A. performs in a theatre. C. works as a waiter.
B. helps to prepare food. D. used her musical skills.
3. When Sally takes part in the Kentwell Re-Creation, she
A. enjoys making people laugh. C. has to talk in a special way.
B. is embarrassed by her costume. D. misses modern technology.
4. What might Sally write on a postcard to a friend?
A. Come and see me at Kentwell for the day. But you must wear a Tudor costume. B. Why don‟t you apply for the Kentwell Re-Creation next year? It‟s fantastic fun!
C. This will be my last time at Kentwell. Speaking old-fashioned English is just too difficult. D. The professional actors here get paid more than we do, but they‟re great to work with.
Task 3: Read the text about an underwater camera and questions below. For each question, circle the correct answer, A, B, C or D.
Digital underwater camera mask
Hardly anyone uses a film camera any more, but I often bought the single-use, underwater kind for holidays. However, even that may soon disappear with the appearance of this unusual type of camera in the shops. To see how good it is, I spent an afternoon under water with a couple of friends, in my neighbour‟s pool.
The camera was easy to use, but felt a little heavier than a normal swimming mask. There are large, colourful buttons for taking the pictures and starting or stopping the video. The camera cleverly turns off after two minutes if you don‟t use it, which should help save batteries. It comes with some rather unnecessary software which never reached my CD-drive.
The camera works to a depth of about five metres, and this is plenty for most swimmers. There‟s no flash, which could be a problem for cloudy days in a dark ocean, but didn‟t matter to us in the swimming pool. Also, it needs about a second between photos, so you might miss some of those fast-moving fish. However, my toughest challenge was learning how to aim. In the beginning I kept taking photos of people‟s feet instead of their faces! All in all though, this is a great camera and one I‟d happily recommend.
1. What is the writer doing in this text?
A. Writing a review of a new product. C. Explaining the advantages of digital cameras. B. Suggesting improvements to a product. D. Describing photos he took on holiday. 2. What did the writer especially like about the camera?
A. the software that came with it. C. the way the large, colourful buttons were designed. B. the fact that it isn‟t too heavy. D. the fact that it stops working when not in use. 3. Which of the following would the writer say about the camera?
A. It made me quite angry that I had to wait so long between pictures. B. It was a real shame that I couldn‟t use the camera in dark conditions. C. The most difficult thing was getting exactly the picture I wanted.
D. I was very disappointed that I couldn‟t take the camera deeper than five metres.
Task 4: Read the text and questions below. For each question, circle the correct answer, A, B, C or D. Yell!
My name‟s John Martin. Last summer, I went to London to meet Lorna Black, the head of an organisation that makes sure the voices of young people are heard. As a school student, I was invited to join the judges for a competition called „Yell!‟. The people who entered had to create an artwork – a picture, a film or a photo – showing one of the problems that young people face in society today.
Although Lorna and her colleagues had managed to select 30 finalists from the 3,000 entries, it was still really difficult to choose the winners. Of course I wanted the best entry to succeed, but I also didn‟t want to disappoint anyone. Judging the younger age group was particularly hard because, having a younger sister, I know how upset kids can get if they don‟t win.
The panel of four judges consisted of myself, Ali Lewis, lead singer of the band Popart, Helen Rivera, art designer of a daily newspaper, and Victor Staton, editor of a magazine for young people. I didn‟t always agree with their opinions, but it was a great challenge to work beside them as an equal, and an experience I will never forget.
1. What is the writer doing in this text?
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B. Encouraging school students to enter a competition. C. Encouraging school students to enter a competition. D. Describing his role in a competition.
2. Lorna Black works for an organisation that
A. makes films about young people. C. deals with young people‟s problems. B. makes sure young people are listened to. D. organises societies for young people. 3. The writer found his job difficult because
A. he felt sorry for the losers. C. there were too many finalists. B. all the entries were so good. D. he wanted his sister to win. 4. What would the writer say about the judges?
A. There weren‟t any disagreements, despite the difference in our ages. B. I felt that they looked down on me and didn‟t understand me. C. They respected my opinions even though I was the youngest. D. They were all experts so I wasn‟t able to say what I really thought.
Reading part 5 MULTIPLE-CHOICE CLOZE
In this part, you read a short text with ten gaps and an example. After the text, there are ten multiple-choice questions with four options for each gap. This part tests mainly vocabulary, but also some grammatical points.
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Tips
- Before answering any questions, read through the text to understand the topic and general meaning. - Go back to the beginning of the text and study the example.
- Start with the first gap. Read the complete sentence to make sure you choose the correct option. Think whether the word you have chosen fits grammatically, i.e. does it go well with the words that follow? Try the other three options in the gap to make sure they do not fit.
- When you have completed all the answers, read the whole text again to check that it makes sense. - Transfer your answers carefully on to Answer Sheet 1, Part Five.
Practice
Task 1 Complete the holiday blog with these quantifiers.
much a few many a couple of some a little
This is a picture of me in my favourite café. It was only (0) a few minutes’ walk from
our hotel and we spent (1) ___________ happy evenings there – nearly every evening, in fact! I had a really fantastic atmosphere, and the food was delicious. (2) ___________ times a week, usually on Fridays and Saturdays, a live band played and everyone could dance. They had (3) ___________ computers there too, so I could spend (4) ___________ time during the evening checking my emails. I had so (5) ________________ fun there, I’m really looking forward to going back.
Task 2 Choose the correct words to complete the email.
To: Colin
Subject: Swimming Hi Colin,
Sorry, I‟d like to come swimming with you but I help/ am helping Dad in the garden today. Why not come to dinner with us on Sunday instead? We usually (1) have/ are having our meal at midday at weekends, but at the moment we (2) eat/ are eating later because it‟s so hot. We can have a barbecue!
By the way, I (3) use/ are using my sister‟s mobile because mine (4) needs/ is needing a new battery. Give me a call – you (5) know/ are knowing the number, don‟t you?
Josh
Task 3 Complete the emails with one of the modals. There may be more than one right answer.
should may might could
To: Hal
Subject: Birthday party Hi Tim,
Well, I think the most important thing is to buy lots of food and drink. You (1) ___________ not need it all, but at least you won’t run out. Also, you (2)
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___________ have plenty of things for people to do. Maybe you (3) ___________ put up a volleyball net in the garden, or set up some board games in the living room. Another thing is to make sure you’ve got enough places for people to sit. You (4) ___________ find that more people turn up at your party than you expected! Oh, and don’t let people bring their own CDs – you (5) ________________ not share their taste in music!
Have fun! Hal
Task 4 John is at university in London. He is staying in a student flat. Complete his email to his friend with so, such, too or
enough.
London‟s Ok, but I‟m staying in (0) such an awful room, it‟s (1) ___________ cold I have to wear my hat and gloves all the time. The curtains are (2) ___________ thin to keep the light out and my duvet isn‟t thick (3) ___________ to keep me warm at night. There‟s (4) ___________ a big gap under the door that the wind blows in and there‟s never (5) ___________ hot water for a shower. And the rent is (6) ___________ high that I can‟t even afford to buy an extra blanket. Thank goodness I‟m moving next week!
Task 5: Fill in the gaps with the given words. One has been done for you.
aperitif bill book courses dessert
rare starter tip well-done main
EATING OUT
If you are planning to eat out in a restaurant you often have to (1) ___________ a table, especially if it‟s a popular place to eat. In most restaurants you usually have three (2) ___________. You start with a(n) (3) ___________ (e.g. soup), then you have the (4) ___________ course or dish (e.g. steak or chicken), and you can finish with a(n) (5) ___________ (e.g. ice cream or fruit salad). If you like you may also have a(n) (6) ___________ (e.g. gin and tonic) before the meal and coffee or tea after the meal. If you have steak you can ask to have it (7) ___________, medium or (8) ___________. When you are ready to pay, you ask for the (9) ___________ and sometimes you also have a(n) (10) ___________ for the waiter – 10% is usually enough.
Task 6 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
GLASTONBURY FESTIVAL – GET IN FOR FREE!
Glastonbury Festival will (0) ___________ place from Wednesday 26th to Sunday 30th June. (1) ___________, all stewards must be there on Tuesday 25th June to (2) ___________ time for team meetings.
Stewards work there eight-hour periods between the Wednesday and Sunday of the festival, one of (3) ___________ will probably be at night. Most of the stewards work at the entrance gates – either for vehicles or for (4) ___________. You may be asked to do other duties to help (5) ________________ the Festival a success, for example giving (6) ________________ programmes. A private campsite with toilets and hot showers is provided. We (7) ___________ provide five free meals and (8) ___________ free tea and coffee.
This year, all stewards will receive training before the festival begins. (9) ___________ of the training will be sent soon, (10) ___________ you of when and where it will happen.
1. A. Since B. Because of C. However D. Before
2. A. allow B. let C. remain D. stay
3. A. which B. whose C. that D. what
4. A. travellers B. pedestrians C. drivers D. passengers
5. A. become B. find C. have D. make
6. A. back B. in C. out D. up
7. A. also B. too C. either D. again
8. A. unknown B. uncontrolled C. unlimited D. unchecked
9. A. Notes B. Information C. Ideas D. Details
10. A. sending B. teaching C. saying D. informing
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The Royle Family
There are six stars in this TV comedy series: parents Jim and Barbara Royle, (0) their children Denise and Antony, Barbara‟s mum Nana, and Denise‟s husband Dave. They are (1) ___________of the most popular families on TV.
The programmes are always (2) ___________ in Jim and Barbara‟s living room, where everyone sits on the sofa in front of the television, Jim, who hasn‟t (3) ___________ a living for years, laughs at his own (4) ___________and is lazy and rude I (5) ________________ to Nana. It‟s his hard-working wife, Barbara, who is in (6) ________________ of things. She also defends their son Antony against the other family (7) ___________, who seem to think he is their servant.
Daughter Denise is just as lazy (8) ___________ her father, and she‟s spoilt too. She (9) ___________ to get her husband Dave to do everything for her. (10) ___________ both Denise and Nana have their own houses, they never seem to spend any time there.
0. A. their B. his C. its D. her
1. A. some B. all C. one D. many
2. A. put B. kept C. set D. had
3. A. earned B. worked C. employed D. managed
4. A. words B. fun C. jokes D. acts
5. A. really B. surely C. fairly D. especially
6. A. turn B. charge C. case D. advance
7. A. members B. people C. colleagues D. partners
8. A. as B. like C. so D. than
9. A. achieves B. persuades C. succeeds D. manages
10. A. Whether B. Although C. Yet D. Despite
Task 8 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space. Agyness Deyn
The model Agyness Deyn was born Laura Hollins (0) on 16 February 1983. Many people (1) ___________ her to be the next great supermodel of the fashion (2) ___________. The unusual (3) ___________ of her hair and brightly-coloured clothes make her stand out from the crowd. Unlike many (4) ___________ models, Agyness doesn‟t only appear in public (5) ________________ the latest fashions. She likes to (6) ________________ fun with her clothes, and the way she dresses (7) ___________ that she is a lively and creative person.
At the age of fourteen, she began working in a fish and chop shop in Manchester. Two years later, she moved to London, where she worked in a burger bar (8) ___________ the daytime and at a night club in the evenings. When she was eighteen, she (9) ___________ with a model agency called Models 1. Her best friend is the designer Henry Holland, (10) ___________ used to be a customer of hers at the fish and chip shop. She is now the „face‟ of his company.
0. A. on B. by C. in D. at
1. A. say B. consider C. see D. suggest
2. A. company B. firm C. industry D. organisation
3. A. shape B. design C. form D. style
4. A. other B. extra C. further D. additional
5. A. showing B. wearing C. using D. having
6. A. have B. make C. do D. take
7. A. tells B. shows C. says D. displays
8. A. since B. until C. during D. for
9. A. joined B. connected C. registered D. attended
10. A. which B. whose C. what D. who
Task 9 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
RAINFOREST ANIMALS
Scientists believe that rainforests (0) may be home to more than ten million different forms of wildlife. The largest group (1) ___________ of insects, which climb or fly easily from tree to tree. Most people are familiar (2) ___________ colourful parrots, but they are only one part of the total bird (3) ___________, which goes from tiny hummingbirds to huge toucans. Many rainforest animals have developed for living in the treetops. Some monkeys have thin webs of skin between their legs that (4) ___________ them to almost fly between (5) ________________. Others have long, strong tails, like an (6) ________________ arm, so they can hang down to (7) ___________ pieces of fruit. (8) ___________ the weather is so hot and damp during the day, most forest creatures are active during the (9) ___________ of darkness. And a large number of animals, including great apes, big cats and (10) ___________ elephants, live on the forest floor.
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0. A. may B. can C. should D. would
1. A. keeps B. consists C. holds D. claims
2. A. with B. to C. of D. by
3. A. set B. company C. population D. society
4. A. let B. allow C. make D. admit
5. A. branches B. leaves C. flowers D. plants
6. A. accurate B. equal C. extra D. alive
7. A. contact B. achieve C. approach D. reach
8. A. Although B. When C. Since D. Unless
9. A. hours B. days C. seasons D. times
10. A. only B. almost C. hardly D. even
Task 10 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
Interview technique
Most people find the thought (0) of a job interview terrifying. However, it is important not to be too (1) ___________ on the day, because this could (2) ___________ your chances of getting the job. The best (3) ___________ to beat the fear is to be very well (4) ___________. Research everything you can about the company and the person who will be interviewing you. This will help you feel more in (5) ________________ of the situation, and you will impress the interviewer with your knowledge.
Find out your best route to the interview and make sure you know how (6) ________________ it will take you to get there. Decide (7) ___________ you are going to wear the night before the interview. Choose something you feel comfortable in, (8) ___________ which makes you look smart and successful. And finally, on arriving at the reception desk, (9) ___________ polite to the staff there. You never know whose opinion matters most in a company – after all, the receptionist (10) ___________ be married to the person who is interviewing you!
0. A. of B. for C. by D. to
1. A. stressful B. terrible C. angry D. nervous
2. A. stop B. spoil C. hold D. break
3. A. means B. manner C. way D. system
4. A. prepared B. produced C. placed D. planned
5. A. power B. control C. rule D. influence
6. A. late B. far C. time D. long
7. A. what B. that C. why D. when
8. A. but B. despite C. except D. although
9. A. get B. stay C. be D. have
10. A. must B. might C. should D. would
Task 11 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
Heathrow Airport is one of the busiest (1) ___________ airports in the world. More than 90 (2) ___________ use Heathrow to fly direct to about 200 (3) ___________ in 83 countries in the world. Every year Heathrow handles 450,000 international (4) ___________, at an average of 1,300 per day. This is more than one a minute from six o‟clock in the morning till midnight. Almost 58,000 people (5) ________________ at Heathrow, that‟s the population of a small town. There are around 75,000,000 (6) ________________ of baggage going through Heathrow each year and there are over 9,500 baggage (7) ___________ available for passengers – more than in any other airport. Passengers (8) ___________ 26,000 cups of tea and 6,500 sandwiches at Heathrow every day and the duty-free (9) ___________ sell a bottle of whisky every 7 seconds – that‟s more than 500 bottles an hour. The most common illness among passengers is heart attack. Around 40 people every year died in this way while (10) ___________ to or through Healthrow.
1. A. local B. international C. famous D. public
2. A. planes B. tourists C. airlines D. airports
3. A. destinations B. countries C. terminals D. runways
4. A. trips B. journeys C. airplanes D. flights
5. A. fly B. work C. travel D. board
6. A. suitcases B. bags C. bits D. pieces
7. A. buses B. baskets C. collectors D. trolleys
8. A. drink B. eat C. buy D. sell
9. A. shops B. points C. corners D. trolleys
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Task 12 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space. The weather (1) ___________ for noon tomorrow:
The temperatures will be generally (2) ___________ in Scotland and the north of England, but will be (3) ___________ zero in the rest of the country. There will be (4) ___________ rain in Scotland, moving into northern England later in the afternoon. Wales and the South West will be cloudy with (5) ________________ intervals and with (6) ________________ of up to 15miles an hour. The South East will be (7) ___________ and foggy but it will become (8) ___________ and dry later. The rest of England will be cloudy with a few (9) ___________ and even some snow in inland areas. In Northern Ireland, (10) ___________ will be just above zero.
1. A. news B. preview C. forecast
2. A. big B. high C. above
3. A. more B. under C. below
4. A. heavy B. strong C. much
5. A. warm B. sunny C. clear
6. A. temperatures B. rain C. winds
7. A. sunny B. wet C. drizzle
8. A. clear B. rainy C. damp
9. A. showers B. intervals C. rain
10. A. winds B. temperatures C. thunderstorms
Task 13 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
If you travel to London by train you can (1) ___________ your ticket at the local train station using a (2) ___________. At certain times of the day there is a discount on the (3) ___________ so you can sometimes get a(n) (4) ___________ ticket. It‟s a good idea to have plenty of (5) ________________ with you so that you can use it to (6) ________________ for your underground ticket from a machine when you arrive in London. If you don‟t have the correct (7) ___________ you will probably have to queue a the ticket office. Of course you can also go to London by coach. This is not as (8) ___________ as the train, although it takes longer. The driver can (9) ___________ you a ticket, and it doesn‟t cost (10) ___________ to travel at busy times of day.
1. A. sell B. buy C. win D. pay
2. A. receipt B. cheque C. credit card D. change
3. A. fare B. ticket C. cost D. bill
4. A. economical B. single C. expensive D. cheap
5. A. money B. change C. currency D. exchange
6. A. earn B. save C. cost D. pay
7. A. ticket B. money C. currency D. total
8. A. cheaper B. more money C. expensive D. more
9. A. buy B. sell C. offer D. lend
10. A. money B. anything C. extra D. cheap
Task 14 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
If you are an adult aged 18 or more you are welcome to (1) ___________ our international Summer Course in English Language. We (2) ___________ the course between Saturday June 29th and Saturday August 17th. You can enroll for a course of two weeks or more at any time during this period. The course will take place on the premises of one of the oldest (3) ___________ in Oxford University. It stands in the centre of the University area and has two hundred and ninety undergraduates and one hundred and sixty graduate students during the (4) ___________ year.
During the course you will (5) ________________ fifteen classroom hours per week learning English as a foreign language. You will also have an hour session per week (6) ________________ British culture and history. There will be a maximum of twelve students per class. On the first Monday of the course we will (7) ___________ you a test and interview in order to place you in an appropriate level of class.
During the course you will be given all the teaching material and you will be able to (8) ___________ the college‟s Internet facilities. You will mostly practice your speaking and listening (9) ___________ while your class teacher and the director of studies monitor you on an individual basis. When you complete the course successfully you will receive a (10) ___________ of attendance.
1. A. take B. have C. study D. learn
2. A. participate B. attend C. offer D. start
3. A. colleges B. schools C. universities D. classrooms
4. A. school B. calendar C. academic D. teaching
5. A. access B. learn C. be D. have
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7. A. give B. write C. take D. pass
8. A. practice B. borrow C. use D. join
9. A. ability B. skills C. knowledge D. results
10. A. degree B. diploma C. licence D. certificate
Task 15 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
The right dog for you
Buying a dog is a very big responsibility and one of the (1) ___________ important decisions that any family has to make. A dog is for (2) ___________ and it will become your concern for the next ten years at least. Before you rush into getting one, consider first if and how it will fit into your lifestyle and what you can give it in return. Being a dog (3) ___________ can be extremely rewarding. But don‟t forget that your furry friend will need regular (4) ___________, feeding, grooming and most of all companionship. You must be ready to set aside some time every day to look after it and (5) ________________ with it. When we (6) ________________ a dog into our family we want it to be liked by everyone who comes to our home, whether they are friends, our children‟s friends or visitors on business. We don‟t want our new family (7) ___________ to be annoying to us or anyone else either in the car or when we are (8) ___________ it for a walk in the street or in the countryside. Our dogs have to (9) ___________ good behaviour and we have to teach them. We should use a lot of repetition, we should watch our for instinctive behaviour which we must control, and we should teach the dog to trust us. We must try to understand (10) ___________ the dog‟s senses work and find a way to control them.
1. A. more B. very much C. most D. much
2. A. now B. living C. life D. always
3. A. buyer B. lover C. companion D. owner
4. A. exercise B. food C. game D. treatment
5. A. train B. play C. teach D. exercise
6. A. grow B. buy C. take D. own
7. A. animal B. member C. creature D. visitor
8. A. bringing B. getting C. taking D. letting
9. A. learning B. be C. educate D. behave
10. A. if B. when C. which D. now
Task 16: Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
At the Open University, you get as much support as you personally need. (1) _______ you haven‟t studied for a while, we‟ll help you get started. And (2) _______ if you have, you still be glad to know that help is always there for you. All you need have is an enthusiasm for your studies (3) _______ a willingness to learn. We have 13 local offices around the UK (4) _______ we will put you in touch with your nearest OU centre from the start. You‟ll (5) _______ have a personal tutor who is a specialist in the subject you want to study. You can talk over the phone, face to face, via email (6) _______ computer conference. As the course progresses, you can meet and exchange ideas with other students (7) _______. Your tutor will give you regular guidance and assessment (8) _______ you will know how your studies are getting on and you will feel sure about how much you progress. Remember, (9) _______ you join the OU, you‟re never alone – more students register every year with the OU(10) _______ with any other UK university.
1. A. But B. If C. After D. So
2. A. when B. although C. even D. or
3. A. and B. so C. also D. than
4. A. but B. because C. when D. so
5. A. although B. also C. when D. only
6. A. as well B. only C. even D. or
7. A. as well B. even C. than D. after
8. A. because B. although C. so D. but
9. A. before B. when C. even D. like
10. A. also B. only C. than D. and
Task 17: Complete the letter with the given verbs. Put them in the right form, to + infinitive or –ing; use two of the verbs twice.
become bring change come drive (x 2) learn work leave let meet see (x 2) slow tell write
Dear Charlotte,
Thank you for your lovely letter. It was great to hear from you. My news is that I‟ve decided (1) ___________ jobs. I finish (2) ___________ at Thompsons in two weeks and I am starting with my new company on 1st April. Thompsons didn‟t want
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me (3) ___________ but Martins, the new company, offered me more money and more prospects for a career. I hope (4) ___________ a manager in less than a year.
By the way, I forgot (5) ________________ you that I‟m learning (6) ________________. You see, I am going to drive a lot around the country and the company offered (7) ___________ me use one of their cars. It wasn‟t easy at first because I wanted (8) ___________ everything quickly. My teacher said I was a bit dangerous on the road and advised me (9) ___________ down. Now I even enjoy (10) ___________!
Well, I‟m having a party on the 23rd and I‟d love (11) ___________ you. Most people won‟t be there before 9.00 but if you
feel like (12) ___________ earlier you‟re very welcome. And you must promise (13) ___________ your new boyfriend! I would really like (14) ___________ him.
I‟ve got to stop (15) ___________ now and rush off to work. Looking forward to (16) ___________ you on the 23rd. Lots of love
Anne
Task 18 Read the text and choose the correct word for each space.
“Welcome to Funway Sports Camp. Before you spilt (1) _______ groups, let me give you some information (2) _______ the plans for this week. During your time here you take part (3) _______ twelve different sports activities. (4) _______ the mornings there is a planned programme, but we offer you a choice (5) _______ afternoon activities. You need to sign a list before midday today, saying which sport you are interested (6) _______. You will see the list of activities (7) _______ the wall just as you come (8) _______ the changing rooms. Now, clothes. You can wear your tracksuit (9) _______ most sports but remember to bring sports and a T-shirt as well in case it‟s too hot. Make sure you have two pairs of sports shoes (10) _______ you, too.”
1. A. from B. into C. out of D. at
2. A. for B. to C. about D. of
3. A. into B. on C. at D. in
4. A. On B. In C. At D. From
5. A. of B. for C. from D. about
6. A. about B. in C. for D. after
7. A. in B. on C. over D. at
8. A. on B. up C. below D. out of
9. A. with B. for C. in D. about
10. A. on B. for C. with D. from
WRITING PART 1 TRANSFORMATION I. Introduction
- In part I you are asked to read five sentences and rewrite them. The beginning of each sentence is written for you. You must complete the new sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first sentence. All the five sentences are about the same subject. You can you the exam paper for your rough answer, but you must write your final answer on your answer sheet
- Test requirement:
Writing Part 1 Questions 1 – 5
Here are some sentences about a café.
For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first. Use no more than three words.
Write only the missing words on the answer sheet.
II. Grammar required:
1. Tenses
2. Passive voice 3. Indirect speech 4. Conditionals 5. Relative clauses
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6. Infinitives
7. Gerunds
8. Adjectives, adverbs, comparison
9. Modifiers 10. Articles 11. Modal verbs 12. Nouns 13. Conjunctions 14. Phrasal verbs III. Tips - Spell correctly
- Write no more than three words.
IV. Practice 1: Exercise 1:
There are a lot of ways of saying the same thing. Find sentences in this advertisement which has the same meaning as sentences 1 – 10.
SUN AND SEA HOLIDAY FLATS
This block of flat was built five years ago. It has four floors, with four large flats on each floor. All the flats on the upper floors can be reached by lift.
Each flat has a living room, two bedrooms, kitchen and bathroom. There is also a small store room which can be used as an extra bedroom.
All the flats have air-conditioning. Some have central heating during the winter months. Tenants have a choice between gas and electric cookers in the kitchens. New up-to-date showers were installed in all the bathrooms last year. Flats can be rented weekly, fortnightly or monthly. It is not possible to rent a flat for less than a week. The rent for flats with a sea view is higher. There is a manager in attendance. The manager‟s office is in the entrance hall on the ground floor of the building.
Example:
1. Tenants can choose between gas and electric cookers in the kitchen.
Tenants have a choice between gas and electric cookers in the kitchens
2. You can also use the small store room as an extra bedroom.
_______________________________________________________________________ 3. They built the flat five years ago.
_______________________________________________________________________ 4. During the winter months, there is central heating in some of the flats.
_______________________________________________________________________ 5. There are four floors, with four large flats on each floor in the block.
_______________________________________________________________________ 6. Last year the owners installed new up-to-date showers in all the bathrooms.
_______________________________________________________________________ 7. You cannot rent a flat for less than a week.
_______________________________________________________________________ 8. The manager has an office in the entrance hall on the ground floor.
_______________________________________________________________________ 9. The flats which do not have a sea view are cheaper to rent.
_______________________________________________________________________ 10. If you take the lift, you can reach all the flats on the upper floor.
Exercise 2
Sometimes you can change sentences by changing a verb to a noun or a noun to a verb.
E.g.: There is a choice for buyers between two bedrooms and three bedrooms. (noun) Buyers can choose between two bedrooms and three bedrooms.
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Complete this table of verbs and nouns.
Verb Noun Verb Noun Verb Noun
choose choice advise Advice move
correct announce weigh
success improve pronounce
attract Practice direct
meaning develop inform
describe invasion depart
invite meet educate
Exercise 3
Now change these sentences by using a verb or noun. The first one has been done for you. 1. He gave a description of his house in a letter.
His letter described his new house.
2. The flats were advertised in the local newspaper.
There was _____________________________________________________
3. They received some advice from their neighbours.
Their neighbours ________________________________________________
4. The weight of the package is 2.5 kilograms.
The package _____________________________________________________.
5. There was an announcement about the winners.
Somebody ______________________________________________________.
6. They discussed the problem for three hours.
Their __________________________________________________________.
7. He received part of his education in France.
He was _________________________________________________________.
8. There‟s going to be a new development.
Something new is _________________________________________________.
Exercise 4
Here are some sentences about a woman who works as a party organizer. For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first.
Use no more than three words.
E.g.: Kate Elkin left school without any qualifications.
When Kate Elkin left school, she _________ have any qualifications.
1. She worked in a shop that sold things for parties.
She had a _________ in a shop that sold things for parties.
2. One day, a customer asked Kate to help her organize a party.
One day, a customer said „Can _________ organize a party?”
3. Kate and the woman spent the several weeks planning the party.
It took Kate and the woman several weeks _________ the party.
4. The party was so good that the woman recommended Kate to all her friends.
It was _________ good party that the woman recommended Kate to all her friends.
5. Now Kate is the most popular party organizer in London.
Now Kate is _________ than any other party organizer in London.