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1) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the neural basis of executive functions.

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Section A (Cognition): multiple choice questions

Answer all questions in Section A in 30 minutes

1) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the neural basis of executive functions.

(a) Prefrontal cortex plays a critical role in executive functions.

(b) Evidence suggests hierarchical organisation of executive function regions in prefrontal cortex

(c) Common regions in prefrontal cortex are engaged in many different situations demanding executive functioning.

(d) Situations demanding executive functioning commonly activate regions in parietal cortex.

(e) Regions involved in executive functions overlap strongly with those involved in the control of eye movements.

2) What is the current take on the debate concerning whether attention modulation occurs early, during sensory processing, or late, after sensory analysis? (Choose ONE):

(a) Modulation always starts early and then cascades to later stages

(b) Modulation tends to start later, but then feedback to influence processing of simple features

(c) Modulation occurs early only whet there is high perceptual load

(d) Modulation occurs late unless there is no response conflict

(2)

3) What is the current take on the debate concerning whether attention modulation is based on spatial location or object representations? (Choose ONE):

(a) Spatial modulation takes precedence over forms of attention-related modulation

(b) Object-based modulation takes precedence over forms of attention-related modulation

(c) Spatial and object-based modulation both occur, and are the only modes of modulation in the brain

(d) Spatial and object-based modulation both occur, and other types of modulation can occur based on receptive-field properties

(e) Spatial and object-based modulation are only two types of modulation among many types, including some that are not based on receptive-field properties

4) Which of the following provides an accurate contemporary definition of selective attention (choose ONE):

(a) Psychological state associated with the transition between perception and awareness

(b) Psychological and neural functions for prioritisation and selection of information to guide adaptive behaviour

(c) Psychological and neural processes linked to making motivated choices

(d) Psychological state related to exerting continuous effort

(3)

5) Which of the following properties was NOT shown to be true of short-term (working) memory in classic cognitive psychology studies?

(a) Short-term memory capacity is limited to 7 (plus or minus 2) items

(b) Items in short-term memory decay rapidly unless rehearsed

(c) Forgetting from short-term memory depends partly on interference from previously stored items

(d) The partial report paradigm shows that more items are stored in short-term memory than reported accurately

(e) Short-term memory leads to a “recency effect” whereby the last few items in a list are

6) Which of the following statements is TRUE for studies of the neural basis of working memory?

(a) Neural activity during working memory delay periods is only seen in prefrontal cortex

(b) Working memory tasks activate a “multiple demand” system such that the same pattern of prefrontal cortex activity is observed regardless of working memory content and processes

(c) There is substantial overlap in neural networks supporting working memory tasks and the control of visual attention

(d) Successful maintenance is only seen when neural activity continues across a working memory delay period

(e) Activity during working memory delay periods can be measured with fMRI but not EEG

7) Which of the following is a hallmark of categorical perception on identification or discrimination tasks?

(a) The identification function is linear across the continuum

(b) The slope of the identification function is flat at the boundary between phonemes

(c) The discrimination of across category pairs is good (high) whereas the discrimination of within category pairs is poor (low)

(d) The discrimination of both across category pairs and within category pairs is good (high).

(e) The discrimination of across category pairs is poor (low) whereas the discrimination of within category pairs is good (high)

(4)

8) Consider lateralization of language. Which of the following is true:

(a) The majority of right handed people are right hemisphere lateralized for speech

(b) The majority of left handed people are right hemisphere lateralized for speech

(c) The majority of left handed people have bilateral speech

(d) The majority of right handed and left handed people are left hemisphere lateralized for speech

(e) The majority of right handed people have bilateral speech

9) The word superiority effect:

(a) Provides evidence that words are processed in a bottom up fashion

(b) Demonstrates that letters are more easily identified in isolation than when presented in words

(c) Demonstrates that letters are more easily identified in words than when presented in nonwords

(d) Provides evidence that nonwords are read more slowly than words

(e) Demonstrates that words are read more clearly in the upper visual field

10) Which of the following statements is true about patients with Broca’s aphasia? (a) Speech production is nonfluent, comprehension is relatively spared, the lesion typically encompasses the left inferior frontal gyrus

(b) Speech production is fluent, comprehension is impaired, the lesion typically encompasses the left posterior superior temporal gyrus

(c) Speech production is nonfluent, repetition is impaired, the lesion typically encompasses the left inferior parietal cortex

(d) Speech production is fluent, comprehension is impaired, the lesion typically encompasses the left inferior frontal gyrus

(e) Speech production is fluent, repetition is impaired, the lesion typically encompasses the arcuate fasciculus

(5)

11) The visual word form area:

(a) Activates more to upper case than lower case letters

(b) Activates more to stimuli in the right visual field than those in the left visual field

(c) Does not activate to words presented foveally

(d) Is activated reliably by false fonts

(e) Demonstrates spatial and case invariance

12) A patient with receptive agrammatism would have problems correctly understanding which of the following sentences?

(a) The boy was eating the apple

(b) The apple was eaten by the boy

(c) The girl kissed the boy eating an apple

(d) The boy the girl kissed ate an apple

(e) The girl eating an apple kissed the boy

13) Which of the following statements about the acquired dyslexias is false? (a) Surface dyslexics cannot read irregular familiar words

(b) Phonological dyslexics can read pseudowords

(c) Phonological dyslexics can read irregular familiar words

(d) Deep dyslexics cannot read pseudo words

(6)

14) Medial temporal lobe amnesic patients such as Clive Wearing and KC would be most substantially impaired in remembering which of the following types of

information?

(a) Facts about famous historical figures

(b) The names of familiar objects

(c) Events from their childhood

(d) Events from yesterday

(e) The last thing said to them

15) The “difference due to memory” effect, also known as the “subsequent memory” effect refers to which of the following findings?

(a) Brain activity that is higher when recalling from memory vs. initially encoding information

(b) Brain activity that is higher for remembered items vs. forgotten items

(c) Brain activity that is higher when trying to store information in memory vs. simply perceiving

(d) Encoding a list of items is improved if it has previously been seen

(e) Retrieval of a list of items is improved after previously being tested

16) Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Complementary Learning Systems theory of the relationship between hippocampal and neocortical memory systems:

(a) The hippocampus is specialised for episodic memory

(b) The hippocampus is specialised for fast learning

(c) The neocortex is specialised for gradual learning

(d) The neocortex is specialised for integrating memory to extract consistent associations

(7)

17) People are faster to verify the statement that “an apple is a fruit” than “a fig is a fruit”. This is an example of (circle the answer that best applies):

(a) Hierarchical storage

(b) Generalization

(c) Basic level advantage

(d) Prototype advantage

(e) Progressive differentiation

18) The graph below plots a sigmoid activation function for a unit in a connectionist model.

Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of this activation function: (a) As net input to the unit increases, its activity approaches an asymptotic level

(b) The unit is most sensitive to input when its net input is zero

(c) Inhibitory input tends to reduce activity of the unit towards zero

(d) The unit is inactive in the absence of any net input

(8)

19) In a study by Kahneman and Tversky (1973), participants were given brief descriptions of people that were supposedly drawn from a set of descriptions of 30 engineers and 70 lawyers. Which of the following statements is NOT true of

participants’ responses when given an uninformative description (e.g., “Tom is a 30-year-old man. He is married with no children. A man of high ability and high

motivation, he promises to be quite successful in his field. He is well liked by his colleagues”).

(a) They would judge the description according to its availability in memory

(b) They would reason using heuristics rather than the laws of probability

(c) They would rate it equally likely that the description was of a lawyer vs. an engineer

(d) They would show insensitivity to prior probabilities

(e) They would neglect the base rates of the two professions in the set of descriptions

20) Metcalfe and Wiebe (1987) directly compared participants’ performance in multi-step vs. insight problem solving. What was their main finding about the difference between the two?

(a) Participants’ ratings of how close they were to a solution were less accurate in insight puzzles than in multi-step problems

(b) Participants solved insight puzzles faster than multi-step problems

(c) Solution times showed a greater effect of hints in insight puzzles than multi-step problems

(d) Participants were more likely to use analogical reasoning in insight puzzles than multi-step problems

(e) Solution times depended more on participants’ ability to find the correct problem representation in insight puzzles than multi-step problems

(9)

Section B (Behavioural Neuroscience): multiple choice questions

Answer all questions in Section B in 30 minutes

1. After several conditioning sessions, dogs salivate before meat powder is

placed in their mouths. This increase in salivation to the previously neutral is

an example of

a) sensory preconditioning

b) selective association

c) a conditioned response

d) release from blocking

e) all of the above

2. Harding et al., (2004) varied housing style for rats (rattus norvegicus) and

showed an influence on discrimination performance. They claimed that this

was a model of

a) obsessive compulsive disorder

b) attention deficit disorder

c) depression

d) schizophrenia

e) anorexia

3. Tinbergen showed that herring gull (Larus argentatus) chicks peck to an

artificial head even more when it does not visually resemble a parent gull

head. The stimulus that elicited the most behaviour was an:

a) conditioned stimulus

b) innate behaviour

c) supernormal stimuli

d) fixed action pattern

e) unconditioned stimulus

4. Holland (1977) showed that rats (rattus norvegicus) would rear to a

conditioned stimulus associated with food. From the list below, which is the

most likely stimulus to elicit rearing?

a) a diffuse pure tone

b) vibro-tactile stimulus attached to the conditioning chamber

c) a raised light source

d) heat

(10)

5. Consider the following experimental design for a Blocking (Kamin, 1969)

experiment. Phase 1 was conducted before Phase 2 and involved many trials

of each of the following stimuli (e.g., N+ refers to a Noise Stimulus followed by

Shock, L- is a test of L without the shock). Assume that alpha for each

stimulus is the same.

Phase 1

Phase 2

Test

Group 1

N+

NL+

L-

Group 2

C+

NL+

L-

Group 3

-

NL+

L-

Given what we know about Kamin’s effects, the predicted level of fear to L

would be:

a) Group 1> Group 2>Group 3

b) Group 2=Group 3>Group 1

c) Group 3>Group 1=Group 2

d) Group 1>Group 3=Group 2

e) Group 1=Group 2=Group 3

6. If you ran the same experiment as outlined above but in both phases

changed the outcome from shock to food, according to the Rescorla-Wagner

model the predicted level of fear to L would be:

a) Group 1> Group 2>Group 3

b) Group 2=Group 3>Group 1

c) Group 3>Group 1=Group 2

d) Group 1>Group 3=Group 2

e) Group 1=Group 2=Group 3

7. According to Pavlov (1927), conditioned responding to cue N in Group 3 is:

a) Inhibited

b) Selectively attended

c) Blocked

d) Overshadowed

(11)

8. According to Wagner’s Sometimes Opponent Process (Standard Operating

Procedure; SOP) model of memory and attention which of the following

transitions is not possible in a normal subject?

a) A1→A2

b) I→A2

c) A2→I

d) A2→A1

e) I→A1

9. Which of the following statements about GluA1 (GluR-A; GluR1) AMPA

receptor subunit knockout mice is false?

a) They exhibit deficits in hippocampal long-term potentiation (LTP)

b) They are impaired on the spatial reference memory version of the Morris

watermaze task

c) They are impaired at spatial working memory on the radial maze

d) They are impaired on a non-spatial recognition, recency-dependent object

recognition memory task

e) They show normal context-dependent object recognition

10. In 2006 Whitlock and colleagues studied the effects on synaptic plasticity

of training rats on an inhibitory avoidance task. Which of the following

statements is false?

a) Inhibitory avoidance training resulted in little overall change in the size of

electrically evoked field (excitatory post-synaptic potentials) EPSPs in the

hippocampus

b) Inhibitory avoidance training resulted in increased levels of the GluN1

(NR1) NMDA receptor subunit in post-synaptic membranes

c) Inhibitory avoidance training resulted in increased levels of the GluA1

(GluR1; GluR-A) AMPA receptor subunit in post-synaptic membranes

d) Inhibitory avoidance training resulted in increased levels of the GluA2

(GluR2; GluR-B) AMPA receptor subunit in post-synaptic membranes

e) Inhibitory avoidance training occluded subsequent attempts to induce LTP

with electrical high frequency stimulation in the hippocampus

11. Which of the following statements about Process S (from Borbely’s Two

Process model of sleep) during sleep is false?

a) Process S increases with time spent awake

b) Process S is correlated with Slow Wave Activity (SWA) during non-REM

sleep

c) Process S decreases with time spent asleep

d) The Synaptic Homeostasis Hypothesis (SHY) proposes that Process S is

reduced as a consequence of synaptic downscaling (reducing the strength

of synaptic connections in the brain) during sleep

(12)

12. Which of the following statements about the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)

subtype of glutamate receptors is false?

a) The NMDA receptor is voltage gated

b) The NMDA receptor ion channel is permeable to sodium ions

c) The NMDA receptor ion channel is blocked by calcium ions at the normal

resting membrane potential

d) NMDA receptor antagonists applied 15 minutes after a high frequency

stimulus (tetanus) have no effect on pre-existing long-term potentiation

(LTP)

e) Reduced function of NMDA receptors is implicated in schizophrenia

13. In 1996 Tsien and colleagues reported a study in which they used

genetically modified mice lacking NMDA receptors to investigate the

importance of synaptic plasticity for memory. Which of the following

statements is false?

a) They selectively knocked out the obligatory NR1 (GluN1) subunit of the

NMDA receptor

b) There was no long-term potentiation (LTP) in the CA1 subfield of

hippocampal slices taken from these NR1 (GluN1) knockout mice

c) Levels of NMDA receptors in the CA3 and dentate gyrus subfields of the

hippocampus were normal

d) These NR1 (GluN1) knockout mice spent less time in the target

(training/goal) quadrant during a probe (transfer) test at the end of

watermaze training

e)

These NR1 (GluN1) knockout mice performed normally on the “Landmark

Task” during which the platform location was indicated by a non-spatial

visible cue

14. In 2008 Vyazovskiy and colleagues provided evidence for the Synaptic

Homeostasis Hypothesis (SHY). Which of the following statements is false?

They found that periods of wakefulness (compared to periods of sleep) were

associated with

a) increased levels of the GluA1 AMPA receptor subunit in cortical

synaptoneurosomes (including post-synaptic membranes)

b) increased levels of the GluA1 AMPA receptor subunit in hippocampal

synaptoneurosomes (including post-synaptic membranes)

c) an increase in the size of the electrically evoked local field potential (LFP)

in cortex

d) increased long-term potentiation (LTP) induced electrically with a high

frequency stimulus

(13)

15. Which of the following patterns of brain damage is associated with

Korsakoff’s syndrome (alcohol amnestic syndrome)?

a) thalamic damage but not hypothalamic damage

b) hypothalamic damage but not thalamic damage

c) both thalamic damage and hypothalamic damage

d) neither thalamic damage nor hypothalamic damage

e) none of the above

16. Which of these combinations of brain regions are all part of the

Delay-Brion circuit?

a) Hippocampus, Anterior thalamus, Mammillary bodies, Amygdala

b) Hippocampus, Retrosplenial cortex, Mammillary bodies, Amygdala

c) Hippocampus, Fornix, Mammillary bodies, Amygdala

d) Hippocampus, Fornix, Retrosplenial Cortex, Cerebellum

e) Fornix, Retrosplenial Cortex, Mammillary bodies, Anterior thalamus

17. Which of these brain areas did Suzuki (1996) not report as having direct

input projections to perirhinal cortex?

a) Auditory superior temporal gyrus

b) Visual area TE

c) Visual area TEO

d) Somatosensory insular cortex

e) Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

18. Which of these statements is incorrect, considering the theory that simple

elemental features are represented posteriorly in the primate ventral visual

stream and complex conjunctions of features are represented more anteriorly?

a) TEO represents simpler features that TE

b) V4 represents simpler features that TEO

c) Perirhinal cortex represents simpler features than TE

d) V4 represents simpler features than perirhinal cortex

e) TEO represents simpler features than perirhinal cortex

(14)

19. Which one of these is a correct statement about the properties of

hippocampal neurons?

a)

Rodent place cells encode the animal’s position and where it is looking.

b)

Rodent place cells encode where an animal is looking but not the animal’s

position.

c) Primate spatial-view cells encode the animal’s position and where it is

looking.

d) Primate spatial-view cells encode the animal’s position but not where it is

looking.

e) Primate spatial-view cells encode where it is looking but not its position.

20. Which of these phrases below expresses the correct way to calculate

‘expected value’?

a) sum of probabilities x payoffs x effort

b) sum of probabilities x effort

c) sum of probabilities x payoffs

d) sum of payoffs x effort

References

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