SAMPLE TEST PAPER
CLASS XI
PART-I
IQ (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (1 to 2) : In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain character is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column-wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character from the given alternatives. 1. 6 11 25 8 6 16 12 5 ? (1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 12 (4) 10 2. 12 5 51 9 8 8 7 44 4 9 7 9 37 6 ? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 13
3. If O = 16, FOR = 42, then what is FRONT equal to?
(1) 61 (2) 65 (3) 73 (4) 78
Directions (Q. 4) : Following questions are based on letter series. In each series some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternative. Find the correct alternatives in each case and indicate your answer.
4. a — bba — aa — b—a
(1) baab (2) aaba (3)aaab (4) abba
Direction (Q. 5) : In each of the following questions, statements are given followed by conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
5. Statements
Some keys are staplers. Some staplers are stickers. All the stickers are pents. Conclusions
1. Some pens are staplers. 2. Some stickers are keys. 3. No sticker is key. 4. Some staplers are keys.
(1) Only (1) and (2) (2) Only (2) and (4)
(3) Only (2) and (3) (4) Only (1) and (4) and either (2) or (3)
INSTRUCTIONS
Time duration: 2:30 hours. (The initial 30 minutes are given for filling Response Sheet and the test duration
is 2 hours).
Maximum Marks: 320
This Question Paper consists of 2 parts which contains 80 MCQs with 4 choices
Part 1: 20 questions on IQ (which comprises questions on application of logic & mental ability)
Part 2 : 60 questions (Compulsory Subjects: Physics: 20, Chemistry: 20 & Optional Subjects
(only 1 subject to be attempted): Biology: 20 or Maths: 20)
Marking Scheme: For each correct answer 4 marks are awarded and for each wrong answer -1 mark is
Directions Questions (6 to 7) : In each of the following problems, there is one question and three statements I, II and III given below the question. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and find which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the given question. Choose the correct alternative in each question.
6. How is ‘DATE’ written in the code language? I. DEAR is written as $#@? in that code. II. TREAT is written as %?#@% in that code. III. TEAR is written as %#@? in that code.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III (3) Only I and either II or III (4) None of these 7. Who among Siddhartha, Nikunj, Vipul and Mukul is the youngest?
I. Vipul is younger than Mukul but older than Siddhartha and Nikunj. II. Mukul is the oldest.
III. Siddhartha is older than Nikunj.
(1) Only I (2) Only I and II (3) Only II and III (4) Only I and III
Direction (8-11) :Three ladies and four men are a group of friends i.e. P, K, R, Q, J, V and X. Each one has a different profession i.e. Lawyer, Travel Agent, Air-hostess, Doctor, Professor, Consultant and Jeweller and each one owns a different car i.e. Alto, Corolla, Santro, Lancer, Ikon Scorpio and Esteem, not necessarily in that order. None of the ladies is a Consultant or a Lawyer. R is an Air-hostees and she owns as Ikon car. P owns a Scopio. K is not a Doctor. J is a Jeweller and he owns Corolla. V is a Lawyer and does not own Alto. X is a Consulatant and owns Santro. The Doctor owns Esteem car whereas the Professor owns Scorpio. The Travel Agent owns an Alto. None of the ladies owns a Scorpio.
8. Who are the three ladies in the group ?
(1) V, R, K (2) R, P, J (3) R, K, Q (4) Data inadequate 9. What car does Q own ?
(1) Esteem (2) Lancer (3) Alto (4) Santro
10. Who owns the car Lancer ?
(1) V (2) X (3) K (4) Data inadequate
11. What is the profession of K ?
(1) Doctor (2) Professor (3) Travel Agent (4) Data inadequate Direction (12-14) : These questions are based on the following information :
Seven villages A, B, C, D, E, F and G are situated as follows :
E is 2 km to the west of B. F is 2 km to the north of A. C is 1 km to the west of A. D is 2 km to the south of G. G is 2 km to the east of C. D is exactly middle of B & E. 12. A is in the middle of :
(1) E and C (2) E and G (3) F and G (4) Gand C
13. Which two villages are the farthest from one another ?
(1) D and C (2) F and E (3) F and B (4) G and E
14. How far is E from F (in km) as the crow flies ?
(1) 4 (2) 20 (3) 5 (4) 26
15. There are two clocks on a wall, both set right at 10 : 00 AM. One clock is losing 2 min per hour & other clock is gaining 3 min per hour. If the clock which is losing 2 min per hour shows 3 : 00 PM the next day, what time does the clock gaining 3 min per hour show :
16. At what time between 5 o’clock and 6 o’clock do the hands of a clock coincide ?
(1) 25 min past 5 o’clock (2) 25 5
11 min past 5 o’clock (3) 27 3
11 min past 5 o’clock (4) 31
5
11 min past 5 o’clock 17. How many times does the 29th day of the month occur in 400 consecutive years ?
(1) 4497 (2) 1237 (3) 5012 (4) 4126
18. A told B, "Yesterday I met the only brother of the daughter of my grand mother." Whom did A meet ?
(1) Cousin (2) Brother (3) Nephew (4) Father
Direction (Q. 19) : In question, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 19. 4, 6, 15, 56, 280, 1644 :
(1) 280 (2) 1644 (3) 56 (4) 15
20. 8 4 6 15 52½ 236¼
12 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (c) ?
(1) 18 (2) 20 (3) 21½ (4) 22½
PART-II
SECTION-A : PHYSICS
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. Given that A +B+C = 0. Out of three vectors A, B and C two are equal in magnitude and the magnitude of the third vector is 2 times that of either vector having equal magnitudes. Then the angle between the vectors is (1) 30, 60, 90 (2) 45, 45, 90 (3) 45, 60, 90 (4) 90, 135, 135 22. dt 2 a sinx 1 at 1 2at t
. The value of x is (1) 1 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) 223. The velocity-time graph of a linear motion is shown in figure. The displacement from the origin after 8 sec. is V (m/s) 2 4 1 2 3 4 5 6 t (sec.) 0 7 8 2 -2 (1) 5 m (2) 14 m (3) 8 m (4) none of these
24. A particle moves in xy plane. The position vector of particle at any time t is r {(2t)i (2t ) j}m ˆ 2ˆ . The rate of
change of at time t = 2 second. (where is the angle which its velocity vector makes with positive x-axis) is (1) 172 rad/s (2) 1 14rad/s (3) 4 7rad/s (4) 6 5rad/s
25. Time taken by the projectile to reach from A to B is t. Then the distance AB is equal to (1) ut 3 (2) 3 ut 2 (3) 3 ut (4) 2 ut
26. A 2 kg block is connected with two springs of force constants k1 = 100 N/m and k2 = 300 N/m as shown in figure. The block is released from rest with the springs unstretched. The acceleration of the block in its lowest position is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) zero
(2) 10 m/s2 upwards
(3) 10 m/s2 downwards
(4) 5 m/s2 upwards
27. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 1 kg are in contact with each other on a horizontal frictionless table. When a horizontal force of 3.0 N is applied to the block of mass 2 kg, the value of the force of contact between the two blocks is
2 kg 1 kg 3 N
(1) 4 N (2) 3 N
(3) 2 N (4) 1 N
28. A system of three blocks kept on ground is shown with the coefficients of friction in the figure. At any instant, two forces F1 and F2 act on the blocks as shown. The instantaneous acceleration of block C is
F1 = 60 N 30 kg 20 kg 10 kg F2 = 20 N AB = 0.6 BC = 0.1 C, ground = 0.3 A B C
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) zero m/s2 (3) 4 m/s2 (4) none of these
29. When the force retards the motion of a body the work done is (1) zero
(2) negative (3) positive
(4) +ve or –ve depending upon the magnitude of force and displacement 30. A particle is attached to an inextensible string of length 1 m in a vertical
plane. The particle is released from position A with the string in stretched state as shown in the figure. If aB and aC are magnitude of the particle at
lowest position B and the other extreme position C respectively. Then the ratio B C a a is equal to C 37 37 A B (1) 0 (2) (3) 2/3 (4) 4/3
31. Two blocks A and B, having masses 100 kg and 200 kg are placed as shown in the figure. The block A is connected to a wall with a light inextensible string. The coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.2 and that between the block B and the floor is 0.3. Then the minimum force required to move the block B will be (take g = 10 m/s2)
32. A disc of radius 0.1 m undergoes accelerated rolling motion as shown in the figure. The velocity and acceleration of centre of mass at a given instant is 10 m/sec and 1 m/sec2 respectively. The magnitude of acceleration of Q (the
highest point on disc) w.r.t point of contact P at the given instant is
y Q
P
x
(1) 103 m/s2 (2) 22 (2 10 )3 2 (3) 2 m/s2 (4) none of these
33. A particle is moving in x–y plane. At certain instant of time, the components of its velocity and acceleration are as follows vx = 3 m/s, vy = 4 m/s, ax = 2 m/s2 and a
y = 1 m/s2. The rate of change of speed at this moment is
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (3) 5 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
34. A tin sheet of uniform mass distribution is shown in figure. The CM of the sheet is at (1) (5, –0.5) (2) (–0.5, 5) y 10cm 6 cm 2 cm 4 cm 2cm x (3) (10, –1) (4) (–1, 10)
35. A uniform rod of length is kept vertically on a smooth horizontal surface at x = 0. It is rotated slightly and released. When the rod finally falls on the horizontal surface the lower end will remain at
(1) x = 2 x = 0 x–axis (2) x > 2 (3) x < 2 (4) x = 0
36. A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity V at an angel with the horizontal direction. At the highest point in its path, it explodes into two pieces of equal masses. One of the pieces retraces its path to the cannon. The speed of the other piece immediately after the explosion is
(1) 3V cos (2) 2V cos (3) 3
2V cos (4) 3V cos 37. A ball A is falling vertically downwards with velocity v1. It strikes elastically with a
wedge moving horizontally with velocity v2 as shown in figure. Component of the
velocity of particle a along the incline surface after the collision is v1 v2 30° A (1) 3 v1 (2) 1 v 3 (3) 2 v1 (4) v1 2
38. A uniform rod of mass m and length makes a constant angle with an axis of rotation which passes through one end of the rod. Its moment of inertia about this axis is
(1) m 2 3 (2) m 2 3 sin (3) m 2 3 sin2 (4) m 2 3 cos2
39. A uniform rod of mass m and length is suspended by means of two light inextensible strings as shown in figure. Tension in one string immediately after the other string is cut is
(1) mg
2 (2) mg A B
(3)mg
4 (4)2mg
40. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is rolling without slipping with angular speed on a horizontal plane as shown in figure. The magnitude of angular momentum of the disc about the origin O is
(1) 1 2MR2 (2) MR2 y O x R M (3) 3 2MR2 (4) 2 MR2
SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. 120 gm of solution containing 40% by mass of NaCl are mixed with 200 gm of a solution containing 15% by mass NaCl. Determine the mass percent of sodium chloride in the final solution.
(1) 24.4% (2) 78% (3) 48.8% (4) 19.68%
42. The charge on 1 gram ions of Al3+ is
(1) 27 1 NAe coulomb (2) 3 1 × NAe coulomb (3) 9 1 × NAe coulomb (4) 3 × NAe coulomb 43. Sulphur trioxide is prepared by the following two reactions
S8(s) + 8O2(g) 8SO2(g) 2SO2 (g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) How many grams of SO3 are produced from 1 mol of S8?
(1) 1280.0 (2) 640.0 (3) 960.0 (4) 320.0
44. If -particle with speed v0 is projected from infinity and it approches upto r0 distance from the nuclie. Then the speed of -particle which approches upto 2r0 distance from the nucleus is
(1) 2v0 (2) v0
2 (3) 2v0 (4) 0
v 2
45. In a hydrogen like sample, ions are in a particular excited state, if electrons make transition upto 1st
excited state, then it produces maximum 15 different types of spectral lines then electrons were in (1) 5th state (2) 6th state (3) 7th state (4) 8th state
46. For the Hydrogen spectrum, last line of the Lyman series has frequency , last line of Lymen series of1
He+ ion has frequency 2
and 1st line of Lyman series of He+ ion has frequency 3
then (1) 4 =1 +2 3 (2) = 41 +2 3 (3) =2 –3 1 (4) =2 +1 3
47. Magnetic moment of Xn+ (Z = 26) is 24 B.M. Hence number of upaired electrons and value of n respectively
are
48. The order of magnitude of ionic radii of ions Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ and Si4+ is
(1) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ < Si4+ (2) Mg2+ > Na+ > Al3+ > Si4+
(3) Al3+ > Na+> Si4+ > Mg2+ (4) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+
49. Which has maximum first ionization potential
(1) C (2) N (3) B (4) O
50. Orbital angular momentum of an electron is 3h
then the number of orientations of this orbital in space are
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 9
51. Wavelength of radiations emitted when an electron jumps from a state A to C is 2000 Å and it is 6000 Å when the electron jumps from state B to state C. Wavelength of the radiations emitted when an electron jumps from state A to B will be
(1) 2000 Å (2) 3000 Å (3) 4000 Å (4) 6000 Å
52. The correct order of second ionisation enthalpy in the following :
(1) F > O > N > C (2) O > F > N > C (3) O > N > F > C (4) C > N > O > F 53. S1 The HOMO in F2– is *2p
x = *2py molecular orbitals.
S2 Bond order of O2– is more then O 2+ .
S3 NO+ is more stable than N 2+
S4 C2 is more stable than C2+
State, in order, whether S1, S2, S3, S4 are true or false
(1) FFFT (2) FTTT (3) FTFT (4) FFTT
54. The correct order of boiling point is :
(1) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te (2) H2O > H2Se > H2Te > H2S (3) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te (4) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S 55. How many nodal plane is/are present in 1s bonding molecular orbital?
(1) zero (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
56. Which one among the following does not have hydrogen bonds ?
(1) boric acid (solid) (2) N2H4 (liquid) (3) H2O2 (liquid) (4) C6H6 (liquid) 57. Which of the following is ionic solid :
(1) XeF6 (s) (2) PBr5(s) (3) CaC2(s) (4) All
58. A mixture of two gases A and B in the mole ratio 2 : 3 is kept in a 2 litre vessel. A second 3 litre vessel has the same two gases in the mole ratio 3 : 5. Both gas mixtures have the same temperature and same pressure. They are allowed to intermix and the final temperature and pressure are the same as the initial values, the final volume being 5 litres. Given that the molar masses are MA and MB, what is the mean molar mass of the final mixture ? (1) 77 MA 123MB 200 (2) 123 MA 77 MB 200 (3) 77 MA 123 MB 250 (4) 123 MA 77 MB 250
59. The ratio of the average molecular kinetic energy of UF6 to that of H2, both at 300 K, is
60. The curve of pressure volume (PV) against pressure (P) of the gas at a particular temperature is as shown, according to the graph which of the following is incorrect (in the low pressure region)
(1) H2 and He show +ve deviation from ideal gas equation.
(2) CO, CH4 and O2 show negative deviation from ideal gas equation.
(3) H2 and He show negative deviation while CO2, CH4 and O2 show positive deviation.
(4) H2 and He are less compressible than that of an ideal gas while CO2, CH4 and O2 more compressible tha that of ideal gas.
Attempt any one of the section C or D
SECTION-C : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. If cos(x – y), cos x and cos(x + y) are in H.P., then the value of
2
y
sec
.
x
cos
, is (1)2
1
(2)2
(3) 1 (4) none of these62. If a, b, c, d are in H.P., which of the following statements is correct
(1) ad < bc (2) ad = bc (3) ad > bc (4) none of these 63. Roots of the equation | x2 – x – 6 | = (x + 2) are
(1) –2, 1, 4 (2) 0, 2, 4 (3) 0, 1, 4 (4) – 2, 2, 4
64. The value of a for which the equation x3 + ax + 1 = 0 and x4 + ax2 + 1 = 0 have a common root is
(1) 2 (2) –2 (3) 1 (4) –1
65. The real values of a for which the quadratic equation 2x2 – (a3 + 8a – 1)x + a2 – 4a = 0 possesses roots of
opposite signs is given by
(1) a > 5 (2) 0 < a < 4 (3) a > 0 (4) a > 7 66. If the complex numbers z1, z2, z3 represent the vertices of an equilateral triangle such that
| z1 | = | z2 | = | z3 |, then z1 + z2 + z3 is
(1) 0 (2) 3 (3)
(4)
267. If
x
cos
i
sin
,y
cos
i
sin
, theny
x
y
x
is (1) icot 2 (2) i tan 2 (3) icot 2 (4) i tan 2 68. If a, b, c are in A.P. then ax + by + c = 0 represents
(1) a single line (2) a family of concurrent lines (3) a family of parallel lines (4) none of these
69. L1 and L2 are two lines. If the reflection of L1 in L2 and the reflection of L2 in L1 coincide , then the angle between the lines is
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°
70. A rhombus is inscribed in the region common to the two circles x² + y² - 4x - 12 = 0 and x² + y² + 4x - 12 = 0 with two of its vertices on the line joining the centres of the circles . The area of the rhombus is
(1) 8 3 sq. units (2) 4 3 sq. units
(3) 16 3 sq. units (4) none of these
71. Rays PA and PB both are tangent to the circle
S
x
2
y
2
4
are drawn from the point P(-4, 0). Thecentre of the largest circle which touches S , PA and PB is
(1) (6,0) (2)(8,0) (3) (4,0) (4) (- 10/3,0)
72. If A B 4
, then (tan A + 1) (tan B + 1) is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3)
3
(4) none of these73. If cos 2B = cos(A C)cos(A C) , then
(1) tan A, tan B, tan C are in A.P. (2) tan A, tan B, tan C are in G.P. (3) tan A, tan B, tan C are in H.P. (4) none of these
74. For real
, value of 2
4
cos
sin
lies in the interval(1) [1, 2] (2) 34, 1 (3) 14, 165 (4) none of these
75. The value(s) of
for which the equation sin4x + cos4 x + sin 2x +
= 0 is valid, lie in the interval:(1) 23, 12 (2) 12, 32 (3) 32, 12 (4) none of these 76. If equation 2 x bx 1 ax c 1
, has roots equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, then the value of
is (1) a b a b (2) a b a b (3) c (4) 1 c77. If , , are the roots of the equation x3 + px2 + qx + r = 0, then 1 1 1
is equal to (1) 2 1 r (2) 3 2 (1 r) r (3) 3 2 1 r r (4) – r
78. If x, y, z are real and unequal then the expression x2 + 4y2 + 9z2 – 6yz – 3zx – 2xy is always
79. The number of real solution of 2 2 1 1 x 3 x 9 x 9 is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
80. If the third term of a G.P. is equal to 4 , the product of its first five terms is equal to :
(1) 26 (2) 210 (3) 28 (4) none of these
SECTION-D : BIOLOGY
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Select the characters, which are not applicable to the family Solanaceae I. Epipetalous and syngenesious anthers
II. Bicarpellary and syncarpous ovary III. Oblique ovary with axile placentation IV. Stamens six, arranged in two whorls V. Bicarpellary syncarpous and inferior ovary
(1) II and III only (2) I, IV, V only (3) II, IV and V only (4) I and III only 62. Ladies finger (bhindi/okra) belongs to
(1) Malvaceae (2) Cruciferae (3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae 63. Binomial of sunhemp is
(1) Crotolaria juncea (2) Arachis hypogea (3) Glycine max (4) Erythrina indica 64. Which of the following is the site of lipid synthesis?
(1) Rough ER (2) Smooth ER (3) Golgi bodies (4) Ribosome 65. Sequence of four phases of cell cycle
(1) G1 S G2 M (2) G1 G2 S M (3) S G1 G2 M (4) M G1 G2 S 66. Which of the following occurs more than one and less than five in a chromosome
(1) Chromatid (2) Centromere (3) Chromomere (4) Telomere 67. Acetyl CoA binds to oxaloacetic acid to form
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Citrate (3) Acetate (4) Isocitrate 68. Which of the following organism is useful in the preparation of Roquefort cheese
(1) Mucor (2) Rhizopus (3) Aspergillus (4) Penicillium
69. Correct sequence of electron acceptor of ATP synthesis
(1) Cyt b, c, a3, a (2) Cyt b, c, a, a3 (3) Cyt a, a3, b, c (4) Cyt c, b, a, a3 70. In which of the following, all listed genera belong to the same class of algae?
(1) Chara, Fucus, Pohysiphonia (2) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas (3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix (4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracillaria
71. Which one of the following options is correct : Kingdom Animalia (Multicellular) Level of organisation Tissue/organ/ organ system Level Cellular Level Symmetry Radial Bilateral Body cavity or coelom Acoelomate Pseudocoelomate Coelomate Phylum (b) (c) (d) (a)
(1) (a)–Porifera, (b)–Coelenterata, (c)–Echinodermata, (d)–Chordata (2) (a)–Porifera, (b)–Arthropoda, (c)–Coelenterata, (d)–Hemichordata (3) (a)–Porifera, (b)–Coelenterata, (c)–Hemichordata, (d)–Annelida (4) (a)–Porifera, (b)–Platyhelminthes, (c)–Aschelminthes, (d)–Annelida 72. Select the correct column match–
Column–I Column–II
(A) Exocoetus (i) Fighting fish (B) Hippocampus (ii) Angel fish (C) Clarias (iii) Magur (D) Betta (iv) Sea horse (E) Pterophyllum (v) Flying fish
(1) (A)–i, (B)–ii, (C)–iii, (D)–iv, (E)–v (2) (A)–ii, (B)–iii, (C)–iv, (D)–v, (E)–i (3) (A)–v, (B)–iv, (C)–iii, (D)–i, (E)–ii (4) (A)–iii, (B)–iv, (C)–v, (D)–i, (E)–ii 73. Some characters are given below :
(a) They are mostly terrestrial animal and their body is covered by dry and cornified skin with scales or scutes.
(b) They are warm-blooded (homoiothermous) animals. (c) Heart is usually three-chambered.
(d) The forelimbs are modified into wings.
(e) Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air cavities (pneumatic). How many characters are related to–
(A)Aves (B) Reptilia
(1) A–3, B–2 (2) A–2, B–2 (3) A–4, B–2 (4) A–2, B–4
74. The largest known invertebrate belongs to the phylum–
(1) Echinodermata (2) Mollusca (3) Arthropoda (4) Annelida 75. Which of the following is not the feature of echinoderms?
(1) Water vascular system (2) Tube Feet
(3) Spiny endoskeleton (4) Bilateral symmetry in adults 76. A metal ion that is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme, carboxypeptidase, is–
(1) Magnesium (2) Copper (3) Zinc (4) Calcium
77. Identify the molecule shown below–
HO
78. Given below is a secondary structure assumed by many proteins. Identify it– C=O –N C C N–N C=0 C C O=C N–N N O=C C C C=O N–N N=N C=O C C O=C N–N N O=C C C C=O N–C=O N–N N C C O=C N=N N O=C
(1) Alpha helix (2) Beta pleated sheet (3) Triple helix (4) Zwitter ion 79. What type of bond formation is shown in the following figure?
OH OH OH OH OH OH OH HO HO HO OH OH OH OH CH OH2 CH OH2 CH OH2 CH OH2 O O O O –D–Glucose –D–Glucose H H H H H H H H H H H H
+
H O2 O Maltose Nonreducing end Reducing end(1) Glycosidic bond (2) Peptide bond (3) Ester bond (4) Disulfide bond 80. Identify the molecule shown below–
OH
OH OH
HOCH2 O
(1) Ribose (2) Deoxyribose (3) Mannose (4) Sucrose
