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Final Exam: June 2016 Number of pages: 18
Course: ASTR 1P01 Number of students: 630
Examination date: 4 June 2016 Time limit: 2 hours Time of Examination: 9:00 – 11:00 Instructor: S. D’Agostino
Answer all questions on the scantron sheet provided.
No aids are permitted except for a non-programmable calculator. Use or pos- session of unauthorized materials will automatically result in the award of a zero grade for this examination.
Return both the exam script and your scantron sheet when you leave the exam room.
Each question is worth 1 mark. Total number of marks: 100.
1. The diameter of Saturn is Earth’s diameter.
(a) slightly less than (b) about twice as large as
(c) about ten times as large as (d) about fifty times as large as
2. The radius of the orbit of Saturn around the Sun is about times as large as the radius of Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
(a) 1.5 (b) 10
(c) 50 (d) 100
3. The mass of the Sun is about times the mass of the Earth.
(a) 30 (b) 300
(c) 3,000 (d) 30,000
(e) 300,000
4. It takes light emitted from the Sun approximately to reach the Earth.
(a) 8 seconds (b) 8 minutes
(c) 8 hours (d) 8 days
5. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately (a) 300,000 km/year.
(b) 300,000 km/h.
(c) 300,000 km/min.
(d) 300,000 km/s.
(e) much faster than any of the other alternatives listed here.
6. One astronomical unit (1 AU) is approximately equal to (a) 150,000 km.
(b) 150,000,000 km.
(c) 150,000,000,000 km.
(d) 150,000,000,000,000 km.
7. It was first recognized that planets are different from stars (a) by ancient astronomers.
(b) once Renaissance astronomers began to observe them using telescopes.
(c) in the 1800s, as telescopes became more accurate.
(d) in the 20th century, as modern technology made telescopes extremely accurate.
8. The Sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west because (a) of the Earth’s orbital motion around the Sun.
(b) of the Earth’s rotational motion on its axis.
(c) of the rotation of the Moon around the Earth.
(d) of the motion of the zodiac constellations around the ecliptic.
9. Since 2006, has been classified as a dwarf planet.
(a) Mars (b) Mercury
(c) Pluto
(d) Shaquille O’Neal
10. The birth of the occurred about 14 billion years ago.
(a) Sun
(b) solar system (c) Milky Way galaxy (d) universe
11. The approximate number of stars in the Milky Way galaxy is (a) 100 thousand.
(b) 100 million.
(c) 100 billion.
(d) 100 trillion.
12. Most of the solar system’s asteroids are located (a) in the Kuiper belt.
(b) in the Oort cloud.
(c) in Orion’s belt.
(d) between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
13. We do not see solar eclipses every time the Moon is new because
(a) the Earth’s rotational axis is tilted relative to its orbit around the Sun.
(b) the Earth’s orbit around the Sun is tilted relative to the Sun’s rotational axis.
(c) the Moon’s orbit around the Earth is tilted relative to the Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
(d) the Moon’s rotation axis is tilted relative to its orbit around the Earth.
14. When the Moon sets at about sunrise, its phase is (a) new.
(b) first quarter.
(c) full.
(d) third quarter.
15. When the Moon sets at about mid-day, its phase is (a) new.
(b) first quarter.
(c) full.
(d) third quarter.
16. When the Moon sets at about sunset, its phase is (a) new.
(b) first quarter.
(c) full.
(d) third quarter.
17. When the Moon sets at about midnight, its phase is (a) new.
(b) first quarter.
(c) full.
(d) third quarter.
18. When the Moon’s phase is waning gibbous, it rises (a) between sunrise and mid-day.
(b) between mid-day and sunset.
(c) between sunset and midnight.
(d) between midnight and sunrise.
19. When the Moon’s phase is waning crescent, it rises (a) between sunrise and mid-day.
(b) between mid-day and sunset.
(c) between sunset and midnight.
(d) between midnight and sunrise.
20. When the Moon’s phase is waxing crescent, it sets (a) between sunrise and mid-day.
(b) between mid-day and sunset.
(c) between sunset and midnight.
(d) between midnight and sunrise.
21. When the Moon’s phase is waxing gibbous, it sets (a) between sunrise and mid-day.
(b) between mid-day and sunset.
(c) between sunset and midnight.
(d) between midnight and sunrise.
22. “Eclipse seasons” (that is, times during which it is possible for lunar or solar eclipses to occur) are separated by about
(a) 2 months.
(b) 6 months.
(c) 18 months.
(d) 18 years.
23. On the winter solstice in the northern hemisphere, the Sun rises (a) directly east.
(b) north of east.
(c) south of east.
(d) [It depends on your exact location in the northern hemisphere.]
24. On the summer solstice in the northern hemisphere, the Sun rises (a) directly east.
(b) north of east.
(c) south of east.
(d) [It depends on your exact location in the northern hemisphere.]
25. On an equinox in the northern hemisphere, the Sun rises (a) directly east.
(b) north of east.
(c) south of east.
(d) [It depends on your exact location in the northern hemisphere.]
26. In the northern hemisphere, in the two months from July to August, the sun rises (a) a little further north each day.
(b) a little further south each day.
(c) a little further east each day.
(d) a little further west each day.
27. In the northern hemisphere, in the two months from October to November, the sun rises
(a) a little further north each day.
(b) a little further south each day.
(c) a little further east each day.
(d) a little further west each day.
28. Compelling arguments that the Earth is spherical were presented by the ancient Greek thinker
(a) Ariadne.
(b) Aristophanes.
(c) Aristotle.
(d) Atomicantus.
29. The first reasonably accurate calculation of the size of the Earth was performed by (a) Aristarchus.
(b) Aristotle.
(c) Eratosthenes.
(d) Ptolemy.
30. The first reasonably accurate calculation of the relative sizes of the Earth, Moon, and Sun was performed by
(a) Aristarchus.
(b) Aristotle.
(c) Eratosthenes.
(d) Ptolemy.
31. The strongest ancient argument in favour of an Earth-centred solar system was that (a) the Earth is much too massive to move.
(b) it would be much more windy on Earth if it moved.
(c) the Sun was the ruler of the Earth in ancient mythology.
(d) stellar parallax was not observed.
32. The orbits of the planets around the Sun
(a) are in various parts of the sky, somewhat like bees buzzing around a beehive.
(b) are always in planes, but the planes are oriented randomly in the sky.
(c) lie approximately close to a single plane in some seasons, but far from the ecliptic in others.
(d) lie close to a single plane.
33. The reason for the apparent retrograde motions of the planets is that
(a) the Earth moves at a different speed and in a different orbit compared to other planets.
(b) sometimes the gears in the celestial spheres get “stuck,” and it takes a few weeks for them to move normally again.
(c) some planets have nostalgia for the 1970s and therefore occasionally “go retro.”
(d) some planets sometimes orbit the Sun in the sense opposite to Earth’s orbital sense.
34. The Earth-centred model of the solar system was developed to its highest degree by (a) Aristarchus.
(b) Aristotle.
(c) Eratosthenes.
(d) Ptolemy.
35. The model of the solar system, which was originally championed by Aristarchus, was revived in the Renaissance by Copernicus.
(a) atomic (b) Big Bang
(c) Earth-centred (d) Sun-centred
36. The greatest naked-eye astronomer in the history of astronomy is widely considered to be
(a) Brahe.
(b) Kepler.
(c) Galileo.
(d) Newton.
(e) [None of the above.]
37. After many years of number-crunching, determined that the orbits of the planets were ellipses, and he also determined relationships satisfied by various proper- ties of the planetary orbits.
(a) Nicolaus Copernicus (b) Galileo Galilei
(c) Johannes Kepler (d) Ada Lovelace
(e) Isaac Newton
38. Convincing evidence that the Sun is the centre of the solar system was obtained thanks to the careful observations and arguments of
(a) Aristarchus.
(b) Simone de Beauvoir.
(c) Albert Camus.
(d) Galileo Galilei.
(e) Isaac Newton.
39. Scientific theories that are very similar are typically discriminated by (a) which one can be expressed in more stylistically attractive prose.
(b) which one can be expressed in fewer words.
(c) which one can be expressed using fewer equations.
(d) which one is logically simpler.
40. Although astrology was once a respectable pursuit, it is not given any scientific respect nowadays because
(a) it can’t be quantized.
(b) it omits the thirteenth constellation of the zodiac, Ophiuchus.
(c) of its lack of predictive power.
(d) scientists are too close-minded.
41. The Earth orbits the Sun because of the
(a) centrifugal force that the Sun exerts on the Earth.
(b) hydrostatic force that the Sun exerts on the Earth.
(c) gravitational force that the Sun exerts on the Earth.
(d) electromagnetic force that the Sun exerts on the Earth.
42. Newton’s second law of motion states that the acceleration of an object is equal to (a) the net force acting on it divided by its velocity.
(b) its velocity divided by the net force acting on it.
(c) the net force acting on it divided by its mass.
(d) its mass divided by the net force acting on it.
43. Newton’s second law of motion states that the direction of an object’s is the same as the direction of the .
(a) acceleration, velocity
(b) acceleration, net force exerted on the object (c) acceleration, speed
(d) velocity, net acceleration exerted on the object
44. If the net force acting on a moving object is not zero, then (a) the speed of the object will certainly change.
(b) the direction of the object’s motion will certainly change.
(c) either the speed of the object or its direction of motion, or both, will change.
(d) [There is not enough information given to give a definitive answer.]
45. Newton’s third law states that
(a) if you’re running through the 6 with your woes, and don’t know yourself, you’ll be crossed over by CoJo.
(b) when two objects interact, the more massive one exerts a greater force on the less massive one, in the same ratio as the masses.
(c) when two objects interact, each exerts a force on the other, and the two forces have the same magnitude and opposite directions.
(d) when two objects interact, the forces each exerts on the other are directly pro- portional to the masses of the objects and the square of the distance separating the objects.
46. If the mass of the Earth were to suddenly double, the mass of the Moon were to sud- denly triple, while the distance between them remained the same, then the gravitational force on each of them exerted by the other would
(a) increase by a factor of 2.
(b) increase by a factor of 4.
(c) increase by a factor of 6.
(d) increase by a factor of 9.
(e) [There would be no change in the gravitational force.]
47. If the masses of the Earth and the Moon were both to suddenly double, and the distance between them increased by a factor of 4, then the gravitational force on each of them exerted by the other would
(a) increase by a factor of 2.
(b) decrease by a factor of 2.
(c) increase by a factor of 4.
(d) decrease by a factor of 4.
(e) [There would be no change in the gravitational force.]
48. If two beams of visible light have different colours, they also have different (a) masses.
(b) weights.
(c) speeds.
(d) wavelengths.
49. An example of an electromagnetic wave is (a) visible light.
(b) radio waves.
(c) X-rays.
(d) [All of the above].
(e) [None of the above.]
50. Wave-particle duality means that
(a) promoters will soon be staging a wave-particle cage-match and charging $89.95 on pay-per-view.
(b) your dual-exhaust jalopy rumbles like a wave but zooms like a particle.
(c) light sometimes behaves like a wave and sometimes behaves like a particle.
(d) some things in the universe behave like waves and other things behave like parti- cles.
51. The brightness (also known as intensity) of light is a measure of (a) its intelligence.
(b) its energy.
(c) its force.
(d) its wavelength.
52. Photon A has a shorter wavelength than photon B, which means that the energy of photon A is the energy of photon B.
(a) greater than (b) less than
(c) [The energy of Photon A might be greater than or less than Photon B.]
(d) [The energy of a photon is not related to its wavelength.]
53. The wavelength of red light is about (a) 700 centimetres.
(b) 700 kilometres.
(c) 700 millimetres.
(d) 700 nanometres.
54. Infrared radiation is invisible, but William Herschel discovered it in 1800 when he projected a spectrum of sunlight onto a table top and placed a next to the red end of the visible spectrum.
(a) thermometer (b) spectrohelioscope
(c) spectroscope (d) spectrometer
55. Ultraviolet light is invisible, but it was discovered , while he was experi- menting with light-sensitive chemicals. He found that silver chloride blackened most strongly in the region just beyond the violet end of the spectrum
(a) in 1683 by Manfred Neuer (b) in 1801 by Jacob Ritter
(c) in 1857 by Mario Balotelli
(d) in 1912 by Patrick Maynard Stuart Blackett
56. As the temperature of a glowing object decreases, the object radiates electromagnetic waves less strongly at all wavelengths, and the peak wavelength
(a) increases.
(b) decreases.
57. When an electron “jumps” from a higher energy level to a lower one in an atom, (a) the atom moves about with greater speed.
(b) the atom moves about with greater temperature.
(c) a photon of electromagnetic radiation is emitted.
(d) [It depends on whether it’s a “high jump” or a “long jump.”]
58. Analyzing a star’s discrete emission spectrum gives us direct information about its (a) chemical composition.
(b) diameter.
(c) surface temperature.
(d) core pressure.
(e) core density.
59. Analyzing a star’s continuous spectrum gives us direct information about the star’s (a) chemical composition.
(b) diameter.
(c) surface temperature.
(d) core pressure.
(e) core density.
60. Analyzing a star’s discrete absorption spectrum gives us direct information about the star’s
(a) chemical composition.
(b) diameter.
(c) surface temperature.
(d) core pressure.
(e) core density.
61. If a star is moving towards us, then its spectral lines are shifted towards (a) longer wavelengths.
(b) shorter wavelengths.
(c) brighter colours.
(d) dimmer colours.
62. The largest optical refracting telescope has an objective lens with a diameter of (a) 10 cm.
(b) 100 cm.
(c) 1,000 cm.
(d) 10,000 cm.
63. A large telescope mirror is built out of a block of glass that is shaped, polished, and then coated with a thin layer of
(a) vaseline, for soft-focus magazine photographs.
(b) aluminum or other highly reflective material.
(c) teflon or other highly reflective material.
(d) gold or other highly reflective material.
64. Increasing the diameter of the objective lens of an optical telescope also (a) increases its light gathering power only.
(b) increases its resolving power only.
(c) increases its light gathering power and resolving power.
(d) [None of the above.]
65. Radio telescopes use to detect radio waves emitted by various astronomical objects.
(a) metallic antennas (b) glass refractors
(c) glass reflectors (d) fibre-optic cables
66. Optical telescopes use to record photographs, because they are more sensitive to light than photographic plates.
(a) CADs (charge-attenuating devices) (b) CBDs (charge-boosting devices)
(c) CCDs (charge-coupled devices) (d) CDDs (charge-detecting devices)
67. A/An is used so that two widely-spaced mirrors act like one giant telescope with increased resolving power.
(a) diffractometer (b) interferometer
(c) parametric down-converter (d) spectrometer
68. Observatories are built in space
(a) because it’s a good excuse for astronomers to vacation at interplanetary hot spots.
(b) because they are much less expensive than ground-based observatories.
(c) because they can thereby last forever.
(d) to avoid atmospheric blurring.
69. One way to increase the light-gathering power of a reflecting telescope is to (a) replace its mirror with one that has larger diameter.
(b) make its tube longer.
(c) increase the magnification of its eyepiece.
(d) change the focus from Cassegrain or prime to Newtonian.
70. One can calculate the distance to a nearby star based on its measured parallax. Stars with smaller parallaxes are
(a) farther away from us.
(b) nearer to us.
(c) the same distance to us as other stars.
(d) [There is no relation between stellar parallax and distance.]
71. Stars are composed mainly of
(a) a little bit of earth and wind, with lots of fire.
(b) very hot magma mixed with molten metals, with traces of other elements.
(c) hydronium and helium, with traces of other elements.
(d) hydrogen and helium, with traces of other elements.
72. The diameter of a typical star is about times the Earth’s diameter.
(a) 100 (b) 10,000
(c) 1,000,000 (d) 100,000,000
73. The colour of a star (more accurately, the wavelength at which a star radiates most strongly) is directly related to the star’s through Wien’s law.
(a) radius (b) mass
(c) temperature (d) density
74. The luminosity of a star is
(a) a measure of the star’s colour.
(b) the total number of photons the star radiates per second.
(c) the total amount of energy the star radiates per second.
(d) the total amount of the star’s radiating surface area.
75. It follows from the Stefan-Boltzmann law that
(a) if you don’t get up on Stephen Curry he’ll bury a three-pointer.
(b) if two stars have the same luminosity, the hotter one has greater size.
(c) if two stars have the same size, the hotter one has greater luminosity.
(d) if two stars have the same density, the larger one has greater luminosity.
76. A red giant star is relatively (a) hot and luminous.
(b) cool and luminous.
(c) hot and not very luminous.
(d) cool and not very luminous.
77. A white dwarf star is relatively (a) hot and luminous.
(b) cool and luminous.
(c) hot and not very luminous.
(d) cool and not very luminous.
78. Cooler, less luminous main sequence stars have (a) relatively high masses.
(b) relatively low masses.
(c) similar masses to hotter main-sequence stars.
(d) masses that vary widely.
79. Stars represented by positions in the upper-right part of the H-R diagram (a) are mainly white dwarfs.
(b) are bright and hot.
(c) are dim and cool.
(d) are mainly red giants.
(e) [None of the above.]
80. Stars represented by positions in the lower-left part of the H-R diagram (a) are mainly white dwarfs.
(b) are bright and hot.
(c) are dim and cool.
(d) are mainly red giants.
(e) [None of the above.]
81. Stars represented by positions in the upper-left part of the H-R diagram (a) are mainly white dwarfs.
(b) are bright and hot.
(c) are dim and cool.
(d) are mainly red giants.
(e) [None of the above.]
82. Stars represented by positions in the lower-right part of the H-R diagram (a) are mainly white dwarfs.
(b) are bright and hot.
(c) are dim and cool.
(d) are mainly red giants.
(e) [None of the above.]
83. The Sun is found
(a) along the main sequence of the H-R diagram.
(b) in the upper-left part of the H-R diagram.
(c) in the upper-right part of the H-R diagram.
(d) in the lower-left part of the H-R diagram.
(e) in the lower-right part of the H-R diagram.
84. Using Eddington’s mass-luminosity relation, measuring a star’s allows us to determine the stars’s .
(a) mass, luminosity (b) luminosity, mass
(c) radius, luminosity and mass (d) temperature, luminosity and mass
85. Analyzing light curves from eclipsing binary stars (specifically, measuring various time intervals) allows us to measure the stars’
(a) masses.
(b) luminosities.
(c) diameters.
(d) temperatures.
86. The temperature of the Sun at its centre is the temperature at its surface.
(a) much greater than (b) much less than
(c) about the same as
(d) [The temperature at the centre is unknown, because we can’t access the Sun’s centre.]
87. The forces that keep most of the Sun’s gas from escaping are (a) electrostatic forces between ions in its interior.
(b) due to gas pressure.
(c) gravitational.
(d) [Nothing stops the Sun’s gas from escaping.]
88. As you move from the outer layers of the Sun towards the centre of the Sun, its density (a) remains approximately constant.
(b) decreases.
(c) increases.
89. Most stars are born with approximately the following composition.
(a) About 50% hydrogen, about 50% helium, and less than 2% heavier elements.
(b) About 60% hydrogen, about 40% helium, and less than 2% heavier elements.
(c) About 75% hydrogen, about 25% helium, and less than 2% heavier elements.
(d) About 90% hydrogen, about 10% helium, and less than 2% heavier elements.
90. Since most stars are born with approximately the same composition, what character- istic most determines how their evolution will differ?
(a) The quality of the parenting that they received.
(b) The time at which they were formed.
(c) Their initial spectrum.
(d) Their initial mass.
(e) The location where they were formed.
91. Most of the nuclear fusion that fuels the Sun’s radiation takes place in the Sun’s (a) hot new night club.
(b) radiative zone.
(c) conductive zone.
(d) core.
92. Near the Sun’s core, the net outward energy flow occurs primarily by (a) cavitation.
(b) conduction.
(c) convection.
(d) radiation.
93. Near the Sun’s surface, the net outward energy flow occurs primarily by (a) cavitation.
(b) conduction.
(c) convection.
(d) radiation.
94. The Sun is supported against its own crushing weight by (a) its rapid rotation.
(b) magnetic forces.
(c) gravitational forces.
(d) gas pressure.
(e) electrostatic forces.
95. Sunspots increase and decrease in number in a cycle that has peaks approximately every
(a) 11 years.
(b) 22 years.
(c) 33 years.
(d) 44 years.
96. The Sun’s upper atmosphere is extremely hot because (a) it absorbs neutrinos flowing from the Sun’s core.
(b) of nuclear fusion in the upper atmosphere.
(c) of nuclear fission in the upper atmosphere.
(d) [This is currently a mystery.]
97. During the day, about a trillion solar neutrinos pass through your body. At night the number is
(a) zero.
(b) much less, but not zero.
(c) about half as much.
(d) about the same.
(e) much more.
98. The Sun’s equator rotates (a) faster than near the poles.
(b) at the same rate as near the poles.
(c) slower than near the poles.
99. The internal balance of forces in the Sun is known as (a) chillin’.
(b) hydrostatic balance.
(c) magnetohydrostatic balance.
(d) electromagnetostatic balance.
100. The solar wind
(a) occurs when the Sun has overeaten, especially spicy food.
(b) is usually followed by solar rain.
(c) occurs in explosive eruptions such as prominences and solar flares.
(d) is a steady, slight, and tenuous flow of mainly hydrogen and helium.
