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CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM NUMBER
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)
AIIMS (FULL Syllabus)
DATE : 19 - 02 - 2014
MAJOR TEST # 06
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each incorrect answer.
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1. 2 gm of O2 gas is taken at 27°C and pressure 76cm.
of Hg. Then find out volume of gas - (in litre) (1) 1.53 (2) 2.44 (3) 3.08 (4) 44.2
2. Two uniform rods of equal length but different masses are rigidly joined to form an L-shaped body which is then pivoted as shown. If in equilibrium the body is in shown configuration, ratio M/m will be
90° 30°
m M
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
3. Masses m and 3 m are attached to the two ends of a spring of spring constant k. If the system vibrates freely, the period of oscillation will
be:-(1) m k (2) 2 3m k (3) 3m k (4) 2 m k
4. A long, straight, hollow conductor (tube) carrying a current has two sections A and C of unequal cross-sections joined by a conical section B. 1, 2 and 3 are points on a line parallel to the axis of the conductor. The magnetic fields at 1, 2 and 3 have magnitudes B1, B2 and B3 respectively, then : 3 2 1 A B C (1) B1 = B2 = B3 (2) B1 = B2 B3 (3) B1 < B2 < B3
(4) B2 cannot be found unless the dimensions of the section B are known
1. 2
27°C
76 cm Hg
(
) (1) 1.53 (2) 2.44 (3) 3.08 (4) 44.2 2.
L-
M/m
90° 30° m M (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3 3.
m
3 m
k
:-(1) m k (2) 2 3m k (3) 3m k (4) 2 m k 4.
A
C
B
1, 2
3
1, 2
3
B1, B2
B3
3 2 1 A B C (1) B1 = B2 = B3 (2) B1 = B2 B3 (3) B1 < B2 < B3 (4) B2
B
5. Two spheres of radii in the ratio 1 : 3 and densities in the ratio 2 : 1 and of same specific heat are heated to same temperature and left in the same surrounding. Their rate of falling temperature will be in the ratio
:-(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
6. A particle is given an initial speed u inside a smooth spherical shell of radius R = 1 m that it is just able to complete the circle. Acceleration of the particle when its velocity is vertical is
-u R
(1) g 10 (2) g (3) g 2 (4) 3g
7. A wire is 4 m long and has a mass 0.2 kg. The wire is kept horizontally. A transverse pulse is generated by plucking one end of the taut (tight) wire. The pulse makes four trips back and forth along the wire in 0.8 sec. The tension in the wire will be
-(1) 80 N (2) 160 N (3) 240 N (4) 320 N
8. The significance of self inductance L is the same as of that of……in the linear motion
-(1) mass (2) velocity
(3) acceleration (4) displacement
9. A B – C = 0 and A + B – C = 0. What is the angle between A and B ?
(1) 90° (2) 0° (3) 45° (4) tan1
F
HG
BAI
KJ
10. The I-V characteristic of an LED is :
(1) R ed Y el lo w (R) (Y) (G) (B) Gr ee n B lu e O I V (2) (R) (Y) (G) (B) O I V (3) O I V (4) (R) (Y) (G) (B) O I V 5.
1 : 3
2 : 1
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4 6. R = 1m
u
u R (1) g 10 (2) g (3) g 2 (4) 3g 7. 4 m
0.2 kg
0.8
(1) 80 N (2) 160 N (3) 240 N (4) 320 N 8.
L
-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
9. A B – C = 0
A + B – C = 0. A
B
(1) 90° (2) 0° (3) 45° (4) tan1F
HG
ABI
KJ
10.
LED
I-V
(1) R ed Y el lo w (R) (Y) (G) (B) Gr ee n B lu e O I V (2) (R) (Y) (G) (B) O I V (3) O I V (4) (R) (Y) (G) (B) O I V11. A positive point charge is placed at P in front of an earthed metal sheet S. Q & R are two points between P & S as shown in figure. If the electric field strength at Q & R are respectively EQ & ER and potential at Q & R are respectively VQ & VR .
Then-P. .Q .R .S (1) EQ = ER (2) EQ < ER (3) VQ > VR (4) VQ < VR
12. Consider the situation shown in figure. If the current I in the long straight wire XY is increased at a steady rate then the induced emf’s in loops A and B will
be-B A I X Y (1) clockwise in A, anticlockwise in B (2) anticlockwise in A, clockwise in B (3) clockwise in both A and B
(4) anticlockwise in both A and B
13. The curves shown represent adiabatic curves for monoatomic, diatomic & polyatomic ( = 4/3) gases. The slopes for curves 1,2,3 respectively at point A are– 1 2 3 P P A T T (1) 2.5 T P , 3. 5 T P , 4.5 T P (2) 2.5 T P , 3 T P , 4 T P (3) 2.5 T P , 3.5 T P , 4 T P (4) 4 T P , 3.5 T P , 2.5 T P 11.
S
P
P
S
Q
R
Q
R
EQ
ER
Q
R
VQ
VR
P. .Q .R .S (1) EQ = ER (2) EQ < ER (3) VQ > VR (4) VQ < VR 12.
XY
I
A
B
B A I X Y (1) A
B
(2) A
B
(3) A
B
(4) A
B
13.
( = 4/3)
A
1, 2, 3
1 2 3 P P A T T (1) 2.5 T P , 3. 5 T P , 4.5 T P (2) 2.5 T P , 3 T P , 4 T P (3) 2.5 T P , 3.5 T P , 4 T P (4) 4 T P , 3.5 T P , 2.5 T P
14. The ouput of an OR gate is connected to both the inputs of a NAND gate. The combination will serve as a :
(1) OR gate (2) NOT gate
(3) NOR gate (4) AND gate
15. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of the magnetic field induction B
is-(1) parallel to electric field E
(2) perpendicular to electric field E
(3) antiparallel to Poynting vector S
(4) random
16. A transformer transforms 220 volts to 11 volts. If the current strength in the primary coil is 5 amp. and that in the secondary, 90 amp, what is the efficiency of the transformer is
-(1) 90% (2) 100% (3) 211% (4) 150%
17. Ratio of minimum kinetic energies of two projectile of same mass is 4 : 1. The ratio of the maximum height attained by them is also 4 : 1. The ratio of their ranges would be :
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
18. In the middle of the depletion layer of reverse biased p-n junction,
the-(1) electric field is zero (2) potential is maximum (3) electric field is maximum (4) potential is zero
19. When the switches are arranged so that the current through the battery is minimum, what is the voltage across points A and B –
6 1 24V 9 6 3 1 1 A B (1) 4 V (2) 0 V (3) 1 V (3) 2 V 14. OR
NAND
: (1) OR
(2) NOT
(3) NOR
(4) AND
15.
B
(1)
E
(2)
E
(3)
S
(4)
16.
220 volts
11 volts
5 amp
90 amp
-(1) 90% (2) 100% (3) 211% (4) 150% 17.
4 : 1
4 : 1
: (1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 18.
p-n
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
19.
A
B
6 1 24V 9 6 3 1 1 A B (1) 4 V (2) 0 V (3) 1 V (3) 2 V20. The lateral shift produced by the slab is :–
60°
30° 3 m
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1m (3) 1.5 m (4) 2 m
21. A point moves with uniform acceleration and its initial speed and final speed are 1 m/s and 2 m/s respectively then, the space average of velocity over the distance moved is. (in m/s) :-(1) 14m / s 9 (2) 3 m / s 2 (3) 5m/s 2 (4) None of these
22. The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to be launched from the earth's surface out into free space. The value of 'g' and 'R' (radius of earth) are 10 m/s2 and 6400 km respectively. The
required energy for this work will be :-(1) 6.4 × 1010 Joules
(2) 6.4 × 1011 Joules
(3) 6.4 × 108 Joules
(4) 6.4 × 109 Joules
23. In a series LC circuit, the applied voltage is V = V0 sin t. If is very low, then the voltage drop across the inductor VL and capacitor VC
are:-L C V= V sin t0 (1) L 0 C 0 V V V ;V 2 2 (2) VL = 0; VC = V0 (3) VL = V0; VC = 0 (4) L C 0 V V V 2 20.
60° 30° 3 m (1) 0.5 m (2) 1m (3) 1.5 m (4) 2 m 21.
1m/s
2 m/s
(1) 14m / s 9 (2) 3 m / s 2 (3) 5m/s 2 (4) None of these 22.
1000 kg
'g'
'R' (
)
10 m/s2
6400 km
:-(1) 6.4 × 1010
(2) 6.4 × 1011
(3) 6.4 × 108
(4) 6.4 × 109
23.
L–C
V = V0 sin t
VL
VC
:-L C V= V sin t0 (1) L 0 C 0 V V V ;V 2 2 (2) VL = 0; VC = V0 (3) VL = V0; VC = 0 (4) L C 0 V V V 2
Key Filling
24. The figure shows a combination
4°
µ2
µ1
° of two thin prism producing
dispersion without deviation (µ1 = 1.54, µ2 = 1.72). The value of is
(1) 1° (2) 2°
(3) 3° (4) 4°
25. In the given arrangement, n number of equal masses are connected by strings of negligible masses. The tension in the string connected to nth mass is m n m 3 m 2 m 1 M 4 ….. m (1) M nm mMg (2) nmM mMg (3) mg (4) mng
26. A block of wood is floating in water in a closed vessel as shown in the figure. The vessel is connected to an air pump. When more air is pushed into the vessel, the block of wood floats with (neglect compressibility of water)
:-(1) larger part in the water (2) smaller part in the water (3) same part in the water (4) at some instant it will sink
27. Two identical batteries, each of emf 2V and internal resistance r = 1 are connected as shown. The maximum power that can be developed across R using these batteries is
:-1 1 R 2V 2V (1) 3.2 W (2) 8.2 W (3) 2 W (4) 4W 24.
4° µ2 µ1 °
gS r ks
(µ1 = 1.54, µ2 = 1.72). (1) 1° (2) 2° (3) 3° (4) 4° 25.
n
n
m n m 3 m 2 m 1 M 4 ….. m (1) M nm mMg (2) nmM mMg (3) mg (4) mng 26.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
27.
emf 2V
r = 1
R
:-1 1 R 2V 2V (1) 3.2 W (2) 8.2 W (3) 2 W (4) 4W28. An interference is observed due to two coherent sources ‘A’ & ‘B’ having zero plase difference separated by a distance 4 along the y-axis where is the wavelength of the source. A detector D is moved on the positive x-axis. The number of points on the x-axis excluding the points x = 0 & x = at which maximum will be observed is.
A y
B
D
x
(1) three (2) four (3) two (4) infinite
29. A block of mass m placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination = 30° can be just prevented from sliding down by applying a force F1 up the plane and it can be made to just slide up the plane by applying force F2 up the plane. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the inclined plane is 1/2 3 , the relation between F1 and F2 is
:-(1) F2 = F1 (2) F2 = 2F1 (3) F2 = 3F1 (4) F2 = 4F1
30. A vertical glass capillary tube, open at both ends, contains some water. Which of the following shapes may be taken by the water in the tube?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
31. A voltmeter connected in series with a resistance R1 to a circuit indicates a voltage V1 = 198 V. When a series resistor R2 = 2R1 is used, the voltmeter indicates a voltage V2 = 180 V. If the resistance of the voltmeter is RV = 900 then, the applied voltage across A and B
V198V V180V B B A A R1 R = 2R2 1 (1) 210 V (2) 200 V (3) 220 V (4) 240 V 28. y-
4
A
B
D
x
x = 0
x =
x
A y B D x (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
29. m
= 30°
F1
F2
1/2 3
,
F1
F2
:-(1) F2 = F1 (2) F2 = 2F1 (3) F2 = 3F1 (4) F2 = 4F1 30.
? (1) (2) (3) (4) 31.
R1
V1 = 198 V
R2 = 2R1
V2 = 180 V
RV = 900
A
B
V198V V180V B B A A R1 R = 2R2 1 (1) 210 V (2) 200 V (3) 220 V (4) 240 V32. A single slit Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is formed with white light. For what wavelength of light the third secondary maximum in the diffraction pattern coincides with the second secondary maximum in the pattern for red light of wavelength 6500 Å
:-(1) 4400 Å (2) 4100 Å
(3) 4642.8 Å (4) 9100 Å
33. A block of mass 3kg is pulled up on a smooth incline of angle 37° with the horizontal. If the block moves with an acceleration of 2m/sec2, then the power delivered by the pulling force at t = 5sec after the start of motion –
(1) 120 W (2) 240 W
(3) 60 W (4) 480 W
34. Length of a spring of force constant k in its unstretched condition is . The spring is cut into two parts which have their unstretched lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 = q : 1. Force constants of the two parts k1 and k2 are
then:-(1) k(q + 1), kq (2) k(q 1) q , kq (3) k(q 1) q , k(q + 1) (4) k(q 1) q , k(q 1) q
35. A wire cd of length and mass m is sliding without friction on conducting rails ax and by as shown. The vertical rails are connected to each other with a resistance R between a and b. A uniform magnetic field B is applied perpendicular to the plane abcd such that cd moves with a constant velocity of :-(1) mgR B (2) 2 2 mgR B R a b c d x y (3) 3 3 mgR B (4) mgR2 B 32.
(single slit diffraction pattern )
(third secondary maxima )6500 Å
:-(1) 4400 Å (2) 4100 Å (3) 4642.8 Å (4) 9100 Å 33. 3kg
37°
2m/sec2
t = 5sec
– (1) 120 W (2) 240 W (3) 60 W (4) 480 W 34.
k
1 : 2 = q : 1
k1
k2
:-(1) k(q + 1), kq (2) k(q 1) q , kq (3) k(q 1) q , k(q + 1) (4) k(q 1) q , k(q 1) q 35.
m
cd
ax
by
a
b
R
abcd
B
cd
:-(1) mgR B (2) 2 2 mgR B R a b c d x y (3) 3 3 mgR B (4) 2 mgR B 36. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X fuse to give one atom Y and an energy Q is released then :-(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2 – 2E1 (3) 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1
37. If the system is released from rest then speed of mass m when it has travelled a distance d on a rough surface is : m 2m µ = 1/2 (1) gd (2) gd 2 (3) 2gd (4) gd 2
38. A particle is executing SHM of time period 24 sec and amplitude 20 cm. At t = 0, its displacement is + 20 cm. Shortest time taken by the particle in moving from x = + 10 cm to x = – 10 cm is
:-(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 3 sec
39. An electric field of 1500 V/m and a magnetic field of 0.40 weber/metre2 act on a moving electron. The minimum uniform speed along a straight line the electron could have is
:-(1) 1.6 × 1015 m/s (2) 6 × 10–16 m/s (3) 3.75 × 103 m/s (4) 3.75 × 102 m/s
40. The activity of a sample reduces from A0 to A0
3 is one hour. The activity after 3 hours more will :-(1) A0 3 3 (2) 0 A 9 (3) A0 9 3 (4) 0 A 27 36.
X
Y
E1
E2
X
Y
Q
:-(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2 – 2E1 (3) 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1 37.
m
d
: m 2m µ = 1/2 (1) gd (2) gd 2 (3) 2gd (4) gd 2 38.
24 sec
20 cm
SHM
t = 0
+ 20 cm.
x = + 10 cm
x = – 10 cm
:-(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 3 sec
39.
1500 V/m
0.40
/
2
:-(1) 1.6 × 1015 m/s (2) 6 × 10–16 m/s (3) 3.75 × 103 m/s (4) 3.75 × 102 m/s 40.
A0
A0 3
:-(1) A0 3 3 (2) 0 A 9 (3) A0 9 3 (4) 0 A 2741. For the complete combustion of 0.2 moles of the sugar, how many moles of oxygen is required ? (1) 1.2 (2) 0.24 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.12
42. Select the correct order of acidic strength of oxides
:-(1) SO2 > SO3 > CO2 (2) Cs2O > K2O > Na2O (3) CO2 > N2O5 > B2O3 (4) SO3 > CO2 > B2O3
43. The variation of extent of adsorption with pressure at a given constant temperature is given in following figure : Pressure x m T3 T2 T1
Which of the followi ng relation bet ween temperature of isotherms is correct?
(1) T1 = T2 = T3 (2) T1 < T2 < T3 (3) T3 < T2 < T1 (4) T1 < T2 > T3
44. Which of the following is an amino acid ? (1) H2N – COOH (2) CH – CH – COOH3 CONH2 (3)NH – C – COOH2 O (4) COOH N H 45. 10 g of CaCO3 contains :-(1) 6 × 1022 atoms of Ca (2) 0.1 gm eqv. of Ca (3) 10 moles of CaCO3 (4) 1 gm. atom of calcium
46. Which alkali metal forms bicarbonate only in aqueous solution ?
(1) Lithium (2) Sodium
(3) Potassium (4) Caesium
47. Which expansion will produce more change in entropy during reversible & isothermal process? (1) 1 mole H2 at 300 K from 2 litre to 20 litre (2) 1 mole N2 at 400 K from 1 litre to 10 litre (3) 1 mole O3 at 500 K from 3 litre to 30 litre (4) All have same S
41. 0.2
(1) 1.2 (2) 0.24 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.12 42.
:-(1) SO2 > SO3 > CO2 (2) Cs2O > K2O > Na2O (3) CO2 > N2O5 > B2O3 (4) SO3 > CO2 > B2O3 43.
Pressure x m T3 T2 T1
(1) T1 = T2 = T3 (2) T1 < T2 < T3 (3) T3 < T2 < T1 (4) T1 < T2 > T3 44.
? (1) H2N – COOH (2) CH – CH – COOH3 CONH2 (3)NH – C – COOH2 O (4) COOH N H 45. 10
CaCO3
:-(1) 6 × 1022
(2) 0.1
Ca
(3) 10
CaCO3
(4) 1
Ca
46.
? (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
47.
? (1) 300 K
1
H2
2
20
(2) 400 K
1
N2
1
10
(3) 500 K
1
O2
3
30
(4)
S
48. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-(1) Peracetamole NH – C – CH3 O OH (2)PHBV—O–CH–CH –C–O–CH–CH –C—2 2 O CH3 CH –CH2 3O n (3) Peptide bond – C – NH – O
(4) Anti Histamines Al(OH)3
49. Five valence electrons of nitrogen are shown as :
2p 2s
AB C D E
If the spin quantum number of B and E is –1/2. The group of electrons with three same quantum numbers are
:-(1) Only AB (2) Only CDE
(3)Both the above (4) None of these
50. Aqueous ammonia can be used to separate which of the following pair of ions ?
(1) Al3+ and Pb2+ (2) Ni2+ and Cu2+ (3) Zn2+ and Cr3+ (4) Al3+ and Zn2+
51. In any natural process
:-(1) The entropy of the universe remains const. (2) The entropy of the universe tends towards
maximum
(3) The entropy of the universe tends towards minimum
(4) Any of the above can happen
52. Wrong data for the first order reaction are :-(1) t50% = 100 sec, t75% = 200 sec
(2) t75% = 32 min, t50% = 16 min (3) Both the above
(4) t50% = 100 sec, t75% = 150 sec
53. Electron moving with a velocity of 'V' has a certain value of de-Broglie wave length. The velocity of neutron having the same wavelength would be ? (1) 1840 V (2) 1840 V (3) V 1840 (4) V 48.
:-(1)
NH – C – CH3 O OH (2)PHBV—O–CH–CH –C–O–CH–CH –C—2 2 O CH3 CH –CH2 3 O n (3)
– C – NH – O (4)
Al(OH)3 49.
2p 2s AB C D E
B
E
–1/2
:-(1)
AB (2)
CDE (3)
(4)
50.
NH3
? (1) Al3+
Pb2+ (2) Ni2+
Cu2+ (3) Zn2+
Cr3+ (4) Al3+
Zn2+ 51.
:-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
52.
:-(1) t50% = 100
, t75% = 200
(2) t75% = 32
, t50% = 16
(3)
(4) t50% = 100
, t75% = 150
53. 'V'
:-(1) 1840 V (2) 1840 V (3) V 1840 (4) V54. Cl can be oxidised by
:-(1) MnO2 (2) KMnO4
(3) CuCl2 + O2 (4) All
55. In the following reaction 3A + B 2C + D Initial mole of B is double of A. At equilibrium mole of A and C are equal. Hence % dissociation of B is
(1) 60% (2) 10%
(3) 40% (4) 33.33%
56. For the cell, Mn(s)|Mn+2(aq)(0.4M)||Sn+2(aq)(0.04)|Sn(s), Calculate free energy change (G) at 298 K. Given : E°Mn+2|Mn = –1.18 V; E°Sn+2|Sn = –0.14 volt
2.303RT
F = 0.06
(1) 180.93 KJ (2) –194.93 KJ
(3) –180.93 KJ (4) None of these
57. Acetic acid exists as dimer in a benzene solution. vant's Hoff factor was found to be 0.52. What is the degree of association ?
(1) 0.48 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.52
58. Common hydrolysis so products of XeF2 & XeF4 are
:-(1) Xe (2) O2
(3) HF (4) All
59. For the reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) the degree of dissociation () of HI(g) is related to equilibrium constant KP by the expression :–
(1) 1 2 2 KP (2) 1 2 2 KP (3) 2 1 2 K K P P (4) 2 1 2 K K P P 60. If EAu / Au is 1.69 volt and EAu3/ Au is 1.40 volt. Then EAu / Au 3 will be :-(1) 0.19 V (2) 1.255 V (3) – 1.255 V (4) None of these
61. Total number of sulphur atoms in H2S(n)O6 which form covalent bond in their ground state
:-(1) n (2) n – 1 (3) n – 2 (4) n + 1 54. Cl
:-(1) MnO2 (2) KMnO4 (3) CuCl2 + O2 (4) All 55.
3A + B 2C + D
B
A
A
C
B
(1) 60% (2) 10% (3) 40% (4) 33.33% 56.
Mn(s)|Mn+2(aq)(0.4M)||Sn+2(aq)(0.04)|Sn(s)
298 K
(G)
: E°Mn+2|Mn = –1.18 V; E°Sn+2|Sn = –0.14 volt 2.303RT F = 0.06 (1) 180.93 KJ (2) –194.93 KJ (3) –180.93 KJ (4)
57.
0.52
:-(1) 0.48 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.52 58. XeF2
XeF4
:-(1) Xe (2) O2 (3) HF (4)
59.
2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
HI(g)
()
KP
:– (1) 1 2 2 KP (2) 1 2 2 KP (3) 2 1 2 K K P P (4) 2 1 2 K K P P 60.
EAu / Au = 1.69
EAu3/ Au = 1.40
EAu / Au 3
:-(1) 0.19 V (2) 1.255 V (3) – 1.255 V (4)
61. H2S(n)O6
S atom
covalent bonds
:-(1) n (2) n – 1 (3) n – 2 (4) n + 162. Which of the following will be redox change :-(1) NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + C.H2SO4 red vapours (2) KCl + C.H2SO4 Acid
(3) NaNO3 + C.H2SO4 Acid (4) None
63. In Friedel-Craft's alkylation besides AlCl3, the other reactants are
:-(1) C6H6 + NH3 (2) C6H6 + CH3COCl (3) C6H6 + CH3Cl (4) C6H6 + CH4
64. Chromium metal crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. The edge length of unit cell is found to be 287 pm. Atomic radius of chromium will be
:-(1) 87 pm (2) 62.135 pm
(3) 124.27 pm (4) None of these
65.
Strong ligand (octahedral field)
CFSE = x1
Weak ligand (octahedral field) CFSE = x2
(CFSE = Crystal Field stasilisation energy )
d Metal ion
3
The correct relation of x1 and x2 are :-(1) x1 > x2 (2) x2 > x1 (3) x1 = x2 (4) x2 = 1.6 x1
66. Which of the following is correct
:-Reaction Product
(1) Cu + C.HNO3 NH3 (2) Zn + dil HNO3 NO2 (3) NaBr + C.H2SO4 HBr
(4) KI + F2 KF + I2
67. Match the following :
Set I Set II (a) Conc. H SO2 4 2 5 170ºC C H OH (i) Methane (b) CHI3 Ag (Powder ) (ii) Ethylene (c) CH COONa(aq) 3 Electrolysis (iii) Benzene (d) CH COONa3 CaO,NaOH (iv) Acetylene
(v) Ethane The correct match is
:-(1) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - i (2) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - iii (3) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - i (4) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - iii
62.
redox
:-(1) NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + C.H2SO4 red vapours (2) KCl + C.H2SO4 Acid (3) NaNO3 + C.H2SO4 Acid (4)
63.
AlCl3
:-(1) C6H6 + NH3 (2) C6H6 + CH3COCl (3) C6H6 + CH3Cl (4) C6H6 + CH4 64.
287 pm.
:-(1) 87 pm (2) 62.135 pm (3) 124.27 pm (4)
65.
ligand ( )
CFSE = x1
ligand (
) CFSE = x2 (CFSE = Crystal Field stasilisation energy ) d3
x1
x2
:-(1) x1 > x2 (2) x2 > x1 (3) x1 = x2 (4) x2 = 1.6 x1 66.
:-
(1) Cu + C.HNO3 NH3 (2) Zn + dil HNO3 NO2 (3) NaBr + C.H2SO4 HBr (4) KI + F2 KF + I2 67.
: Set I Set II (a) Conc. H SO2 4 2 5 170ºC C H OH (i) Methane (b) CHI3 Ag (Powder ) (ii) Ethylene (c) Electrolysis 3CH COONa(aq) (iii) Benzene (d) CH COONa3 CaO,NaOH (iv) Acetylene
(v) Ethane
:-(1) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - i (2) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - iii (3) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - i (4) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - iii
68. –Br NO2 Mg Ether A CO / H O2 2 Dry ice B; B is:-(1) –CHO NO2 (2) –CH –OH2 NO2 (3) –COOH NO2 (4) –OH NO2 69. Correct Match is
:-Attack of ligand on d-orbital of metal
Metal ion having max-energy
(1) Square planar dxz, dyz (2) Tetrahedral dz2
(3) Octahedral dxz, dyz, dxy
(4) Triagonal dz2
Bipyramidal
70. Give the correct reaction
:-(a) NaNO2 2 4 4 dil.H SO FeSO NO(g) (b) HNO3 P O4 10 N 2O5 (c) P4 + NaOH PH3 + Na3PO4 (d) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ND 2O + Cr2O3 + H2O Correct option are
:-(1) a & b (2) a & c (3) b & c (4) b & d
71. 3-phenylpropene on reaction with HBr gives (as a major product) :-(1) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3 (2) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3 (3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br (4) C6H5CH(Br)CH==CH2 72. CH3COOH NH3
X NaOBr Y 2 NaNO HCl
Z . What is Z ? (1) CH –C–H3 O (2) CH3–CH2–OH (3) CH3–O–CH3 (4) CH3–CH2–Cl 68. –Br NO2 Mg Ether A CO / H O2 2 Dry ice B; B
:-(1) –CHO NO2 (2) –CH –OH2 NO2 (3) –COOH NO2 (4) –OH NO2 69.
:-
ligand
d-
(1)
dxz, dyz (2)
dz2 (3)
dxz, dyz, dxy (4)
dz2 70.
:-(a) NaNO2 2 4 4 dil.H SO FeSO NO(g) (b) HNO3 P O4 10 N 2O5 (c) P4 + NaOH PH3 + Na3PO4 (d) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ND 2O + Cr2O3 + H2O
:-(1) a
b (2) a
c (3) b
c (4) b
d 71. 3-
HBr
:-(1) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3 (2) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3 (3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br (4) C6H5CH(Br)CH==CH2 72. CH3COOH NH3
X NaOBr Y 2 NaNOHCl
Z ; Z
? (1) CH –C–H3 O (2) CH3–CH2–OH (3) CH3–O–CH3 (4) CH3–CH2–Cl
73. In which molecule all X-O bond length present in molecule are equal (X = central atom)
:-(1) N2O5 (2) P4O6 (3) H2CO3 (4) P4O10
74. A gas X diffuses three times faster than another gas Y. The ratio of their densities is
:-(1) 1/3 (2) 1/9
(3) 1/6 (4) 1/12
75. Which of the following carbocations is most stable? (1) NO2 H X (2) NO2 H X (3) O N2 H X (4) NO2 H X
76. Which of the following will not lose asymmetry on reduction with LiAlH4
:-(1) CHO CH –CH2 3 HO–CH2 CH=CH2 (2) CH3 COOH C CH HO–CH2 (3) CH3 CHO CH –CH2 3 CH =CH2 –O (4) CH3 Cl CH –CH H 73.
X-O
(X =
)
(1) N2O5 (2) P4O6 (3) H2CO3 (4) P4O10 74.
X
Y
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/9 (3) 1/6 (4) 1/12 75.
? (1) NO2 H X (2) NO2 H X (3) O N2 H X (4) NO2 H X 76.
LiAlH4
:-(1) CHO CH –CH2 3 HO–CH2 CH=CH2 (2) CH3 COOH C CH HO–CH2 (3) CH3 CHO CH –CH2 3 CH =CH2 –O (4) CH3 Cl CH –CH H77. Pb and Sn are extracted from their chief ore by :
(1) Carbon reduction and self reduction respectively.
(2) Self reduction and carbon reduction respectively.
(3) Electrolysis and self reduction respectively. (4) Self reduction and electrolysis respectively.
78. The volume of gases NH3, CO2 and H2 adsorbed by 1 gram charoal at 300 K will lie in the order : (1) CO2 > NH3 > H2 (2) NH3 > CO2 > H2 (3) NH3 > H2 > CO2 (4) H2 > CO2 > NH3 79. HC – OH C – OH H OH OH H H HO CH OH2
, The given is enol form of :
(1) D-Sucrose (2) D-Ribose
(3) D-Glucose (4) All of there
80. CH –C–Cl + C H ONa3 2 5
–
–
CH3
CH3
Major product will be
(1) CH –C–O–C H3 2 5 – – CH3 CH3 (2) CH –C=CH3 – 2 CH3 (3) CH –CH–CH –O–C H3 – 2 2 5 CH3 (4) None of these 77. Pb