Module 5
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
ELECTRONIC
Electronic Instrument Systems
1. Typical displays on an EHSI are* VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar VOR, Plan, Map and Attitude Engine indications
2. EADI displays show pitch, roll and waypoints * pitch and roll attitudes
heading and weather radar
3. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in green
* magenta
cyan
4. The two sets of flight regulations that a pilot may fly by are * VFR and IFR
VHF and IFR VFR and IFU
5. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the final stages of an approach. The aircraft must
fly up * fly down
hold descent path
6. What are the basic elements for 'Classic T' format? Airspeed, pitch and roll
Direction, altitude and height
* Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction
7. An EADI display of flight director commands are coloured
* magenta
red cyan
At 200ft, during Approach, the Rising Runway starts to move up the EADI display until, at touch down, it touches the bottom of the aircraft symbol. If the Rising Runway start to move down again it means that the aircraft is climbing and should FLY DOWN
8. An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll
* autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars
autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator 9. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on
the EADI * the EHSI
the FMC CDU
10. An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll
flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height flight director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude
* decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude
11. An electronic flight instrument display consists of;
* Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data inputs ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI
ADI, HSI and Symbol generator
12. EFIS systems have two control panels, their purpose is
to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a standby
* one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the information being displayed
one for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display
13. A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator will display the following: * Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading
ILS Steering Information, Flight director information and Glide Slope Deviation Ground speed, Magnetic Heading, Way points and Localiser
14. What is the fixed feature of an ADI? The lateral deviation bar
* The aircraft symbol The glideslope pointer
15. What functions are available on the EHSI? * Full arc, Wx and Map Mode
Full Arc only
16. On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show * the required path with respect to the actual path
the actual path with respect to the required path the path with respect to the horizon
17. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer deflects below the glideslope centre mark. This means the aircraft is positioned
below the glideslope * above the glideslope
to the left of the localiser 18. What does ECAM mean?
Engine Centralised Aircraft Management System * Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System
Engine Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System 19. What does EICAS mean?
Electronic indicator and crew alerting system Electronic indicator and control alerting system * Engine indicating and Crew alerting system
20. In a typical commercial aircraft Head Up Guidance System only emergency indications or warnings are displayed to the pilot all instrument information is displayed on the windshield
* the type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on a transparent plate 21. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as
* red areas with black surrounds
orange areas with black or yellow surrounds blue areas with white background
22. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is * above the glideslope
on the glideslope below the glideslope
Consider the centre of the G/S scale as the aircraft position and the pointer as the centre of the G/S beam
23. Engine parameters are displayed on EHSI
FMSCDU
* ECAM
24. A complete EFIS installation in an aircraft is made up of right (captain) and left (co-pilot)
left (captain) and right (co-pilot)
* either left (captain) and right (co-pilot), or right (captain) and left (co-pilot) 25. The EFIS system consists of
* EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI
26. With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs? ADF and VOR
ADF and ILS * ILS and VOR
27. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the lower CRT flight phase page
synoptic display
* secondary engine parameters
28. What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI display?
Course information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing pointers * Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude and autoland
Compass heading, selected heading and VOR 29. What does EFIS mean?
Electronic Fire Indication Signal * Electronic Flight Instrument System
Electronic Flight Information System
30. On a modern 'glass cockpit' aircraft, engine information will be displayed on
* ECAM
FMS
could be either, as most helicopters are the other way round when compared to aeroplanes
EFIS
31. In a basic 'T' configuration
* the ASI appears on the left and the Altimeter appears on the right the ADI appears on the left and the HSI appears on the right the ADI appears on the left and the ASI appears on the right 32. What instrument includes a display of a rising runway?
* EADI
ECAM EHSI
33. In an EIS (Electronic Instrument System), what does EAD stand for? * Engine and Alert Display
Electronic Attitude Display Electronic Alert Display
34. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system * on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator
on the RMI
on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator
35. A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes except * plan
arc nav rose
36. Cockpit panels have a matt colour finish. The purpose is so that pilots feel more comfortable during daytime so that dust and dirt are less evident on panels * so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum
Numbering Systems
1. 101012 + 110012 =468
462
2. The Binary number 10101 is equivalent to the decimal number 19
* 21
35
3. The decimal number 37 is represented by the octal number 37 * 45 54 4. Convert 0111012 to octal 25 33 * 35
5. F80 hexadecimal converts to binary 3968
101100000001 * 111110000000
6. What is hex 110 in decimal?
* 272
282
32
7. Convert the binary word 1100 to decimal 11
* 12
16
8. If a data message is made up of 1s and 0s, it is * digital
binary analogue
9. Convert the binary word 1110 to decimal
* 14 15 011=1x21 +1x20 =2+1=3 and 101=1x22 +1x20 =4+1=5. Ie 35. F80, F=15, ie 15=1111, 8=1000, 0=0000 1x162 +1x161 +0x160 =256+16=272 1x23 +1x22 +0x21 +0x20 =8+4=12 1x23 +1x22 +1x21 +0x20 =8+4+2=12
12
10. Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal. 34
80
* 50
11. Convert the hexadecimal number D into decimal. 15
14
* 13
12. Convert decimal 15 into binary. 1110
1101
* 1111
13. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal. G * F E 14. What is 345 in binary? * 101011001 100111001 110011001
15. A hexadecimal is a number to base 2 * 16 8 16. 1012 converted to decimal is 52 210 * 510
17. The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is 1012
1x25 +1x24 +0x23 +0x22 +1x21 +0x20 =32+16+2=50
1x23 +1x22 +1x21 +1x20 =8+4+2+1=15
* 1112
72
18. Convert 011101 binary to octal. 25 * 35 33 19. Binary Number: 110010 is * 50 80 34
20. The binary number 11010111 is expressed as a decimal is 107
53
* 215
21. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is 613 * 513 713 22. What is 0111000012 in Octal? * 3418 28110 2258
23. The binary number 10101000111001012 in hexadecimal is
FFFF16 * A8E516 22BC16 24. A computer message 3B4 is binary * hexadecimal octa 25. 2D in decimal is
43 41 * 45 26. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is * 54 5f f4
27. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to 48
38
* 22
28. Decimal 10 converted to binary is 1001
1111
* 1010
29. What systems uses base 10? Octal
Digital * Decimal
30. What systems use base 16? BCD
* Hexadecimal Octal
31. What is used for the base of 10? Digital Octal * Decimal 32. What is 44 in hexadecimal? * 2c 2d 2F (2 x 16) + (12 x 1) = 44 (c = 12) D=13, 2x161 +13x160 =45
33. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would be 110 111
101 011 * 111 111
34. In a computer, the address 3B8 is octal
decimal * hexadecimal
35. Hexadecimal 5C is what in binary? 1011111
* 1011100 1110100
36. Binary 11001101 converted to octal is 12E
* 315
205
37. What is the binary notation for 29? 0001 0110
0010 1001 * 0001 1101
Data Conversion
1. In A/D conversion, a signals bandwidth represents * the maximum frequency range occupied by a signalthe frequency of a signal
the minimum frequency range occupied by a signal 2. What does 1 represent in an analogue system?
High frequency
Switches open, unmagnetised * Switches closed, magnetised 3. Analogue logic 1 is
* closed circuit, Logic Q=1 closed switch, Logic Q=0 open circuit
4. An A to D converter uses successive approximation to increase resolution
* increase speed increase accuracy
5. An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal to the analogue input and then back down when this is reached is a
* a ramp type converter
successive approximation counter flash type converter
6. Within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is converted from * analogue to digital
digital to analogue
position feedback to rate feedback
7. The advantage of digital sound over analogue sound is greater selectivity
* minimal error and noise
the narrow bandwidth allows it to copy exactly
8. A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true heading. This voltage can be converted to 'bits' by using a
commutator
digital to analogue converter * analogue to digital converter
9. An R-2R Converter has values of resistance whose precision are accurate
* whose precision are not accurate whose relative precision are accurate 10. Audio sounds recorded digitally
* are superior quality and greater bandwidth are narrow bandwidth
are not as accurate due to clipping and input errors
11. What is the quickest method of analogue to digital conversion? Single ramp method
Voltage to frequency * Flash converter
12. A number represented as a physical quantity, e.g. voltage or speed of rotation is * analogue
maximum value digital
13. An R-2R D to A converter uses resistors whose values are logarithmic
* two values of resistors whose precision is not important two values of precision resistors
14. An ADC uses successive approximation to increase resolution
* increase speed increase accuracy
15. Digital signals can be represented * by a series of integers
only as a binary value by real numbers
16. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is digital
synchronous * analogue
17. In an R-2R ladder converter the values of resistors * do not need to be of precise values
are precise
only the first resistor need to be precise
18. Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular rotation of a shaft are * analogue
digital binary
Data Buses
1. In arinc 629, LRUs are programmedto transmit all at the same time * to transmit one at a time
so that one transmits and one receives
2. The maximum number of terminals connecting to a MIL-STD-1553B databus is 120
20
* 31
3. How is the data transmitted on an ARINC 429 bus? * Asynchronous and serial
Asynchronous and parallel Synchronous and parallel
4. What is a parity bit used for on an ARINC429 bus? Synchronization
Data word * Fault/self check
5. A bus which supports the transfer of data in both directions is referred to as Asynchronous
* Bidirectional Universal
6. The maximum data rate supported MIL-STD-1553 is 12.5 Kbps
* 1 Mbps 100 Kbps
7. Manchester II encodes logic 1 with a voltage transition from * a high to low state
a low to high state
8. The maximum data rate supported by the FDDI bus is 1 Mbps
* 100 Mbps 10 Mbps
9. In aircraft use, fibre optic cables should comply with ARINC 629 standard
ARINC 429 standard * ARINC 636 standard 10. The ARINC 429 data word is
16 bits long * 32 bits long 64 bits long 11. ARINC 629 databus is
* two cables, bi directional two cables, uni-directional one cable, bi-directional 12. The ARINC 429 standard uses * odd parity checking
no parity checking even parity checking
13. ARINC 629 runs at a baud rate of 50 kBaud
100 kBaud * 2000 kBaud
14. An ARINC 573 data bus is used
to supply digital inputs from a Symbol Generator to the EADI and EHSI * to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder
to input into a FDR Digital Acquisition Unit 15. An ARINC 429 bus uses
a single twin wire cable for each transmitter
The FDR can have different inputs depending upon the age of the system, modern systems use ARINC 573. The inputs to FDR DAU are only analogue, discreet and ARINC 429. The interface between SGUs, EADI and EHSI is only ARINC 429
* a twisted shielded pair of wires
two bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires 16. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use
decimal numbering hexadecimal numbering * binary coded decimal
17. ARINC 573 is related to what system?
* FDR
Weather Radar INS
18. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are resistive
* inductive capacitive 19. ARINC 629 databus is
* one bus, bi-directional data flow two buses, bi-directional data flow two buses, unidirectional
20. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in order of shortest to largest TI
* power up
shortest to largest TG
21. In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8 represent the destination LRU address
message
* monitored parameter 22. MIL-STD-1533 is a data bus for
* Digital Information Transfer System Flight Data Recorders
23. ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for
transferring data only on events important to aircraft operation database loads
* normal operation
24. How is data coupled to an ARINC 629 data bus? * By an inductive pickup
By a capacitive pickup By a resistive pickup
25. How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the databus? Through the bus controller
* SSIFU (sub-system interface unit) R1 (remote terminal)
26. The parity bit in digital information is used * to check the validity of data information for BITE programs
to check the status of the system 27. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits
1 - 8 * 9 - 10
32
28. What is the parity bit for on an ARINC 429 bus? To delay the signal
To act as a terminal gap in an emergency
* To check for corruption during transmission of a word 29. An ARINC 429 word label format is
* octal binary hexadecimal
30. How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus? 120
60
31. ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is when all transmissions are quiet * common to each terminal
unique to each terminal 32. ARINC 429 data bus systems uses
hexadecimal numbering decimal numbering * binary coded decimal
33. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word bits * 11 - 29
11 - 28 1 - 8
34. An ARINC 429 system uses a
16 bit word over a twisted pair of wires 20 bit word over a bi-directional bus * 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires 35. An ARINC 629 characteristic is
* data can transmit in both directions down the data bus all LRUs can transmit at the same time
all LRUs can transmit and receive at the same time 36. What limits the number of ARINC 429 receivers on a bus? * The parallel input impedance
The speed and size The weight
37. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by non return to zero
bi-polar return to zero * Manchester bi-phase
38. How are engine indications sent to the FDR? * Via ARINC 573
Source isolated Via ARINC 629
39. What system uses base 8? ARINC 629
* ARINC 429, in dataword labels only ARINC 573
40. On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode couplers per data bus is
* 120
46 64
41. To connect an LRU to an ARINC 629 data bus
a terminal controller and interface module only is required
current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is required * a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is required 42. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The purpose of the E-Core is to
provide effective screening of the signal through the current-mode coupler * couple the signal to the data bus
enable easy access for monitoring of the signal 43. The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission is
100 kbits/second with high of 12-14 Mbits/second * 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second
12-14 Mbits/second with high of 100 Mbits/second 44. What is the highest speed in ARINC 429?
* 100 kbps 2 Mbps 100 bps
45. What is the slowest speed for ARINC 429? 10 kbps
100 kbps * 12.5 kbps
46. Where is the pass and fail of an ARINC 429 code indicated? 120 LRUs maximum (but the B777 uses 46)
* SSM field SDI field Label field
47. What is the encoding method used in ARINC 429? Bipolar NRZ
* Bipolar RZ
Manchester coding
48. An ARINC 629 bus cable is a twisted pair of wires with a 130 ohm resistor at one end
* a 130 ohm resistor at both ends a 230 ohm resistor at one end
49. How many voltage levels does ARINC 429 have?
* 3
1 2
50. An ARINC 629 stub cable
* connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler connects bi-directional data between two LRUs
connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler
51. Care must be taken when installing ARINC 629 cables into bus panels, damage to cables can cause arcing of high voltage signals
standing waves
* corrosion of the conductor 52. An aircraft databus system
cannot use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 data buses.
* can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal gateways can use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 as they are compatible.
53. ARINC 629 is used for a backup to ARINC 429 * normal flight
54. Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how long before transmitting again? Until the start of the terminal gap
* Until the end of the transmit interval Until the end of the synchronization gap. 55. How is the word label 206 written in ARINC 429? * Octal 01100001
Binary 11000110 Decimal 206
56. What is ARINC 561 used for? Fly by Wire systems
Flight Data Recorder systems * Inertial Navigation Systems
57. An ARINC data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of the following would be the LSB bit? 21
* 29
19
58. Fibreoptic databus links are simplex
one way data buses * bi-directional 59. ARINC 429 is * simplex
full duplex half duplex
60. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses a pair of wires per transmitter unit a single wire
* a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics 61. An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits using
wave division multiplexing * time division multiplexing
encoder
62. A terminal controller
is repetitive transmitting transmits only when addressed
* will transmit only once during each transmit interval
63. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent upon size of S.D.I
speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems * parallel input impedance
64. One of the ARINC 429 formats is hexadecimal
octal
* BCD
65. A group of bits transmitted at the same time is * parallel data
serial data a clock signal
66. The ARINC 429 system uses which of the following system to transfer data? Non return to zero
* Bi-polar return to zero Harvard bi phase
67. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using * Manchester bi-phase
non return to zero bipolar return to zero
68. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes current mode coupler, databus cable only databus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler * databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable 69. ARINC 629 Databus cables are terminated using
* 130 ohms resistor 25 ohms resistor
70. In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits, the L.S.B. Of the data would be bit 11
* bit 19 bit 28
71. The BCD data field of ARINC 429 is contained within bits 1- 8
* 11- 29 11- 28
72. ARINC 629 is transmitted using SWG 28 wire
* fibre optics or twisted pair of wires single wire for each transmitter 73. A simplex system has
1 bus controller and multiple receivers * 1 transmitter and multiple receivers
1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal
74. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429 system only one databus is required
* two databuses are required four databuses are required
75. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series? Takes less time
More information can be sent * Saves weight
76. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629 bus? * Yes
No
Only if paralleled
77. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit when signal gap is sensed when addressed
* when terminal gap is sensed
78. An ARINC 429 BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then the LSB of the word will be
* 16
29 11
79. A simplex system has
* one transmitter, many receivers one transmitter, one receiver
a bus controller and separate controller
80. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is represented in bits 1- 8 as 01011001
* 00001011 01101000
81. In ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of power up
* shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap 82. ARINC 629, aperiodic mode is used
for normal operation
for landing and approach operation * for database loads
83. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved? * Using two data buses
Via a twisted pair of shielded cables Via a current mode coupler
84. The data format used to transmit a signal to the flight data recorder Bi-Polar RZ 12 bit
Manchester 2 bi-phase 12 bit
Octal 320 converted to binary, and reversed.
B777 MM 23-91-00 pg 41. Periodic mode is for normal operation. Aperiodic mode is for non-normal operation and large information transfer such as database loads and operating software loads.
* Harvard bi-phase 12 bit
85. The output voltage of ARINC 429 signal is * +10v to -10v
-5v +5v
86. An ARINC 629 label word is 8 bits 10 bits * 12 bits 87. The TX/RX of ARINC 629 is switching * multiplex/demultiplex encoder/decoder
88. Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is always the same period
* can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software flexible
89. How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and receive information? * Inductive coupling
Sockets and pins Optical coupling
90. What is ARINC 561 used for?
To specify Flight Data Recorder data bus To specify LRU pin-outs
* To specify Inertial Nav data bus
91. What is the purpose of the parity bit on an ARINC 429 bus? To indicate that the data is digital
To indicate if the data is analogue
* To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid 92. ARINC 429 is
Multiple Source Multiple Sink system
12-bit label field, 4-bit label extension, single parity, 3-bit time hi-lo synch pulse. 20 bit in total
* Single Source Multiple Sink System Single Source Single Sink system
93. What is the purpose of intermediate production breaks in ARINC 429 or 629 Data cables? To allow connection of new cables to the existing ones in case of a modification
* To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into two parts for easy removal and installation
Cables are only manufactured 40 feet long 94. Where is the parity bit installed in a data word?
Front * End MSB
Middle
95. RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits which are one of __________ states? * Three
Two Eight
96. In the ARINC 429 digital information transfer system, data may travel in: * one direction only
both directions on the same bus sequentially by time multiplexing both directions on the same bus simultaneously
97. An ARINC 629 data word
includes an 8 bit label and a 16 bit data field * has only 20 bits
comprises up to 256 data bits
98. In an ARINC 429 digital word bit number 32 is used for identifying word type
terminating the data field * checking parity
99. What connects an LRU to the Bus Coupler in an ARINC 629 Data Bus? Interconnect Cable
* Stub Cable Patch Cord
Logic Circuits
1. Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes aNAND gate OR gate
NOR gate
2. To get logic 1 using this gate
A and B = 1 A or B = 1
A and B = 0
3. The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The two inputs will have the logic states of
A = 0, B = 0 A = 1, B = 0
A = 1, B = 1
4. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage that represents a logic 0 state, the logic being used is
negative
positive
either positive or negative 5. A B S
0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0
What type of gate is this?
E-OR
NAND NOT
6. An AND gate output is 1 when inputs are
both 0 1 and 0
both 1
7. When will a NAND gate give logic 0 at the output? When both inputs are at 0
When the inputs are different
When both inputs are at 1
8. Making an inverter from a NAND or NOR gate is achieved by inverting the input
connecting two in series
connecting the inputs
9. What sort of gate is this?
Or gate
NOR gate
NOT gate
10. What does the logic circuit shown represent?
Analogue to Digital Converter
Full Adder Circuit
3-way converter
both states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more current state 0 is more positive than state 1
state 1 is more positive than state 0
12. The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is both logic 1
logic 0
logic 1
13. What is this truth table?
AND gate
NOT gate NOR gate
14. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to operate? XOR
NOT
NAND
15. Switching within logic gates is normally achieved with the use of
diodes
relays BTB's
16. The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two inputs will have the logic states of
A = 0, B = 0
A = 0, B = 1 A = 1, B = 0
17. Which logic gate has both inputs 'high' to get an output? NAND gate
XOR gate
AND gate
A negative input voltage has the same effect as an input of 0 volts. 2-inputs specified, so cannot be a NOT gate.
18. This truth table is for a
NAND gate OR gate
AND gate
19. A NAND and NOR to become a NOT gate have inputs inverted
inputs connected together
outputs inverted
20. What logic gate would this circuit represent?
NAND Gate NOR gate
AND gate
21. What input is required to activate the relay shown?
A=0 B=1
A=1 B=1
A=1 B=0
22. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from diodes
transistors
thin film resistors
23. What Logic Gate does this switch circuit indicate?
OR gate
NOR gate AND gate
24. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by (where Q is an output of a latch / flip-flop)
positive / magnetised / Q
switch closed / light off / Not Q switch open / light on / Q
25. What sort of gate requires two positive voltages to operate? OR
AND
NOT
26. What is this symbol?
Exclusive NOR gate
Exclusive OR gate
Exclusive AND gate
27. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent to an AND gate
a NOR gate
28. Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit?
OR gate
Exclusive OR gate NAND gate
29. A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output (c) was zero, what are the inputs? A=0 B=0
A=1 B=1
A=1 B=0
30. The most appropriate logic family for use in a portable item of test equipment is Low-power Schottky TTL
MOS
TTL
31. What is the equivalent of this gate?
X = (NOT-A + NOT-B)
X = (A + B)NOT X = (A.B)NOT
32. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a NAND gate
AND gate
OR gate
33. A CMOS logic gate is operated from a 12V supply. If a voltage of 3V is measured at the input to the gate, this would be considered equivalent to:
Indeterminate logic 1
logic 0
Exclusive OR
NAND
NOT
35. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from thin film resistors
diodes
transistor
36. The truth table of A =0011 B=0101 and X =0110 indicates that the logic device is an AND gate
a NOR gate
an EXCLUSIVE OR gate
Basic Computer Structure
1. A BYTE is usuallya six bit word a 12 bit word an 8 bit word
2. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which is also WORM (Write Once Read Many) is a magnetic tape
an IC a CD Rom
3. In a volatile bi-stable memory circuit
the memory is lost as soon as power is removed the memory is retained indefinably
the memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is on 4. Ferrite medium is used for computer memory because
it is light
data is stored after the power is removed 5. A computer using RAM would utilise
an integrated circuit (chip) a compact disc
magnetic tape 6. What is EPROM?
Erasable programming read only module Enhanced programmable read only memory Erasable programmable read only memory
7. What is the advantage of series over parallel message sending? Only one pair of conductors
Quicker
More information sent
8. In a computer memory device, which one of these has the slowest access time? 8mm video tape
magnetic tape floppy disk
9. Which would have the least components? LSI
CPU ALU
10. The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is has a larger storage capacity per chip area they operate slower
are cheaper to manufacture
11. A computer must have which of the following to operate? ROM/RAM, Buses, Monitor, CPU
RAM, I/O devices, Buses, Printer
RAM/ROM, I/O devices, OS, Buses, Clock
12. A common used material in computer manufacturing is permeamag material
ferrite material ferromagnetic material 13. What is a baud? A block of data A byte of data A bit of data
14. REAL TIME computers are ones that are up-to-date
store data as soon as it is retrieved display data as soon as it is processed 15. Magnetic materials are used in
ROMs only EPROM some RAMs
16. A typical example of a mass storage device is CD
IC
magnetic tape
17. Data is usually stored in ROM
RAM EEPROM
18. What is the definition of baud rate? 1 word per second
1 bit per second 1 byte per second
19. How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word? 2 bytes
8 bytes 4 bytes
1. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is shallow bend radius allowed
end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination couplings susceptible to ingress of fluid
2. A fibreoptic cable to LRU connector should be connected using torque-loaded pliers
hand tight only
very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss
3. Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite touching. This is called lens connector
end fire coupling end to end coupling
4. Most fibreoptic connectors are designed so the connectors can not be over tightened
the connector can not be replaced on the aircraft
the receptacle has to be torqued to a designated value to ensure correct alignment 5. A fibre optic cable consists of
a silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive index a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index a plastic core with a cladding having a higher refractive index 6. Fibreoptic cables use
reflective outer shell refractive outer shell reflective inner shell
7. Some of the advantages of fibre optic cable over copper cables are
smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher bandwidth
non conductive, smaller in size and weight, easy to manufacture and assemble and higher security non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, more robust, cheap
8. What maintenance problems are associated with fibreoptics? Kinking and contamination of connectors
Corrosion
The outer cladding is glass, so it is refractive (but less so than the core). Cladding causes Total Internal Reflection (TIR), so question can be interpreted in two ways.
Earthing faults 9. Fibreoptics relies on
light reflecting off cladding fibre absorbing light light escaping cladding
10. In fibreoptics the wavelength of the light is less than visible light
more than visible light equal to that of visible light
11. What is the advantage of a single mode fibreoptic over ordinary wire? Small bend radius
Not prone to damage Large bandwidth
12. A fibreoptic light source is normally a filament lamp
a laser or LED a strobe light
13. Light transmission in a fibreoptic cable is due to repeated internal reflection
defraction of the light refraction of the light
14. Star couplers are used in fibre optic systems for amplifying the low power optical signals
splicing lengths of optical fibre together equally distributing signals to equipments
15. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems? Infrared
Ultraviolet Visible
16. What is the main cause of attenuation in fibreoptics? Refractive index
Poor termination Bends in the cable
17. What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus? Expensive to install
Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections
Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial cable 18. Fibre optic cables
are immune to EMI attenuate EMI
are susceptible to EMI
19. What does a fibreoptic star connection do? Shares a common bandwidth of a common cable
Provides a continuous loop of fibre interconnecting all nodes
Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the central hub 20. Speed of light in a fibreoptic fibre
is always the same no matter what material it is
increases if it passes through material of higher refractive index is never greater then the speed of light in free space
11. Electronic Displays
1. A shadow masks CRT works bytwo layers of phosphor, the top layer is red, the bottom layer is green
one layer of red, green and blue dot matrix excited by their own electrode guns three layers of phosphor coating, red, green and blue
2. The inside of a CRT consists of
a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas iodine and rare mercury gas
an oxide coating and rare mercury gas 3. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a
square wave sawtooth wave sinusoidal wave
4. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the direction of the electron beam movement?
No movement Horizontal Vertical
5. Primary colours of a CRT are red, blue and yellow red, green and blue red, green and yellow
6. What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT?
X plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam horizontally Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally X and Y plates can move the beam in either direction
7. EADI sky and ground display is provided by synthetic TV signals
raster scan stroke pulse
8. What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT? 250Hz
400 Hz 50/60 Hz
9. The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is sinusoidal
trapezoidal sawtooth
10. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedance effect of the coils in an electromagnetic controlled CRT?
Sawtooth Trapezoid Rectangular
11. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by a sinusoidal voltage
a trapezoidal waveform a sawtooth waveform
12. The timebase in a CRT consists of an amplifier only
an amplifier and an oscillator an oscillator only
13. What creates the raster effect on a CRT? Sawtooth frequency
Trapezoidal frequency Sinusoidal frequency
14. The trace of an oscilloscope begins when the input level is approximately 10 volts but the peak values indicate 20 volts. What can be done to cause the trace to begin at zero volts?
Adjust the trigger level to zero volts trigger. Adjust the volt per division to zero volts/cm
Adjust the horizontal position to show the full trace on the screen 15. How are colours produced on an active matrix LCD (AMLCD)?
By controlling the twist of the liquid crystal display immediately behind each of the three colour filters in each pixel
By synchronizing the colour modulation of the back light with the twisting of the liquid crystal located behind each pixel
By controlling the intensity of the tri-colour emitters in each pixel. 16. LCD screens are driven by
fixed current DC voltage AC voltage
variable current DC voltage
17. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT that it displays more colours
it requires less servicing it requires no cooling
18. The release of a photon by another photon is the principle of a zener diode
a photo diode
19. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the beam move? Vertically
Diagonally Horizontally 20. An LED display is
monochrome only red and green high definition
21. An LCD display uses what type of power supply? Continuous AC
DC voltage
Variable level DC voltage
22. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are solid state electrostatic electromagnetic 23. The supply to an LCD is voltage restricted DC AC current restricted DC 24. An LED will emit light when
it is reverse biased it is forward biased
either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied 25. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display of a
large viewing angle more energy efficient brighter clearer output
26. To display a circle on a CRT you use
2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase
27. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of the tube one on the side, one at the bottom
top and bottom each side
28. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in
vertical axis horizontal axis circular motion
29. The most common CRT control for an EFIS system screen is a combined system
an electrostatic system an electromagnetic system 30. L.E.D.s can give
high definition displays monochrome displays only red and green displays only
31. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen viewing angle becomes larger
is slower to update as data changes loses contrast
32. Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution is 600 lines per scan
400 lines per square inch 84 triads
33. An LCD display is monochrome has infinite colours has three colours only
at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals 35. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in
IRU control display units.
distance measuring indicators; digital counters weather radar indicators
36. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube? Layers of red, blue and green
A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue 37. A colour LCD which is back lit has
three colours
an infinite amount of colours monochrome
38. A dot matrix/LED construction is 4x7 or a 9x5 rolling end display 4x7 or a 5x7 rolling end display 5x9 or a 4x7 rolling end display
39. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED? There are no advantages
It uses less current It is brighter
40. A seven segment display is used to
display octal and decimal numbers only display alpha-numeric characters display octal and binary numbers only
41. How are Alphanumeric Displays produced on a CRT? by the use of X & Y EM Coils
Raster scanning By Stroke pulse
42. The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of an LED is the Gate
Anode Cathode 43. 'Submarining' is
caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on screen a CRT screen defect which can usually be remedied by degaussing the screen
the process used to form liquid crystals into a flat screen
Electrostatic Sensitive Devices
1. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate? Remove power before connecting
Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed Wrist straps should be worn
2. A humid atmosphere reduces static charge
has no effect on the level of charge eliminates static charge
3. Electrostatic discharge occurs when
materials are rubbed together or pulled apart the ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin
materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other
4. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what electrostatic voltage value would you expect to see?
12,000 volts 6,000 volts 35,000 volts
5. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what precaution are taken? Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft
Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur
6. What precautions are required when removing ESDS equipment? Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point
No special precautions are required Keep one hand on the airframe
7. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity voltage? ECL
MOSFET SCR
8. ESDS bags are sealed by twine (100% cotton) ESDS labels
zip locks
9. When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low current path between aircraft and ground
you and the assembly you and the aircraft
10. After attaching a wrist strap to your wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground), prior to removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured
between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms between the strap and the pin ground must be <1 megohms between your skin and the pin ground must be >1 megohms
11. Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you must first ensure that there is minimum current flow between
you and the assembly the assembly and the aircraft you and the aircraft
12. A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock
to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator to dissipate static charge on the device
13. Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check the
Boeing manual says 100% cotton twine. Other manuals say ESDS label. However, it could be considered that ESDS labels do not 'seal'.
Answer found in Boeing SWPM. 20-41-01 3(2) (e) Hold the red lead of the (test) meter between the forefinger and the thumb. The acceptable range is less than 10,000,000 ohms. Lower limit of range however seems to vary.
resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms resistance between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms
14. The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions should be 20 megohm - 200 megohm
250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm 0 - 200 ohm
15. During an EFIS screen fit do not touch terminals use bonding strap no tooling is required
Software Management Control
1. If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause injuries to some of the occupants, the system has a software criticality category of
major effect minor effect hazardous effect
2. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a slight increase in crew workload, has a software level of
C B D
3. Requirements for software control can be found in JAR AWO
AWN 43 JAR OPS
4. What is the definition of level one software? Non-essential
Essential Critical
5. An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it fail due to a software error, may cause
injuries to a large proportion of occupants no injuries to occupants
injuries to some occupants
6. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a significant reduction in safety margins may also cause
injuries to some occupants the loss of the aircraft no injuries to occupants
7. As far as a software product is concerned
the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase
8. An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due to a software error, may cause the aircraft safety margin to be
significantly decreased slightly decreased slightly increased
9. Who is responsible for producing the operational program of the FMS? The pilot
The engineer The manufacturer
10. An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous has a Software Level of A
C B
11. Software changes come under the responsibility of the national aviation authority
the aircraft constructor the engineer
using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware the manufacturer
licensed avionics engineers
13. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause no injuries to occupants, has a criticality category of
minor effect hazardous effect major effect
14. What is the effect of a level 1 software failure? Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities
Significant reduction in safety margins Large reduction in safety margins 15. Who can sign for a software update?
Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer Chief pilot
Engineer
16. Software documentation procedures are laid down in MOE
AWN (45) JAA Ops
17. Level 1 software failure
is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft is defined as essential and may have a minor effect 18. Who can design new software?
BCAR section A8 approved company BCAR section A1 approved company The CAA
19. Requirements for configuration management of software can be found in ATA Chapter 46, Information Systems
AWN 43 JAR Ops (M)
20. AWN 43 requires that
the CAA be responsible for software assessment
the aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment 21. Where would you find the rules regarding upgrade of software?
JAR OPS AWN 43
The aircraft manufacturer
22. Control of software is carried out by the aircraft manufacturers
the National Aviation Authority a licensed engineer
Electromagnetic Environment
1. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a programme of HIRF prevention the airframe bonding resistance should be less than
50 milliohms 1 ohm
100 milliohms
2. To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must shield it with a braided shield
use an opto-isolator
earth both transducer and couplings 3. HIRF is acronym for
Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies High Intensity Radiated Field High Intensity Radio Frequencies
4. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables
distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart
5. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by
shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters
enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is done coating in a conductive paint
6. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment
periodically check bonding leads for condition
transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the interference ensure all static wicks are in place
7. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection
by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF by ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit
8. Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by connecting all conductors to a common earth
earthing each alternative conductor to separate point shielding each individual conductor
9. To stop earth loops forming, you would earth both ends of the cable screen earth only one end of the cable screen
leave both ends of the cable screen open circuit 10. When incorporating an aerial cable it must be
in the centre of the other wires
outside the other wires for easy access positioned separately from the loom 11. Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done
at and during production and testing (initial certification) only after a report of radio interference
by periodically listening for interference on all systems 12. For braided cables, the amount of braiding
is a trade-off design feature
keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit 13. When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by anodic film
the film is conductive so no preparations are required
the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact
add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance of the anodic film 14. HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by
bus terminal spark gap
current mode coupler
15. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure? Unserviceable radio filters
Corrosion on bonding leads Broken or missing static wicks
16. HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by built in filters and overvoltage circuits internally shielded cables
built in filters only
17. An aircraft may have been HIRF affected. A static wick check is required
Test all radio frequencies for interference A bonding load check is required
18. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not exceed
0.05 ohm 1 ohm 1 megohm
Typical Electronic/Digital Aircraft Systems
1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides GPWS warnings
dedicated status and warnings The FMS is not used for Take Off or Landing The GPWS
take-off and landing warnings
2. The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set by
ICAO
CAA JAA
3. Testing of a CADC can be carried out in the air only
on the ground only
in the air and on the ground
4. EADI sky and ground display is provided by stroke pulse
synthetic TV signals
raster scan
5. What has the highest priority on an ECAM display? Engine page
Failure
Door page
6. SIDs data stored in the FMC performance database is Standard Input Data
Standard Information Departure Services
Standard Instrument Departures
7. A modern EHSI will display the following in MAP mode:
waypoints, ILS frequency, ETA, magnetic heading, WXR display, distance to go
waypoints, WXR display only
waypoints, magnetic heading, WXR display 8. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is
in view green
out of view
9. MFD is the abbreviation for Master flight display
Warning flags 'in view' indicate failure. Normally the only coloured flag used is RED, indicating failure
Multi function display
Mandatory flight display
10. A level 'B' alert message in EICAS requires
Timely Action
Prompt Action Time Available Action
11. The FMS can reset the error that builds up in the IRS by using
VOR, DME, GPS, LOC
VOR and DME only DME and GPS only
12. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is
12.36 microsecond
6.18 microsecond 24.72 microsecond
13. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up of
21 active and 3 spare
23 active and 5 spare 28 active and 7 spare
14. An IRS is only certifed for alignment up to +88.45 and -88.45 degrees
+60 and -60 degrees
+78.25 and -78.25 degrees
15. The command bars on an ADI relate to path being followed
roll indications
path required
16. ECAM has at its heart
a multi function symbol generator
a central maintenance computer ACARS
horizontal directional references
vertical references
vertical references and horizontal directional references 18. The recording medium in an FDR is
copper foil coated with ferrite
magnetic tape coated with ferrite
a high density floppy disc
19. An FMS databank memory is updated every 365 days
every 28 days
every 32 days
20. The frequency of glideslope transmitter is
328.6 to 335.4 MHz
328.6 to 335.4 Hz 328.6 to 335.4 KHz 21. A strapdown INS has
a solid state accelerometer system
both solid state and normal accelerometer system moving parts
22. What does the CADC feed?
standby altimeter / machmeter
cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter
Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar 23. Marker beacon receivers have
no control unit as the unit typically turns on when the avionics master switch is activated
two control units: one on captain side and the other on copilot side one control unit
24. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the computing system through the
Control and Display Unit
Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel Data Acquisition Unit
25. The polled mode in an ACARS
operates only when interrogated by the ground facility
both operates when interrogated by the ground facility and allows the flight crew or airborne equipment to initiate communication
allows the flight crew or airborne equipment to initiate communication
26. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required to achieve a 3 dimensional fix is 2
3
4
27. ACARS system operates in the frequency range of 121.550 MHz
131.550 KHz
131.550 MHz
28. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission identifies the satellite using a
pseudo random code
whisper shout method different channel frequency 29. In a MCDU, the flight deck effect is
the sudden irregular reading causing to an instrument impact of irregular reading to the flight crew
any EICAS display or discrete annunciator to inform the flight crew of an in-flight fault
30. In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle are ignored as these may cause clock errors
range errors
ephemeris errors
31. In an EICAS level C messages are memos and displayed in white
advisories and displayed in amber or light blue
caution and displayed in white
32. Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function correctly is indicated on the display by
dashes
boxes
33. The compact mode in a EICAS is used to show maintenance pages
to show maintenance pages and when one display is inactive
when one display is inactive
34. The four display modes used by the ECAM system are
flight phase, advisory, failure-related, manual
warnings, flightphase, advisories, memos warnings, cautions, advisories, memos
35. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft instruments
provided there is adequate isolation
provided there is adequate damping by direct connection to the instruments 36. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are
pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out
pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out 37. EICAS provides the following:
Engine parameters and system warnings only
Engine parameters only
Engine parameters and engine warnings only 38. A central maintenance computer provides
ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer
ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel display of system warnings and cautions
39. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from
radio altimeter
vertical speed barometric height
The recording unit
There are no outputs
Flight instruments 41. FMS failure and warnings are
engine warnings only
displayed on EICAS
EFIS warnings only
42. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by amplifier gain
position feedback
calibration
43. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation System? Heading and attitude
Aircraft present position
Aircraft present position and heading 44. IRS accelerometers are mounted
90° to each other
60° to each other 45° to each other
45. An FMS navigation database is updated at the operators request
once a month
every 28 days
46. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system
will reduce operational heights and speeds will limit the flight profile
has no effect on aircraft operation
47. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in spoilers moving symmetrically upwards
ailerons moving symmetrically upwards
48. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by spoilers
spoilers and ailerons
ailerons
49. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are both electrically controlled and electrically actuated hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated
electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
50. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator? Comparison with No.1 symbol generator
Parity function
Standby
51. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording when power is applied to the aircraft
on engine start-up
on take-off
52. The FMS databases consist of
two performance and one navigation database one navigation and one performance database
one performance and two navigation databases
53. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either VOR and DME only
DME and GPS only
GPS, DME, LOC and VOR
54. The accepted error from INS/IRS is 1 mile/hour + 3 miles
2 miles per hour + 3 miles
3 miles / hour + 3 miles
55. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence
the current present position must be entered
the shutdown present position must be entered
Normally we consider the FMS as having 2 databases (1 navigational and 1 performance). (Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 385). However, the Navigational database is split in two. 1 is for Jeppesen data, uploaded on the ground, the other is for pilot input data (additional waypoints etc.)
either the last or current position must be entered 56. What warnings can an FMS provide?
Ground faults only Spurious faults
Discrete warnings
57. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System performs in-flight BITE interrogation only
give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status
performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE interrogation 58. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars move can be controlled by
rate or velocity feedback
position feedback amplifier gain
59. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation either in the air or on the ground
in the air only
on the ground only
60. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated in an emergency
with EICAS
as a standby to the No1 and No2 system
61. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by comparators in the FMS
EICAS
Symbol Generators
62. What is the approximate earth rate? 5°/hour
15°/hour
10°/hour 63. An IRS has
two or three accelerometers depending on the system
This means it can warn of inoperative equipment, but not when equipment is providing incorrect data
