0460 Geography Example Candidate Responses Booklet 2011

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Cambridge Secondary 2

(Standards Booklet)

Cambridge IGCSE

®

Geography

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give permission to Centres to photocopy any material that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use within a Centre.

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of University of Cambridge International Examinations. © University of Cambridge International Examinations 2012

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Introduction ... 2

Assessment at a glance ... 3

Paper 1 ... 4

Paper 2 ... 97

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2 Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Introduction

The main aim of this booklet is to exemplify standards for those teaching Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460), and to show how different levels of candidates’ performance relate to the subject’s curriculum and assessment objectives.

In this booklet a range of candidate responses has been chosen as far as possible to exemplify grades A, C and E. Each response is accompanied by a brief commentary explaining the strengths and weaknesses of the answers.

For ease of reference the following format for Papers 1 and 2 has been adopted: Question

Mark scheme

Example candidate response

Examiner comment

The mark scheme used by examiners is followed by examples of marked candidate responses, each with an examiner comment on performance. Comments are given to indicate why marks were awarded, and how additional marks could have been obtained. In this way, it is possible to understand what candidates have done to gain their marks and what they still have to do to improve their grades.

For Paper 4 a whole candidate script has been selected for grade A, grade C and grade E. Extracts from each script are illustrated and commented on. Single mark answers are not illustrated unless there is a particular point to make.

Past papers, Principal Examiner Reports for Teachers and other teacher support materials are available on our Teacher Support website at http://teachers.cie.org.uk

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Assessment at a glance

Cambridge IGCSE syllabuses are designed as two-year courses for examination at age 16-plus. This syllabus is available for examination in both the June and November sessions.

All candidates take

Paper 1 1 hour 45 minutes Candidates answer any three questions out of six. There are two questions set on each of three themes. Questions are structured with gradients of difficulty and are

resource-based, involving problem solving and free response writing. (75 marks, weighted to 100 marks)

45% of total marks

Paper 2 1 hour 30 minutes

Candidates answer all the questions. The paper is based on testing the interpretation and analysis of geographical information and on the application of graphical and other techniques as appropriate. The questions will not require specific information of place. One question is based on a 1:25 000 or 1:50 000 topographical map of a tropical area such as Zimbabwe, the Caribbean or Mauritius. (60 marks) 27.5% of total marks and either or Paper 3 Coursework (Centre-based assessment*)

Teachers set one school-based assignment of up to 2000 words. (60 marks)

27.5% of total marks

Paper 4 1 hour 30 minutes

Alternative to Coursework

Candidates answer all the questions, completing a series of written tasks based on the three themes (see page 8). The questions involve an appreciation of a range of techniques used in fieldwork studies. Questions test the methodology of questionnaires, observation, counts, measurement techniques and may involve developing hypotheses appropriate to specific topics. The processing, presentation and analysis of data will be tested. (60 marks)

27.5% of total marks

* Centre-based assessments require the written approval of the University of Cambridge International Examinations. This will only be given to teachers who satisfy the requirements concerning moderation and who have undertaken training in assessment before entering candidates.

• Candidates are not allowed to use atlases for the written papers; • All measurements on the written papers will be metric;

• The twenty-four hour clock only will be quoted on the written papers. Tea chers are reminded that a full syllabus is available on www.cie.org.uk

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Paper 1

Question 1

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate has given an accurate definition of migrant. (1/1)

ii) The candidate has correctly identified one of the two correct examples of forced migration, a refugee. (1/2)

iii) Again the focus is ‘forced migration’. Credit was awarded for the candidate’s first push factor, war, however no further credit was given, Whilst ‘natural disasters’ will force people to migrate an example was required. The lack of jobs was not accepted as this would be a push factor linked with an economic migrant rather than forced migration. (1/3)

iv) This was a full answer which scored full marks. At least four different ideas were briefly but clearly explained. (4/4)

b) i) The candidate identified three correct examples from Fig. 2. (3/3)

ii) The candidate has chosen migration from a town to a foreign city which is an acceptable migration shown on Fig. 2 (the reference to the named places was not required and therefore ignored, even though it is not from an LEDC as Fig. 2 illustrates). The candidate makes four clear but brief points explaining why people migrate between these types of places. Any of these points could have been elaborated for a further mark as development marks are credited on those questions worth 5 marks. For example the candidate could have elaborated about the improved houses and quality of life by referring to running water, electricity and sanitation. Alternatively the other mark could have been scored for another simple explanation such as the availability of improved health care facilities. (4/5) c) The candidate has selected Bangladesh, which is an acceptable example of a country which is

overpopulated. He is able to achieve full Level 2 marks by developing three ideas (lack of food, lack of housing and lack of jobs). Note that each of these ideas are developed (e.g. lack of homes so slums are created, lack of food which leads to starvation, lack of jobs so people send their children out to work). The candidate could have achieved Level 3 by including at least one item of place specific detail (e.g. reference to Dhaka or the delta of the Ganges). (6/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate has given an acceptable definition of migrant. (1/1)

ii) The candidate has correctly identified both of the examples of forced migration. (2/2)

iii) As the focus is ‘forced migration’ the push factors identified by the candidate are not relevant as they are all examples which would be more applicable to voluntary migration. (0/3)

iv) The candidate included two relevant ideas, problems with language and the issue of different culture/traditions. Neither point is well expressed or developed but both are worthy of credit. However the final point made by the candidate ‘people are not happy to see migrants in their country’ needs further qualification for credit. How does this become a problem for migrants? (2/4)

ii) The candidate has chosen rural to urban migration which is an acceptable migration as such

migrations in LEDCs are clearly shown on Fig. 2. The candidate makes three simple points explaining why people migrate between these types of places. Had any of these points been elaborated or had more simple ideas been included further marks would have been awarded. In answers such as this where a candidate uses the word ‘better’ there is an opportunity for more marks to be scored by explaining in what way it would be ‘better’. (3/5)

c) The candidate has selected Nigeria, which is an acceptable example of a country which is

overpopulated. He is able to achieve full Level 1 marks by including at least three simple ideas. Indeed there are five simple ideas expressed (lack of education, medical care, water pollution, lack of jobs and high crime rates). The answer does not reach Level 2 as none of these ideas are developed. (3/7) Mark awarded = 14 out of 25

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate has used the word ‘migrates’ in his answer which is too similar to the word ‘migrant’ to show clear enough knowledge for credit to be awarded. (0/1)

ii) The candidate has correctly identified one of the examples of forced migration, a refugee. (1/2) iii) As these factors are all examples which would be more applicable to an economic migrant they are

not relevant as they would be push factors which relate to voluntary rather than forced migration. (0/3)

iv) The candidate included two relevant ideas, difficulties of integrating into society as a result of culture and problems finding a job. It is not clear what the candidate means by ‘margination’ or how this would be a problem. (2/4)

ii) The candidate has chosen migration from a village to a capital city as shown on Fig. 2. The candidate makes four simple points explaining why people migrate between these types of places. ‘More services’ was not credited as examples needed to be quoted (e.g. schools, hospitals). (4/5) c) The candidate has selected Brazil, which would have been acceptable, even though only parts of it are

overpopulated, such as the major urban areas on the south east coast. The candidate however does not score any marks as he has not really identified any problems which overpopulation causes. Reference is made to emigration but the candidate does not explain what problems are causing people to emigrate. There is reference to jobs, however this reference is confused and the idea of pressure on jobs as a result of overpopulation is not made. (0/7)

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Question 2

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate has given an excellent definition, referring to the agricultural nature of rural

settlements and using the word ‘countryside’. The reference to ‘few people’ and ‘basic services’ also shows a very good understanding. (1/1)

ii) An acceptable advantage and disadvantage of the site of settlement’ Y’ have been given, protection from the prevailing winds and the difficulty of access to water. Both ideas show appropriate

interpretation of the block diagram, Fig. 3. (2/2)

iii) The candidate has made four relevant points and therefore scored the full three marks. The references to trade and fishing are acceptable despite the reference to streams rather than rivers which would probably be of little value to either activity (however a river is shown on Fig. 3). References to flat land and ‘water for agriculture’ are also acceptable. (3/3)

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b) i) Despite the use of the word ‘rural’ rather than ‘urban’ full credit was awarded here – the question is about the growth of the urban population and looking at the figures quoted by the candidate this is clearly what the candidate was referring to so the benefit of the doubt was given. Otherwise this is a good response, with correct interpretation of Fig. 4 and accurate statistics quoted to back up the statement. (3/3)

ii) At least four points were clearly made here and the candidate shows a full understanding of the problems for people which may result from urban growth. (4/4)

iii) Here the focus was on the effects of the rapid urban growth on the natural environment, again the question was well understood by the candidate. Credit was awarded for reference to air pollution from the increased number of cars, though this could have been developed for a further mark in terms of its impact on the local natural environment. Whilst reference to soil erosion and infertility was not really relevant to rapid urban growth the reference to deforestation certainly was. Furthermore the point was well elaborated by reference to destruction of habitats and extinction of species so development marks were awarded in this 5 mark question. The leaking sewage contaminating water was also credited, as a reference to river pollution. (5/5)

c) Rio de Janeiro was a well chosen example, a very popular case study. The candidate was awarded mid level 2 as he had developed two points, the references to public transport developments and improvements in water quality. Other ideas were basic (e.g. electricity, roads), had one of these been developed the candidate would have been able to reach the top of Level 2. Reference to ‘favelas’ would have enabled Level 3 access too had there been enough developed ideas, as this term is clearly associated with South American cities like Rio so it would have been accepted as place specific. (5/7) Mark awarded = 23 out of 25

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate has given an acceptable definition by referring to a settlement in the countryside. The use of the word ‘settlement’ was allowed as the candidate showed a clear understanding of ‘rural’. (1/1)

ii) Both the advantage and the disadvantage were accepted, for the references to the fact that flooding is unlikely at that height (advantage) and the steepness of the slope (disadvantage). (2/2)

iii) The candidate has clearly made three relevant points - flat land, good water supply and protection from the prevailing winds and therefore scored the full three marks. (3/3)

b) i) The candidate has recognised the more rapid urban growth rate in Lesotho, however for further credit accurate figures for at least two years were needed to back up the statement. Statistics for 2010 were quoted but those for 1970 (or any earlier year) were needed to show that growth rates were higher in Lesotho than Niger. (1/3)

ii) This is a good answer, four points were clearly made, overcrowding, traffic congestion, noise pollution and the employment issue. The point about more resources would not have gained credit as it was too vague (what resources?), however the candidate did make enough relevant points for full marks. (4/4)

iii) This answer on the impacts of the rapid urban growth on the natural environment was weak and only gained one mark for the reference to trees being cut down. The vague references to ‘pollution’

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and ‘resources’ both needed to be elaborated for any credit to be awarded and soil erosion was not considered to be an impact of rapid urban growth. Any reference to ‘pollution’ needs to be qualified (e.g. air pollution, water pollution) and candidates should aim to qualify the point they make by referring to its source and/or effect, in this case on the natural environment . (1/5)

c) Rio de Janeiro was a good example but the candidate only achieved Level 1 as all the references to improvements were brief and simple statements (e.g. built houses, clinics and schools out of decent materials). The first half of the answer, where the candidate has developed ideas, is not relevant as it describes problems faced by residents rather than solutions to them. (3/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate has referred to ‘ a settlement out of the city’ where ‘land is used for farming’ so this is acceptable. (1/1)

ii) Neither the advantage nor the disadvantage was accepted. Permeable rock may well be ‘good for farming’ but the candidate does not show any understanding of the meaning of ‘permeable’. The settlement is ‘on a hill’ however the candidate needed to refer to the steepness for credit. The fact that it is ‘further away from the river’ needed to be qualified for credit – why is this a disadvantage of the settlement site? (0/2)

iii) The candidate has made two relevant points - flat land, and the availability of water for farming. The candidate has developed these ideas, however development marks are only available on the 5 mark questions requiring extended writing. The candidate should have included other simple ideas (e.g. fertile soil, shelter from prevailing winds, availability of fish from the river) to gain the missed mark. (2/3)

b) i) This is a weak answer, figures quoted are not accurate and the candidate does not make any statements about the relative growth of the urban population in the two countries, despite comments comparing the populations of the countries in different years. (0/3)

ii) The candidate refers to insufficient housing and schools, however these are the only two relevant points made. (2/4)

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iii) This answer is very vague and the only specific idea about the impacts of the rapid urban growth on the natural environment which could be credited was that of clearing the forests. Vague references to ‘pollution’ , ‘bad for the environment’ and ‘harms the nature’ all need to be more precise for credit, in terms particularly of how they may impact the natural environment. (1/5)

c) Again Rio de Janeiro has been chosen, which is a good case study to use. It is good to see that the candidate is trying to include place specific details by reference to Rocinha and Barra de Tijuca (which is a relatively wealthy part of Rio), but he only just develops ideas towards the end when referring to the self help nature of the improvements. It is a pity that much of the answer does not focus on the improvements which took place, and is largely simplistic in terms of improvements being made, as the candidate needed to make more relevant developed points to score a higher mark within this level. (4/7)

Mark awarded = 10 out of 25

Question 3

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(iv) Features on diagram to be shown and labelled: Figure 2. The maximum-minimum thermometer

U- Shape (no labelling needed); maximum/minimum scales; magnet; metal markers; alcohol/spirit; mercury; air space. 4 @ 1 mark [4]

(b) (i) Differences such as:

B shows a greater amount of cloud cover than A/more oktas in B; B clouds are grey but A are white/darker clouds in B;

B nimbus/stratus but A cumulus; B clouds are lower than A;

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate has correctly identified Wednesday as the day with the highest temperature range. (1/1)

ii) Both marks were awarded here as the correct relationships have been identified. Whilst the second part of the answer is not well expressed it is assumed that the candidate is referring to the direction the wind is blowing from and the use of words like ‘closer’ and ‘higher’ provide the required

comparison. (2/2)

iii) All three weather instruments are correctly identified for full marks. (3/3)

iv) The candidate has scored three of the four marks. The ‘U’ shape drawn is clearly that of a maximum-minimum thermometer and the candidate labels the maximum/minimum scale and recognizes that there is alcohol with the tube. The final mark could have been gained for labelling another feature, such as the mercury or the metal indicators from which to take the readings. (3/4) b) i) The candidate clearly makes an attempt to compare the clouds shown in the photograph and the

first point is clearly made. In order to credit a second mark for comparisons the 2nd and 3rd points need to be considered together. Credit was awarded for the attempt to name each type of cloud, and the benefit of the doubt was given to the candidate even though the names were not 100% accurate. (2/3)

ii) The candidate showed a good understanding here by referring to the low humidity and the few sources of water which lead to a lack of evaporation. Further marks could have been scored had the candidate explained this, for example by reference to wind direction, distance from the sea or high pressure. (3/5)

c) The Amazon is an appropriate choice of rainforest area. Good understanding is shown as the candidate both descriptive points and explanation. Full Level 3 marks were awarded as the answer contained sufficient developed points and an appropriate balance of description and explanation. In this question place specific details were not required. (7/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate correctly identified Wednesday as the day with the highest temperature range. (1/1) ii) One mark was awarded for the link between air pressure and precipitation. The reference to

temperature and wind direction is not sufficiently clear for credit. What is ‘further towards the south’? (1/2)

iii) All three weather instruments are correctly identified for full marks. (3/3)

iv) The candidate has scored three marks. The ‘U’ shape is evident along with the alcohol and

maximum/minimum scale, however there is nothing else worthy of credit as many of the labels are repetitive. (3/4)

b) i) The candidate clearly makes an attempt to compare the clouds though it is necessary to combine together points one and two to achieve the comparison about the amount of cloud cover. When answering questions where they have to identify differences it is far better if candidates use comparative words like ‘more’ or ‘larger’. Although the cloud types are named in point three they have been reversed. (1/3)

ii) The candidate referred to low water levels and lack of evaporation however there were no other relevant ideas in the answer. (2/5)

c) The Amazon rainforest was an appropriate choice area, however all points made by the candidate were simple, brief descriptive points with no attempt to explain, hence no higher mark than top Level 1 could be awarded. (3/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) The answer was incorrect. Sunday has the lowest temperatures but not the lowest temperature range. (0/1)

ii) One mark was awarded for the link between air pressure and precipitation. (1/2) iii) Two of the three weather instruments were correctly identified. (2/3)

iv) The candidate has scored full marks. The drawing shows the ‘U’ shape and the maximum/minimum scales are marked and labelled. The alcohol and the metal index are drawn and labelled. (4/4)

b) i) The candidate makes two comparative points here. The first point is weakly expressed, nevertheless a valid comparison of the two photographs. (2/3)

ii) The candidate only referred to there being very little water for evaporation. (2/5)

c) The Amazon rainforest was an appropriate choice area, however the description was far too weak for any credit at this level, indeed the statements are incorrect. (0/7)

Question 4

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate has correctly defined the term ‘plate boundary’. (1/1)

ii) Both marks were awarded here for the recognition that A and B are destructive and constructive boundaries respectively. (2/2)

iii) A very clear answer which includes all points required in the mark scheme and shows excellent understanding. The fact that location X is not on a plate boundary is well developed by reference to there being no gaps from which lava can emerge. (3/3)

iv) The candidate has scored full marks. The sequence which results in an earthquake along a

conservative boundary was clearly explained, with the assistance of a useful labelled diagram. The first three marks were gained for plates moving side by side, friction and pressure build up from the written text. The final mark for reference to a plate jerking forwards was from the label on the diagram. Candidates can score marks for any combination of written text and labelling on the diagram(s) in questions such as this, though double credit is not given. Candidates often simply repeat information on the diagram which they have included in their text, indeed this candidate could have scored all four marks for the labelling on the diagram which express the four mark scheme ideas outlined above. (4/4)

b) i) The candidate has described three features shown in Photograph C. Credit was just awarded for reference to vegetation ‘on the edge of the volcano’ though the candidate could have been more precise in this description. The steep slopes and steaming water in the centre are clear mark scheme points. (3/3)

ii) The candidate made five points here, including some development so scored the maximum five marks. The reference to ‘cheap house prices’ would not have been credited as it is not always true that houses close to a volcano are cheap. The references to tourism and fertile soils are good reasons, if necessary the former could have been developed by reference to high yields and the latter by reference to the types of tourist related ways of making a living in volcanic areas. The final points about people having lived there all their lives, not wanting to leave family and friends and not believing the volcano will erupt are all valid ideas. (5/5)

c) Japan has been chosen as the case study, which in itself is not precise enough for a location (a location is required which is smaller than a whole country unless the country is a small one like Haiti). However later in the answer the candidate refers to Fukushima which adds the required precision to the case study. Indeed it also includes some place specific detail such as the date (which was not quite accurate as it was the 11th March 2011) and the intensity of the earthquake. Along with the developed points which the candidate makes there is sufficient here for full Level 3 credit. (7/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) This answer is incorrect. The use of the term ‘plate tectonics’ here shows no understanding. (0/1) ii) Both marks were awarded here. ‘Collision boundary’ was an acceptable alternative for A and B was

correctly identified by the candidate as a constructive boundary. (2/2)

iii) The candidate observes that X is in the middle of a continental plate for one mark but does not go any further to explain why there would be no active volcanoes in that area. (1/3)

iv) The candidate clearly refers to the sliding of the plates/in opposite directions which is also shown on the diagram. There is no reference to friction or pressure build up however the reference to ‘earth displacement’ in the diagram and seismic activity in the written text was just awarded credit. (2/4) b) i) The first feature identified was a caldera which was acceptable. Even though this is not a description

the use of the technical term was sufficient for credit. The candidate then referred to the vegetation in the next two points. Credit would not have been awarded for the negative statement in 2 however the reference to the trees and plants behind, though poorly expressed, was just enough for a second mark. (2/3)

ii) There were three good points made here. Further marks could have been scored by developing any of these or including other ideas such as the fact that tourists may be attracted by the volcano, the fertility of the soil or the possibility of generating geothermal power. (3/5)

c) Kobe was an acceptable case study. The Kobe case study is a very good one to use as candidates often quote numbers of deaths, houses damaged and homeless people, along with reference to named locations, such as the Hanshin Expressway, to score high marks. Here however the points made were largely simple ones which could apply to almost any earthquake. The reference to people being scared to return to their houses was developed by reference to aftershocks and this enabled the answer to be credited at Level 2, however none of the other points were developed. (4/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) This answer is correct. It is not written in a sentence but this is not a problem as it shows sufficient understanding of the term ‘plate boundary’ for the mark. (1/1)

ii) Both marks were awarded here for recognition of the destructive and constructive plate boundaries. The candidate was not penalised for referring to constructive ‘plate’ rather than boundary. (2/2) iii) Again this was weakly expressed however ‘template’ boundary was accepted as plate boundary and

one mark was awarded. The reference to plates not being able to ‘collide or move away from each other’ was not considered sufficient to explain why volcanoes do not erupt. The candidate needed to refer to there being no lines of weakness and/or the fact that as a consequence magma cannot escape. (1/3)

iv) The candidate clearly refers to plates sliding past each other in the same direction, commenting on their different speeds of movement. The diagram adds little and there is no reference to the sequence of events which triggers earthquakes as a result of the lateral movement of plates. (1/4) b) i) No credit was awarded here. The first point was very weakly expressed. The final two points do

not answer the question as the candidate is not describing features which can be seen in the photograph. (0/3)

ii) There were two acceptable points made here, both very simply expressed. (2/5)

c) Haiti was an acceptable case study although the answer was brief. Nevertheless it was credited at top Level 1 as at least three simple ideas were expressed. The candidate needed to develop these ideas to achieve a mark within Level 2. (3/7)

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Question 5

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate makes a clear and accurate comparison of subsistence and commercial farming. (1/1) ii) Both marks were awarded. The definition of labour intensive is very clear however there is a little

confusion in the candidate’s mind between drainage and irrigation. Nevertheless the reference to water being ‘supplied to a farm so it is never in shortage’ was sufficient for credit to be awarded. (2/2)

iii) Three correct examples were given by the candidate for full marks. Whilst fodder crops are

produced on the farm they would still be classified as an input and on a systems diagram this would be shown in a feedback loop. (3/3)

iv) This was a well thought out answer which scored full marks. The candidate correctly focused on the influence of the climate on land use and covered the impact of the amount of rainfall, the length of the growing season and temperature. In addition appropriate examples of different land uses were used to show an excellent understanding. (4/4)

b) i) The candidate has attempted to compare the farming systems in 1970 and 2010, clearly outlining changes. Two marks were awarded as the first and third changes expressed by the candidate expressed the same idea using different words. (2/3)

ii) The candidate refers to increasing yield which means the farmer earns more money, which is why his quality of life will may have improved. He then develops this by referring to the increased amount

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of disposable income he will have available and to the fact that he will be able to afford more luxuries. Further marks could have been scored by reference to other ideas, such as the fact that he would be able to afford to send his children to school or pay for healthcare. Alternatively he could have referred to the fact that he could afford to buy new technology for his farm, or high yielding varieties of seeds, to ensure that the high yields are sustained. (3/5)

c) The candidate has selected Sudan, which is a good example of a country which is suffering from

famine. It is an excellent and well thought out answer which contains several different ideas, all of which are developed in an appropriate and clear way. The use of a statistic and the reference to an actual crop grown, cotton, ensured that the answer could be credited as Level 3 for the full seven marks. (7/7) Mark awarded = 22 out of 25

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Examiner comment

a) i) The comparison was accepted, the word ‘leaving’ was interpreted as ‘living’. (1/1)

ii) Both marks were awarded despite the poor wording. ‘Growings’ was accepted as ‘crops’ though it is not clear what the candidate means by the last part of the definition of irrigated. The reference to ‘a lot of’ is the reason why the definition of labour intensive was accepted. (2/2)

iii) Either land or seeds would have been acceptable as an input, however in this type of question the first answer is the one which is accepted. Ploughing was credited as a process although ‘crops for feeding his animals’ was not accepted as an output as they would be used on the actual farm rather than sold. (2/3)

iv) This answer is vague and shows little real understanding, however it does convey the idea that the crops grown depend on temperature and availability of moisture so one mark was awarded. These ideas could have been made much clearer and the references to oranges in Siberia, or other examples, could have been qualified for further credit. (1/4)

b) i) The first point made was credited. The question asks for a description of changes. The fact that ‘nowadays farmers export their crops’ was just credited as the implication was that they were previously used domestically. The second point made offers no comparison and, whilst the last point is comparative, it is incorrect as yields were higher in 2010 not 1980. (1/3)

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ii) The answer is succinct, however there are three clear mark scheme points made, the farmer has more money so he can send his children to school and afford medical care. The candidate could have developed any of these points or make other statements about how quality of life would have improved for further credit. For example he could have referred to increased food security and the fact that the farmer would no longer have to depend on his harvest but be able to buy varieties of food from the local market. (3/5)

c) It is hard to decipher the example which the candidate has selected (Dimar?), however it is clearly not a country as he suggests in the first sentence. In cases such as this, where an acceptable example is not given candidates can score up to a maximum of 5 marks. However this would require at least two relevant developed statements. The reference to war was the only point which was developed so the candidate was awarded Level 2, four marks. (4/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) A good comparison was made between subsistence and commercial farming. (1/1)

ii) No marks were awarded here as neither definition was sufficiently clear. The use of the word ‘irrigate’ in the definition of irrigated did not allow the candidate to show his knowledge of the meaning of the term, even though he mentioned water. The definition of labour intensive is incorrect as the focus needs to be on the large number of people working on the farm. (0/2)

iii) Either tractors or fertilizers would have been acceptable as an input, and tractors was accepted. Ploughing was credited as a process although fodder crops did not gain the mark for the output (see comment on previous candidate’s answer). (2/3)

iv) The candidate outlines the significance of temperature and rainfall in determining which type of crop will be grown so one mark was awarded. The answer needs further ideas or exemplication for more credit to be awarded. (1/4)

b) i) The first point made was well made as yields did increase between 1980 and 2010. The second point as not offering any description of change and the final point does not relate to the farming system. (1/3)

ii) Much of the answer fails to address the issue of how the quality of life of the farmer and his family may have been improved by the changes. Money is mentioned, although the idea of ‘more’ money

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is not stated. Nevertheless the candidate refers to buying fertilizers so the implication is there and one mark was awarded. (1/5)

c) Kenya is a suitable example of a country where there is a shortage of food. Whilst most of the points made were basic, the reference to shortage of rainfall is just developed by linking this with crop failure so the candidate was just awarded Level 2, four marks. For further credit within Level 2 the candidate could have developed the point about poor soil or the lack of government help. (4/7)

Question 6

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Examiner comment

a) i) The candidate identifies El Arenal, a correct example of a tourist resort in Majorca. (1/1) ii) Both marks were awarded for the two named attractions selected by the candidate. (2/2) iii) This is a good answer as the candidate has given figures for temperatures, sunshine hours and

rainfall and interpreted them very clearly in order to explain the climatic attractions of Majorca between June and August. Had the statistics just been lifted from the table no credit would have been awarded. (3/3)

b) i) This was a well thought out answer which scored full marks. Firstly the candidate refers to the exotic, colourful nature of the coral reef and the different sea animals which live there. The final mark is obtained by reference to the opportunities for diving on the reef. (3/3)

ii) The candidate has picked out two appropriate human activities which threaten the Great Barrier reef, divers treading on the coral and intensive fishing. A mark has been awarded for the explanation of why diving is a threat to the reef (i.e. it breaks the coral) however the explanation of the threat caused by intensive fishing is not so convincing. The candidate would have been better advised to refer to the threat to species and the impacts of this on ecosystems and/or food chains. (3/4) iii) The candidate refers to a fishing ban and develops this point for a further mark. The reference to

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sufficiently different point from that about fishing where the candidate referred to a total ban in and around the area. The remainder of the answer, whilst referring to other activities shown on Fig.10, still focused on the idea of ‘banning’ so no further credit could be awarded. Had the candidate explored other possibilities, such as putting restrictions on numbers of tourists (or specific activities) or educating and informing people about the threats to coral reefs for example, further marks would have been gained. (3/5)

c) The candidate has selected Mont Blanc, which is a good example of an area where tourism is important. It is a thorough answer which explores both the benefits and problems of the tourist industry for local people. There are at least three developed points and the statement that Mont Blanc is Europe’s highest mountain, along with the locational information, adds the place specific element to make the answer worth the full seven marks at Level 3. (7/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) Alcudia is a correct example of a tourist resort in Majorca. (1/1)

ii) Palma Nova is a resort not a natural attraction, however Santueri Castle was an acceptable human attraction so one mark was awarded. (1/2)

iii) This answer scores the full three marks as the candidate has referred to high temperatures and sunshine hours and temperatures and low rainfall. Figures for temperatures, sunshine hours and rainfall were not included, however these were not required as it was the interpretation of these which gained credit. (3/3)

b) i) The candidate has identified two activities, diving and boating, which were credited as explanations of why a coral reef was a tourist attraction. The final mark could have been obtained by reference to the characteristics of the reef which are attractive, such as the large biodiversity or its natural beauty. (2/3)

ii) The candidate has picked out two appropriate ways in which the reef is damaged by human activities, boat anchors and pollution from farming, sewage and industry. The reference to this pollution causing the fish to die was credited as explanation of why that human activity (diving) is a threat to the reef, however there is no explanation of the threat caused by boat anchors as the copy of ‘damage coral’ taken from Fig. 10 needs to be qualified. The reference to tourists going elsewhere and income being lost is irrelevant to this answer. (3/4)

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iii) The candidate refers to laws to stop industry polluting which was credited. This could have been developed for a further mark – how, for example, could these laws be implemented and policed? The rest of the answer is too simplistic for any credit. The candidate should have stated how people could be restricted from fishing and how boats could be stopped from damaging the coral. Would the signs for the divers be part of a zoning policy where activities were banned in some area and allowed in others or part of an attempt to inform and educate? (1/5)

c) The candidate has selected Mount Helen Bay, and is probably confusing the case study with the one of Mount St Helens for a volcanic eruption. Nevertheless, even without an acceptable example up to 5 marks can be awarded, providing there are two developed ideas. The use of bullet points tends to encourage brief statements rather than developed ones, however the reference to improvement of facilities such as schools and hospitals was considered sufficiently developed for the answer to be awarded low Level 2, four marks. (4/7)

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Examiner comment

a) i) Bon Amy is not an example of a tourist resort in Majorca, the key classifies it as a historic site. (0/1) ii) The question asks for names of the chosen natural and human attractions. Beaches and historical

sites would have been acceptable had the candidate named them. (0/2)

iii) This is a good answer as the candidate has referred to features of the temperatures, sunshine hours and rainfall which are attractive to tourists, therefore the full three marks were awarded. (3/3) b) i) A mark was awarded for reference to boat trips, however there is little else in the answer to suggest

that the candidate is aware of the attractions of a coral reef. (1/3)

ii) Pollution from farming/sewage and sediment from deforestation were credited as ways in which the reef could be damaged by human activities, however the explanations given were very confused and it appears that the candidate has little idea of what a coral reef actually is. (3/4)

iii) Again there is no understanding shown here and this answer confirms that the candidate is not familiar with a coral reef. The only pertinent comments is ‘do not throw sewage in the river’ but there is no reference to how this can be achieved so no marks could be awarded. (0/5)

c) The candidate has selected the West Indies which covers too large an area to be acceptable as a case study so a maximum of five marks could be awarded, had there been two developed ideas in the answer. Had the candidate named an actual island in the West Indies, such as St Lucia, this would have been acceptable. Level 2 was awarded as the reference to the farmers losing their land was sufficiently developed. The advantages were not well expressed and even though the term ‘multiplier effect’ was used this part of the answer was not sufficiently convincing to take the response higher within Level 2 so four marks were awarded. (4/7)

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Paper 2

Question 1

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Examiner comment

In parts (a) and (b), the candidate demonstrates a high level of proficiency in identifying features on the map and using the key to identify them. The only incorrect answer is in part (b)(i) where the candidate refers to a ridge rather than gentle slopes. In part (c), the grid reference, compass direction and bearing are all correct. In part (d), the candidate scores one mark out of three, not recognising that the gentle slopes are cultivated and that the seasonal marsh is next to rivers. In part (e), the candidate scores two marks out of the four available for describing the drainage. These are for identifying tributaries and the flow towards the north. There is a slight possibility that the candidate may think that the tributaries leave the rivers rather than join them but the candidate has been given the benefit of the doubt and the mark has been awarded.

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Examiner comment

Like the grade A candidate, this candidate is good at finding features and identifying them and scores full marks on parts (a) and (b). However, fewer marks are scored on the more demanding later sections. In part (c), the bearing is correct but the grid reference and compass direction are not. In part (d), the seasonal marsh is correctly identified as being next to rivers. The answer to part (e) is irrelevant as the candidate refers to cultivation and vegetation but not to drainage.

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Examiner comment

The candidate does not always use the map key correctly and makes simple errors as in parts (a)(i) and (ii). In part (c), the correct compass bearing is given but not the compass direction and grid reference. The description of drainage in part (e) is almost completely irrelevant. The reference to pipelines is confused as there are none within the area shown on Fig. 2.

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Question 2

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Examiner comment

The candidate is aware of the difference between primary, secondary and tertiary industries but loses a mark because “manufacturing” alone was not considered sufficient for an example of secondary industry. In part (b), the graph is plotted accurately. In part (c), the candidate understands how to answer the question based on the unfamiliar diagram. The plotting of Australia is accurate but that of Malaysia is outside the tolerance used by examiners.

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Examiner comment

In part (a), the examples of primary and tertiary industry are correct but not the example of secondary industry. The candidate has plotted one line on the divided bar graph correctly and used the correct key but the second line (on the right) is incorrect. In part (c) the plotting of Australia is correct but the plotting of Malaysia is outside the tolerance.

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Examiner comment

The candidate has been awarded a mark for part (a)(i), with the assumption that the answer is intended to mean the extraction of limestone. The answer to part (a)(ii) is ambiguous; it could mean production, or processing, or selling of coffee. Part (a)(iii) is answered correctly. Neither of the two lines plotted on the divided bar graph are correct but one mark has been awarded for use of the correct key. In part (c), the candidate has not been able to plot points accurately on the unfamiliar diagram.

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Question 3

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Examiner comment

In part (a), the candidate has noted the rapid increase in world population but has failed to score the second mark for recognising the initial slower increase. In part (b)(i), the candidate correctly notes that Japan had the largest percentage of over-60s in 2005 but it is Indonesia that will have the greatest increase. The candidate correctly notes that this will increase government expenditure on health care. Part (c) is completely correct: the graph is plotted accurately, the inverse relationship is identified and one other factor affecting population growth rate is correctly given as the birth rate.

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Examiner comment

The candidate attempts to give reasons for the changes shown by the graph but does not describe them, as required by the question. Japan and Indonesia are correctly identified in part (b) but the candidate fails to give a sufficiently precise problem that the changes will cause for governments. In part (c), the graph is plotted correctly, the inverse relationship is identified but “infancy” is not a sufficiently clear answer for part (c)(iii).

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Examiner comment

In part (a), the candidate scores one mark for noting the population growth but the exponential nature of the growth is not mentioned. In part (b)(i), the candidate scores one mark for noting that Japan had the largest percentage of over-60s in 2005 but it is Indonesia that will have the greatest increase not China. In part (b) (ii), the answer “too many people” could refer to the population as a whole and not just the over-60s. In part (c), the scatter graph has not been plotted correctly and the candidate does not appear to understand the meaning of the term relationship as used in the question. A third mark has been scored for noting that the death rate is another factor affecting population growth.

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Question 4

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Examiner comment

The candidate has correctly located erosion and deposition on Fig. 8 but the flood plain is incorrectly shown within the river channel. The likely future position of the channel is incorrect as it should show the migration of the meander towards the right of the photograph. The answer to part (b) is completely correct.

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Examiner comment

Only the position of the flood plain is correct in part (a)(i). In part (a)(ii), the future position of the channel has been given the benefit of the doubt and awarded a mark because it is to the right of the existing channel. Part (b) has been awarded three of the four marks available; the first response should have been boulders and not muddy.

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Examiner comment

Only deposition has been labelled correctly on Fig. 8. The candidate has not attempted to label the future position of the channel. In part (b) the candidate has been awarded two marks for clear and faster.

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Question 5

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Examiner comment

Candidates found this a demanding question and the marks were lower than for other questions. In part (a), the candidate correctly selects Z for Fig. 9A and X for Fig. 9B, identifying two desert locations, and in the correct hemispheres. In part (b)(i), two marks have been awarded, one for noting the rainfall in May, and one for noting the drought in June and July. ‘June’ on the third line is probably a slip and the candidate really means January. No marks have been awarded for the references to increasing and decreasing temperatures and rainfall. In part (b)(ii), one mark has been awarded for distance from the sea as a cause of aridity.

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Examiner comment

Grade C candidates found this a demanding question. The answer to part (a) is incorrect. In part (b)(i), three marks have been awarded for hot in January and December, rainfall in January and December, and no rain in June, July and August. No valid reasons are given for low rainfall in part (b)(ii).

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Examiner comment

One mark has been awarded in part (a) because the candidate has selected the two desert locations but placed them in the wrong hemispheres. In part (b)(i), a mark has been awarded on the first two lines for high temperatures in January. A mark has been awarded on lines five and six for rainfall in September to December. No valid reasons are given for low rainfall in part (b)(ii).

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Question 6

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Examiner comment

Part (a) is completely correct. In part (b), the candidate gives valid reasons for the opinions of all the various people except the factory manager. (The new road will not make the costs greater.)

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Examiner comment

The candidate has measured the distance (10km) correctly but has been unable to convert this into the correct journey time. In part (b), correct reasons are given for the first four people’s views: the lorry driver will travel faster, the village will suffer from noise, the town will have less congestion and the shopkeeper will lose customers. In part (b)(v), the candidate has crossed out the answer but it does not contain any valid points. In part (b)(vi), pollution was not accepted as a valid reason and, if it were, the type of pollution should have been specified.

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Examiner comment

The candidate has measured the distance (10km) correctly but has been unable to convert this into the correct journey time. The candidate notes that the lorry driver will take less time (part (b)(i)) and that the town resident will face less congestion (part (b)(iii)) but is unable to give valid reasons for the views of the other people.

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Paper 4

For Paper 4 example candidate responses, one whole script has been chosen to exemplify standards at each of grade A, grade C and grade E. Answers have been taken from these scripts where they illustrate a particular point. The most appropriate and helpful answers are exemplified with extracts. These are often written responses where differentiation is shown at its best and there is a reasonable range of marks to separate the best and worst answers. Single mark answers of a numerical or graphical kind are not illustrated unless there is a particular point to make.

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Example candidate response – grade A

Almost all grade A candidates did match up the Heads and Tails successfully in part (a) however even grade A candidates do not get full marks (above the threshold there are still 19 marks not gained). Recording at five sites in part (b)(i) was done to obtain more data or identify differences from a wider range of data; this was a mark lost at all levels. The common throwaway answer that the data is “more accurate” is not true but is often stated by candidates of all abilities. Just carrying out more measurements does not make the data more accurate. In part (b)(ii) however grade A candidates usually could identify that using a transect line would help ensure that the distance between sites was equal gained credit.

Part (c)(i) was answered well by grade A candidates; many obtained all three marks. The example below illustrates this well in a logical sequence and refers to how they made their measurements with the equipment provided

The candidate states that the hole was dug in the ground down to 10cm and the cylinder was put in it (one mark), then the measured amount of water (1 litre) was poured into it (one mark) then the stopwatch was used to measure the time taken for the water to be absorbed (one mark). Putting the cylinder in the ground, pouring in a measured amount of water and using the stopwatch were essential requirements to gain credit. Grade A candidates had no problems with parts (c)(ii) or (c)(iii) and in part (c)(iv) clearly showed the working of the calculation as required and put the final figure of 36.2 in the space provided.

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The graph work on part (d) was well done by grade A candidates although almost all candidates gained high credit for parts of it. What distinguished grade A candidates was the accuracy of their plotting and the neatness displayed in completing and shading the graphs as illustrated below.

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Grade A candidates were able to judge that the Hypothesis stated was incorrect and supported this judgement by using appropriate data for the three Areas. In the example below this candidate underlined the words “fewer” , “infiltrates” and “quickly” in the question clearly taking care to understand what the relationship was stating before disagreeing with it. The candidate also does not use individual sites to support the judgement but provides an overall view of Area A and Area C vegetation types and infiltration rates. This is a very good answer.

Many candidates struggled with part (d)(iii). This candidate chose to focus on individual sites for Area B to support the Hypothesis rather than the overall picture best gained by looking at the vegetation cover in Areas A and C and relating that to infiltration times.

In part (d)(iv) grade A candidates could usually explain the importance of roots being able to absorb the water quickly for use in plants as shown below however, even at this level, very few candidates mentioned the other points e.g. the roots physically creating gaps for water to infiltrate down.

Question 1(e) did not get the response required at many levels on this paper. Few candidates referred back to the data in Fig.1 despite the question asking them to do this. Some described the human impacts taking place without linking them to any aspect of vegetation cover, compacted ground or infiltration rates. A generic mark was available for candidates who did suggest that the infiltration times varied due to differences in vegetation cover and linked this to Sites A, B and C. This candidate did achieve that.

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Example candidate response – grade C

It was unusual for many candidates to get fewer than three marks for part (a); those that did usually mismatched the Shallow roots... and Large leaves... with the correct Tails. The example below though illustrates the kind of careless error that some candidates carry out. Despite being a grade C candidate, they have put the arrow from Shallow roots... to the Tails heading box instead of to the “..to extract soil nutrients”. It is unfortunate to see an able candidate throw away marks in this way.

This candidate erroneously thought that five sites were measured “to increase accuracy” but did in part (b) (ii) recognise the use of a transect line for measuring equal distances for one mark.

In part (c)(i) the candidate gained two marks. The answer was not well written but shows understanding that the measuring cylinder is put into the ground to 10cm depth and the stopwatch is used to measure the time to soak water away. The candidate states “pour 1 litre of water” but does not say where – so cannot get the third mark.