• No results found

MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY (MCQ)

N/A
N/A
Protected

Academic year: 2021

Share "MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY (MCQ)"

Copied!
47
0
0

Loading.... (view fulltext now)

Full text

(1)

P a g e | 1 YouTube : https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCDoWuDKv6rVMZazIko9WARA Instagram : https://instagram.com/mahto_amit_?igshid=kbvt6bv8kkws Website : https://learn.geekalign.com/mcq/ Modules Questions 1 75 2 54 3 36 4 45 5 14 6 15 Total 239 MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY (MCQ) MODULE NO 1

1. In terms of which of the following properties, metals are better than ceramics? a) Hardness

b) Ductility c) Toughness d) Yield Strength

2. Steels mainly contain iron and carbon. Under which of the following categories do they belong?

a) Metallic Solid b) Polymer

c) Composites d) Ceramics

3. GFRP is an important composite. It stands for a) Gelatin Fibre Reinforced Polymer

b) Graphite Fibre Reinforced Polymer c) Germanium Fibre Reinforced Polymer d) Glass Fibre Reinforced Polymer

(2)

P a g e | 2

4. Ceramics make excellent refractory materials. A material is said to be refractory if it: a) resists the flow of electric current

b) has high refractive index

c) retains its strength at high temperatures d) all of the mentioned

5. Which of the following cannot be used as bio-materials? a) Metals

b) Ceramics c) Polymers

d) None of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is true for polymers? a) They have very high molecular mass

b) They do not have a linear stress-strain curve c) They have high strength to mass ratio

d) All of the mentioned

7. The tendency of a deformed solid to regain its actual proportions instantly upon unloading known as ______________

a) Perfectly elastic b) Delayed elasticity c) Inelastic effect d) Plasticity

8. The permanent mode of deformation of a material known as _____________ a) Elasticity

b) Plasticity

c) Slip deformation d) Twinning deformation

9. The ability of materials to develop a characteristic behavior under repeated loading known as ___________

a) Toughness b) Resilience c) Hardness d) Fatigue

(3)

P a g e | 3

10. Which of the following factors affect the mechanical properties of a material under applied loads?

a) Content of alloys b) Grain size

c) Imperfection and defects d) Shape of material

11.The ability of a material to be formed by hammering or rolling is known as _________ a) Malleability

b) Ductility c) Harness d) Brittleness

12. Deformation that occurs due to stress over a period of time is known as ____________

a) Wear resistance b) Fatigue

c) Creep d) Fracture

13. The melting point of Iron (Fe) is _________ a) 660oC

b) 1084oC

c) 419oC

d) 1538oC

14. The temperature at which plastics begin to become softer and defer under a load is known as _________

a) Softening point b) Melting point c) Eutectic point

d) Heat distortion point

15. The ability of a metal which helps it to form a smooth cast is known as ______ a) Machinability

b) Formability c) Solderability d) Castability

(4)

P a g e | 4

16.Which property helps a material to absorb lubricants? a) Density

b) Porosity c) Soldering d) Absorptivity

17.Which of the following is a property of ceramics? a) Low strength

b) Low melting point c) Resistant to corrosion d) Bad insulation

18. Porcelain is a type of ______ ceramic. a) whiteware

b) stone c) abrasive d) cement

19. Diamond and corundum are examples of _____ ceramics. a) glass

b) stone c) refractories d) abrasives

20.Which class of engineering ceramics generally includes lubricant materials? a) Sulphides

b) Carbides c) Metalloids d) Intermetallics

21. Composites can be classified based on ___________ a) matrix type

b) reinforcement constituent

c) matrix type & Reinforcement constituent

d) neither on matrix type nor on reinforcement constituent type 22. Which of the following is not a laminar composite?

(5)

P a g e | 5

b) Cladding c) Paints d) Wood

23.Which of the following have a greater impact on longitudinal strength of reinforced composites?

a) Fiber orientation b) Fiber strength c) Fiber length d) Fiber diameter

24.Frenkel defect belongs to which of the following classes? a) Point defect

b) Linear dislocation c) Interfacial defect d) Bulk defect

25.he ratio of the number of vacancies to a total number of lattice points for a metal near melting temperature is of the order of 10-4. For lower temperatures, the ratio:

a) increases b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) may increase or decrease depending on the metal

26.Foreign species is present in which of the following defects? a) Interstitial

b) Vacancy c) Substitution

d) All of the mentioned

27.Burger vectors are relevant to which of the following crystalline defects? a) Point defects

b) Line defects c) Interfacial defects d) Bulk defects

28.Ferromagnetic material shows strong para-magnetic behaviour due to the formation of domains. These domains belong to:

(6)

P a g e | 6

a) Point defects b) Linear defects c) Interfacial defects d) Bulk defects

29. Which of the following point defects is non-stoichiometric in nature? a) Schottky defect

b) Metal excess defect c) Interstitial defect d) Impurity defect

30.Which type of defect are point defects? a) One dimensional defect

b) Zero dimensional defect c) Two dimensional defect d) Three dimensional defect

31. Which is not a name given to vacancy in some ionic solid? a) H-center

b) F-center c) Color center

d) Luminescence center

32. Schottky and Frenkel defects are ___________ a) Interstitial and vacancy defects respectively b) Vacancy and interstitial defect respectively c) Both interstitial defects

d) Both vacancy defects

33. Which of the following compound shows both Schottky and frenkel defect? a) Silver(I) iodide

b) Silver(I) bromide c) Magnesium sulphide d) Titanium oxide

(7)

P a g e | 7

34. The presence of interstitial carbon atom increases the hardness of which of the following:

a) Martensite b) Austenite c) Cementite d) Pearlite

35. How are point defects classified based on the source of the atom? a) Statistical and structural

b) Random and ordered c) Intrinsic and extrinsic d) Interior and exterior

36. Which of the following technique is not used to measure the concentration of vacancy to determine the activation energy for its formation?

a) Positron annihilation technique b) Thermal expansion measurements c) Measuring resistivity after quenching d) Thermal imaging

37.Which of the following phenomenon creates point defect in ceramics? a) Thermal excitation

b) Precipitation c) Densification

d) Electrical conductivity

38.In case of point defect in polymers probability of which part of the polymer is likely to be defected more compared to other?

a) Center of polymer chain b) Chain ends

c) Main chain units d) Starting part of chain

39. In which type of dislocation an extra plane is inserted inside the crystal? a) Edge dislocation

b) Screw dislocation c) Jog dislocation d) Mixed dislocation

(8)

P a g e | 8

40. What is the difference between the angle of Burgers vector and dislocation line in edge dislocation and screw dislocation?

a) -90 degrees b) 0 degrees c) 45 degrees d) 90 degrees

41.n which type of dislocation planes are displaced relative to each other through shear? a) Edge dislocation

b) Screw dislocation c) Jog dislocation d) Mixed dislocation

42. Which of the following is fields are present for screw dislocation? a) Tensile

b) Compressive c) Shear stress d) Strain

43. Which of the following dislocation can glide but not climb? a) Screw dislocation

b) Edge dislocation c) Jog dislocation d) Mixed dislocation

44. What can be the unit of dislocation density? a) mm-2

b) mm-3

c) mm2

d) mm

45. Which of the following is not a lattice strain due to dislocation? a) Tensile lattice strain

b) Compressive lattice strain c) Shear lattice strain

(9)

P a g e | 9

46.. For which of the following dislocation the strain is pure shear? a) Screw dislocation

b) Jog dislocation c) Mixed dislocation d) Edge dislocation

47. Which of the following will decrease lattice strain? a) Line defects

b) Point defects c) Dislocation

d) Heating the material

48. Two edge dislocation on same slip plane and the same sign will ________ a) Exert attractive force

b) Exert no force

c) Exert repulsive force d) Exert shearing force

49. If the material recovers the original dimensions, when an external load is removed, this deformation is known as ______ deformation.

a) plastic b) permanent c) elastic d) irreversible

50. _____ is an anisotropic property of a crystal. a) Elastic modulus

b) Density

c) Poisson’s ratio d) Damping

51.The restoring force depends on _____ a) Interatomic bond strength

b) Melting point c) Crystallization

d) Thermal conductivity

52. What is the reason for elastic deformation? a) Dislocations intersection

(10)

P a g e | 10

b) Twinning c) Slip

d) Displacement of atoms to a fraction interatomic distance 53. Elastic modulus can’t be changed by ______

a) alloying b) cold working c) heat treatment

d) by increasing section thickness

54.. What is atomic density on prismatic plane? a) 1/a2

b) 2/ac c) 2/a2 d) 2/√3a2

55.. What is atomic density on {1 1 1} plane in fcc? a) 4/√3a2

b) √2/a2

c) 2/a2

d) 1/a2

56.What is interplaner spacing for {1 1 1} planes in BCC? a) a/2√3

b) a/√2 c) a/2 d) a√3/2

57.What is interplaner spacing for {1 1 0} planes in fcc? a) a/√3

b) a/2√2 c) a/2 d) a/√2

58. {1 1 1} are called _____ planes. a) Basal

b) Prismatic c) Octahedral d) Cube

(11)

P a g e | 11

59. Value of CRSS for HCP crystal _____ with increasing temperature. a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Remains constant

d) First decreases then remain unaffected

60. Value of CRSS ____ with increasing impurity contents in a metal crystal. a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Remains constant

d) May increase or decrease

61. The slope of stress-strain curve in plastic range is _____ a) Rate of strain hardening

b) Bauschinger effect c) True strain

d) Resolved shear stress

62. How many slip system are there in FCC lattice? a) 12

b) 6 c) 10 d) 18

63.Slip planes do not occur where ______ a) Atom density is high

b) Atom density is low c) Atoms are closely placed

d) direction of slip plane is the same as the translation vector which is the shortest 64.Which law is related to slip plane and slip direction?

a) Bragg’s law b) Fick’s law c) Schmid’s law

d) Such a law doesn’t exist

65.How many slip systems are there in BCC lattice? a) 36

(12)

P a g e | 12

b) 48 c) 24 d) 18

66.How many slip systems are there in hexagonal closed packed crystal? a) 3

b) 6 c) 9 d) 18

67. Which of the following process does not produce the vacancy in the lattice? a) Movement jog by dislocation intersection

b) Quenching near melting point temperature c) Irradiation of metal with high energy particles d) Grain growth

68. In which crystal the strain hardening will be least? a) BCC

b) FCC c) BCT d) HCP

69. Which of the following is the region of highest dislocation density? a) Grain interior

b) Grain boundary c) Cell interior d) Cell wall

70.Rate of strain hardening is equal to ___________ a) the slope of the flow curve

b) the intercept of flow curve on the x-axis at the yield point c) the intercept of flow curve in y-axis at the yield point d) slope at maximum tensile stress

71.The driving force for recrystallization is _________ a) the stored energy of cold working

(13)

P a g e | 13

c) the decrease in the point defect energy d) the thermal energy of heating

72.The driving force for grain growth is _________ a) the stored energy of cold working

b) the decrease in the grain area energy c) the decrease in the point defect energy d) the thermal energy of heating

73.The Smaller the degree of deformation, the ____________ the required temperature to cause recrystallization.

a) higher b) lower c) unaffected d) cannot comment

74.If an annealing process is carried completing in 50 min at temperature T and the

annealing time is reduced to 25 min, the temperature should be increased by ________ a) 2T

b) 3T

c) T+10° Degree d) T+100° Degrees

75.Abnormal grain growth is defined as ________________ a) growth of grain much larger than other nearby grain b) growth of all grain to a much larger extent

c) growth in an irregular shape d) growth in a regular shape

(14)

P a g e | 14

MODULE NO 2

1. Which of the following is not a factor affecting fracture? a) Stress concentration

b) Temperature c) Pressure

d) Speed of loading

2. Is the speed of loading is increased then: a) Chances of fracture increases

b) Chances of fracture decreases

c) Chances of fracture remain the same d) Elasticity of the body increases

3. What is the relation between fracture toughness and thickness? a) Fracture toughness decreases with increase in thickness b) Fracture toughness increases with increase in thickness c) Fracture toughness does not depend on the thickness

d) Fracture toughness increase linearly with an increase in thickness

4. Which of the following elements reduce fracture toughness in steel? a) Phosphorous

b) Manganese c) Iron

d) Aluminium

5. The Ionic crystal generally fracture in __________ a) ductile manner

b) brittle manner c) creep manner d) fatigue manner

6. The tendency of brittle fracture increase on ___________ a) decreasing temperature and strain rate

(15)

P a g e | 15

c) decreasing temperature and increasing strain rate d) increasing temperature and decreasing strain rate

7. . The brittle fracture is not observed in ___________ a) BCC

b) FCC c) HCP d) DC

8. The following diagram shows the structure of material after fracture into two parts. Which of the following represent completely ductile material?

a)

b)

c)

d)

9. The appearance of surface of brittle fracture will be ___________ a) grey and fibrous

b) bright and granular c) dull and granular d) riverlike pattern

10. The appearance of surface of ductile fracture will be ___________ a) grey and fibrous

b) bright and granular c) dull and granular d) riverlike pattern

11.The brittle fracture of single crystal is related with __________________ on the cleavage plane.

(16)

P a g e | 16

a) critical resolved shear stress b) critical resolved normal stress c) uniaxial tensile stress

d) uniaxial shear stress

12. For the given component, the critical resolved normal stress will be equal to

_________ given that the load applied is equal to P and the normal and shear angle with loading directions are θ and λ.

a) P/A

b) P*cosθ

c) (P/A)*cosλ*cosθ d) (P/A)*cosθ2

13. The main cause of presence of dimple in ductile fracture surface is ___________ a) slip bands

b) impurity atoms c) micro voids d) corrosion

14. In which way, the notch decreases the tendency of brittle failure? a) By producing high local stresses

b) By introducing triaxial tensile state of stress

c) By providing low local strain hardening and cracking d) By creating a local magnification to the strain rate

15. The fracture of material occurs when the flow curve _______________ a) is under the fracture curve

b) intersects the fracture curve c) is parallel to fracture curve d) is perpendicular to fracture curve

(17)

P a g e | 17

16. The Hydrostatic stress __________________ the dislocation pileup in the material. a) increases

b) decreases

c) does not increase

d) sometimes increases and then decreases

17. Failure of metals under fluctuating stress is known as __________ failure. a) Creep

b) Fatigue c) Dynamic d) Tensile

18.Fatigue failures occur on stresses _________ a) Above tensile strength

b) Above fracture strength c) Below elastic limit d) Below tensile strength

19.What is a type of fatigue failure? a) Rupture

b) Brittle fracture c) Ductile fracture d) De-cohesive

20.What initiates the crack in fatigue? a) Cyclic stress

b) Tensile stress c) Plastic strain d) Compressive stress

21. In what terms, fatigue life is measured? a) Time of failures

b) Number of cycles of failure c) Stress of failure

d) Appearance of fracture

22. Fatigue curves are popularly known as __________ curves. a) S

(18)

P a g e | 18

c) N d) S-N

23.Word “endurance limit” is used for _____________

a) Plastics

b) Ferrous materials c) Nonferrous materials d) Alloys

24. Which ferrous material doesn’t show fatigue limit? a) Cast iron

b) Wrought iron

c) Austenitic stainless steel d) Low carbon steel

25.What is the reason for fatigue failure? a) Movement of Dislocations

b) Submicroscopic cracks c) Dynamic recovery

d) Vacancy coalescence

26.What cycles range is chosen for endurance limit? a) 102 – 103

b) 105 – 106

c) 107 – 108

d) 1011 – 1012

27. Which of the following is not a reason for crack initiation? a) Inclusions

b) Gas pores c) Local soft spots d) Vacancy

28. Crack mostly starts at _________ a) Surface

b) Inclusion c) Pore d) Soft spots

(19)

P a g e | 19

29. Orowan’s theory is related to _________ a) Grain boundaries

b) Weak crystal c) Slip band d) Gas pores

30.Wood’s theory is described by _________

a) Microscopic voids

b) Microscopic slip bands c) Weak crystal

d) Grain boundaries

31. Slip band are notch root of _________ dimensions. a) Micro

b) Macro c) Nano d) Atomic

32.Which theory defines fatigue failure using microscopic slip bands? a) Orowan’s theory

b) Wood’s theory c) Cottrell’s theory d) Dislocation theory

33.. What term is used for initial crack formation during fatigue? a) Cracking

b) Stage I fatigue c) Stage II fatigue d) Micro cracking

34. Material with a high surface to volume ratio have _________ fatigue life. a) Very low fatigue life

b) Very high fatigue life c) Lower fatigue life d) Improved fatigue life

35. Which of the following material fails by both hysteric heating and crack propagation? a) Nylon

(20)

P a g e | 20

c) Propylene d) PMMA

36. Fatigue strength of iron and steel _________ with an increase in temperature. a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Remains constant

d) First increases and then decreases

37.What temperature gives maximum fatigue strength of steels? a) Below 100˚C

b) 100-200˚C

c) 200-400˚C

d) 500-600˚C

38.Find the mean stress in the given stress cycle?

a) 30 MPa b) 50 MPa

c) 60 MPa

d) 10 MPa

Solution : The mean stress is given as (σmax+σmin)/2

σmax=50 MPa σmin=10 MPa (50+10)/2=30 MPa]

39. Find the range of stress in the given stress cycle?

a) 30 MPa b) 50 MPa

(21)

P a g e | 21

c) 40 MPa d) 10 MPa

Solution : The range of stress is equal to: (σmax-σmin)

=50-10 = 40 MPa.]

40.Stress rupture curves show the variation in stress as a function of ___________ a) Temperature

b) Time c) Cycles d) Notch depth

41.The first stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep. a) Transient

b) Viscous c) Flow d) Tertiary

42. second stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep. a) Primary

b) Secondary c) Transient d) Viscous

43.The most common creep rate corresponds to which the creep strength is specified is _________

a) 1% in 100 hrs b) 1% in 1000 hrs c) 1% in 10,000 hrs d) 1% in 100,000 hrs

44.Transient creep is also known as _________ flow. a) k

b) β c) ε d) t

45. Viscous creep is represented by _________ constant in Andrade empirical equation. a) β

(22)

P a g e | 22

c) ε d) t

46. ___________ dominates at all temperatures but above the normalized stress of 10-2. a) Coble creep

b) Nabarro-Herring creep c) Dislocation creep d) Dislocation glide

47. ____________ favors the creep resistance of the metal. a) Lower SFE

b) High temperature c) High stress

d) Pre-strain

48.. Which steel is preferred in creep conditions? a) Normalized

b) Overaged c) Annealed d) Quenched

49.In ferrite the self-diffusion coefficient _________ with increasing carbon content. a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Remains constant

d) First increases, then decrease

50. Which method improves creep resistance but not strength? a) Solution strengthening

b) Alloying

c) Grain coarsening d) Precipitation hardening

51.What is the most important method of improving creep strength? a) Solid solution strengthening

b) Precipitation hardening c) Dispersion hardening d) Quenching

(23)

P a g e | 23

52._________ are difficult to weld. a) Austenitic steels

b) Ferritic steels c) Aluminum d) Cast iron

53.Which of the following is not a superalloy category? a) Iron-base

b) Nickel-base c) Copper-base d) Cobalt-base

54.What is the advantage of ferritic steels? a) Weldable

b) Oxidation resistant c) Sub-zero temperature d) Ductility

(24)

P a g e | 24

MODULE NO 3

1. Which of the following is/are the components of a brass alloy? a) Brass, Copper, Zinc

b) Copper only c) Zinc only

d) Both Copper and Zinc

2. At certain temperature the maximum concentration of solute atoms that dissolve in solvent to form solid solution, this condition is called __________

a) Solubility

b) Formation of phase c) Solubility limit

d) Formation of super saturated solution

3. . What is a phase?

a) The substance which is physically distinct

b) The substance which is homogenous chemically

c) The substance which is both physically distinct and chemically homogenous d) The substance which is both physically distinct and chemically heterogeneous

4. What is the line that defines the solubility limit of A in B and B in A from the figure?

a) Solidus line b) Liquidus line c) Solvus line

(25)

P a g e | 25

5. What is the point at which three phases (L+α+β) coexist at point E?

a) Peritectic point b) Eutectic point c) Eutectoid point d) Peritectoid reaction

6. The micro structure of hypoeutectic alloys at room temperature consists of ________

a) Proeutectic β and α b) Eutectic mixture (α+β)

c) Proeutectic β and eutectic mixture (α+β) d) Proeutectic α and eutectic mixture (α+β)

7. Why Pb-Sn eutectic alloys are used for soldering purpose? a) The melting point at eutectic point is maximum

b) The melting point at the eutectic point is minimum c) The melting point at the eutectic point is constant d) The boiling point at the eutectic point is maximum

(26)

P a g e | 26

8. The inflection in the cooling curve between points a and e is due to _________

a) Latent heat b) Low temperature c) High temperature d) Specific heat

9. At the eutectic point (e) the eutectic reaction proceeds at a constant temperature as ________

a) F = 1 b) F = 0 c) F = 2 d) F = 3

10. On heating, one solid phase results in another solid phase and a liquid phase during __________ reaction.

a) Eutectoid b) Peritectic c) Eutectic d) Peritectoid

(27)

P a g e | 27

11. first solid phase results in a second solid phase another third solid phase on cooling during __________ reaction.

a) Eutectoid b) Peritectic c) Eutectic d) Peritectoid

12. A first solid phase results in a second solid plus another third solid phase upon heating during __________ reaction.

a) Eutectoid b) Peritectic c) Eutectic d) Peritectoid

13.Which phase will crystallize first just below the liquidus line?

a) α phase b) β phase c) (L+α) phase d) (L+β) phase

(28)

P a g e | 28

14.At what temperature, all liquid and α will convert to β?

a) Eutectic temperature b) Peritectic temperature c) Eutectoid temperature

d) Peritectoid temperature

15.What is the eutectoid structure of Iron? a) Cementite

b) Ferrite c) Pearlite d) Austentite

16. The phase above eutectoid temperature for carbon steels is known as _______ a) Cementite

b) Ferrite c) Pearlite d) Austentite

17.In a binary isomorphous system which of the following is true?

a) The two metals are completely miscible in each other in liquid as well as solid form

b) The two metals are completely immiscible in each other in liquid as well as solid form

c) The two metals are completely miscible in each other in liquid form only d) The two metals are completely miscible in each other in solid form only

(29)

P a g e | 29

18.An alloy 30 wt% Ni- 70wt % Cu at 1315 °C (2400 °F) will lie in which state? a) Solid state

b) Liquid state

c) Mixture of solid and liquid state d) α state

19. In which of the following the alloy is rapidly cooled? a) Anealing

b) Coring c) Hot working d) Cold working

20.What is the Peritectic reaction at 1495°C? a) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ(0.17% C) b) L (4.3% C) → γ(2.1 % C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)

c) γ (0.8 % C) → α (0.025% C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)

d) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ (0.8 % C)

21. What is the Eutectic reaction at 1146°C? a) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ(0.17% C) b) L (4.3% C) → γ(2.1 % C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)

c) γ (0.8 % C) → α (0.025% C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)

d) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ (0.8 % C)

22.What is Eutectoid reaction at 727°C?

a) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ(0.17% C) b) L (4.3% C) → γ(2.1 % C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)

c) γ (0.8 % C) → α (0.025% C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)

d) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ (0.8 % C)

23.. The eutectic mixture of austenite (γ) and cementite (Fe3C) is called __________

a) Ledeburite b) Pearlite

c) Hyper and hypo eutectoid steel d) Cast iron

24.The eutectoid mixture of ferrite (α) and cementite (Fe3C) is called __________

(30)

P a g e | 30

b) Pearlite

c) Hyper and hypo eutectoid steel d) Cast iron

25.From the following figure if Diffusion rates below Ms is so low that γ → M

transformation is a diffusionless process then what is change in crystal structure

a) FCC → BCT b) FCC → BCC

c) BCC → BCT

d) BCT → BCC

26. Finer size pearlite is called _______ a) Troostite

b) Ledeburite c) Ferrite d) Sorbite

27. Time temperature transformation diagrams are drawn for ______________ a) Iron

b) Manganese c) Any alloy d) Only steel

28.Which of the following is not a name for time temperature transformation diagrams? a) S curve

(31)

P a g e | 31

c) D curve isothermal diagram d) Bain’s curve

29. Which of the following phase will be resulted when the transformation temperature of steel is more than 750 °C?

a) Austenite b) Pearlite c) Bainite d) Martensite

30.Which of the following phase will be resulted when the transformation temperature of steel is in the range of 500 °C to 750 °C?

a) Austenite b) Pearlite c) Bainite d) Martensite

31.Which of the following phase will be resulted when the transformation temperature of steel is in the range of 300 °C to 550 °C?

a) Austenite b) Pearlite c) Bainite d) Martensite

32. Which of the following phase will be resulted when the transformation temperature of steel is in the range of 100 °C to 300 °C?

a) Austenite b) Pearlite c) Bainite d) Martensite

33. Which of the following is the hardest? a) Austenite

b) Pearlite c) Bainite d) Martensite

(32)

P a g e | 32

34.In an isothermal curve, which of the following is true when the temperature is increased?

a) The curve shifts rightward b) The curve shifts leftward c) The curve goes down d) The curve goes up

35. What is maximum solubility % of carbon and temperature range that α-ferrite exist?

a) 0.05% and 273°c to 910°c b) 0.025% and 273°c to 910°c c) 2.1% and 910°c to 1394°c

(33)

P a g e | 33

36.What is maximum solubility % of carbon and temperature range that Austenite (Ɣ)

exist?

a) 0.05% and 273°c to 910°c b) 0.025% and 273°c to 910°c c) 2.1% and 910°c to 1394°c d) 0.09% and 1394°c to 1539°c

(34)

P a g e | 34

MODULE NO 4

1. Which of the following factors does not influence the variety and quality of metal?

a) Rate of heating and cooling b) Quenching medium

c) Furnace d) Grain size

2. How does the rate of cooling affect the hardness of the metal? a) Slow cooling, hard material

b) Slow cooking, soft material c) Rapid cooling, soft material d) No effective change

3. Which of the following is not a stage of annealing? a) Heating

b) Soaking c) Tempering d) Quenching

4. Full annealing is applied to which kind of materials? a) Steel castings

b) Steel wires

c) High carbon steels d) Sheet products

5. For full annealing of hypoeutectoid steels, they are heated in a range above __________

a) 153-250oC

b) 273-350oC c) 551-770oC

(35)

P a g e | 35

6. Cooling of hypoeutectoid steels in done is furnace by decreasing the temperature to at least ________ below the A1 line.

a) 4oC

b) 10oC

c) 16oC

d) 30oC

7. What is the result of full annealing of hypoeutectoid steels? a) Coarse pearlite

b) Bainite c) Cementite d) Silicon

8. How does heating for hypereutectoid steels differ from hypoeutectoid steels? a) Heated 30-60oC above A1 line

b) Heated 30-60oC below A1 line c) Heated 30-60oC below A2 line

d) Heated 30-60oC below A3 line

9. Heating of hypereutectoid steels results in formation of coarse pearlite with excess __________

a) Ferrite b) Bainite c) Cementite d) Austenite

10.Process annealing is applied to which kind of materials? a) Steel castings

b) Low carbon steels c) High carbon steels d) Medium carbon steels

11.For process annealing, the steel is heated at a temperature range of _________ a) 550-650oC

b) 723-910oC

c) 723-1138oC

(36)

P a g e | 36

12. Which among the following is not applicable to process annealing of steels? a) Low scaling

b) Rapid c) Expensive

d) Single phase morphology

13. What happens when internal residual stresses are not removed? a) Coarse structure

b) Reduction of grain size c) Distortion

d) Recrystallization

14.Which of the following is not a result of tempering? a) Increased ductility

b) Improved toughness

c) Increased electrical conductivity d) Internal stresses are relieved

15.Tempering of martensite steel is done _________ a) Below eutectic temperature

b) Below eutectoid transformation temperature c) At room temperature

d) At 1000oC

16. Internal stresses in martensite steel are relieved by heating at __________ a) 200oC

b) 500oC

c) 800oC

d) 1000oC

17.How is the tensile strength of the material affected due to tempering? a) Increases with an increase in temperature

b) Decreases with an increase in temperature c) Increases constantly

d) Does not change

18.How is the ductility of the material affected due to tempering? a) Increases with an increase in temperature

(37)

P a g e | 37

b) Decreases with an increase in temperature c) Increases constantly

d) Does not change

19. Low temperature tempering occurs at __________ a) 50-150oC

b) 150-250oC

c) 350-450oC

d) 500-650oC

20.Tempering that results in a reduction of toughness is known as __________ a) Caustic embrittlement

b) Temper embrittlement c) End-temper

d) Quench-temper embrittlement

21.Which tempering process is used to increase the endurance and elastic limit of the material?

a) Low-temperature tempering

b) Medium temperature tempering c) High-temperature tempering

d) Endurance limit cannot be increased

22. For hardening of steel by quenching, the steel is cooled in __________ a) Furnace

b) Still air c) Oil bath d) Cooling tower

23. The cooling rate must be _________ the critical cooling rate for hardening of steel by

quenching.

a) Higher than b) Lower than c) Equal to d) Half of

24. The hardening process is carried out on ________ steel. a) No carbon

(38)

P a g e | 38

c) Medium carbon d) High carbon

25. How is cooling of the material done is normalising process? a) Furnace

b) Cooling tower c) Still air

d) Liquid chamber

26. Normalising is best used for is what kind of materials? a) Steel castings

b) Steel wires

c) High carbon steels

d) Low and medium carbon steels

27. For normalising, the steel is heated ___________ its upper critical temperature. a) 30-40oC above

b) 30-40oC C below c) 50-60oC C above

d) 50-60oC C below

28.Which of the following is not applicable for normalising process? a) Economical

b) Time-consuming c) Fine grain structure d) Variable properties

29.Steels containing ________ carbon are used for carburizing. a) 0.1-0.2%

b) 0.2-0.35% c) 0.4-0.6% d) 0.7-0.9%

30. Which of the following is not a method of carburizing? a) Pack carburizing

b) Gas carburizing c) Cyaniding d) Nitriding

(39)

P a g e | 39

31.What kind of carbon-rich material is used in the carburizing mixture? a) Charred leather

b) Sodium carbonate c) Barium carbonate d) Carbon black

32. What is the carburizing temperature? a) 150-250oC

b) 400-450oC c) 650-700oC

d) 900-950oC

33. Liquid carburizing temperature range lies between ________ a) 120-250oC

b) 300-375oC

c) 425-660oC

d) 870-950oC

34.Nitriding involves the addition of ___________ for the hardening of surface. a) Nitrogen

b) Nichrome c) Neon d) Niobium

35.Which of the following is required for the nitriding process? a) Carbon

b) Nitralloy c) Niobium d) Zirconium

36. Why is nitriding not used for plain carbon steels? a) Formation of oxides

b) Formation of cracks

c) Formation of iron nitrides d) Formation of spots

37.What is necessary to be done before the nitriding process? a) Heat Treatment

(40)

P a g e | 40

c) Chamfering of sample d) Shaping of material

38.Why is atmospheric nitrogen inappropriate for use in the nitriding process? a) Cannot be heated

b) Insufficient density c) Inability to be absorbed d) Expensive process

39. Which of the following is not applicable for nitriding process? a) Surface formed is extremely hard

b) Minimized cracking and distortion c) Expensive

d) High-temperature treatment

40. Cyaniding is usually done for _________ a) Plain carbon steels

b) Cast irons c) Stainless steels d) Pig iron

41. Which of the following does not apply to cyaniding? a) Requires less time

b) Operated at lower temperatures c) Low corrosion resistance d) Costly process

42.Gas cyaniding is otherwise known as __________ a) Nitriding

b) Carbonitriding c) Induction Hardening d) Flame Hardening

43.What are the applications of nitriding? a) Gears, camshafts

b) Valve guides and seatings

c) Chain links, nuts, bolts, and screws d) Gears, nuts, bolts

(41)

P a g e | 41

44.Nitriding steels are tempered at about ________ a) 100-200oC

b) 300-450oC

c) 600-700oC d) 800-950oC

45.Which of the following factors affect the hardenability of a material? a) Composition of steel

b) Grain size

c) Temperature of specimen d) Quenching medium

(42)

P a g e | 42

MODULE NO 5

1. What kind of steel requires definite amounts of other alloying elements? a) Carbon steel

b) Alloying steel c) Stainless steel d) Tool steel

2. Which of these is not a function of alloy steels? a) Increases strength

b) Improves ductility c) Reduces cost

d) Improves machinability

3. Steels containing up to 3% to 4% of one or more alloying elements are known as ________

a) Low alloy steels b) HSLA steels c) High alloy steels d) Stainless steels

4. Steels containing more than 5% of one or more alloying elements are known as ________

a) HSLA steels b) High alloy steels c) Tool and die steels d) Stainless steels

5. Which of the following groups of alloying elements stabilize austenite? a) Ni, Mn, Cu, and Co

b) Cr, W, Mo, V, and Si

c) Cr, W, Ti, Mo, Nb, V, and Mn d) Co, Al, and Ni

(43)

P a g e | 43

6. Alloy steels containing 0.05% to 0.15% of alloying elements are called _______ a) Weathering steel

b) Stainless steel c) Tool and die steel d) Microalloyed steel

7. Which is the primary element used for making stainless steel alloy? a) Chromium

b) Zirconium c) Vanadium d) Indium

8. Addition of _______ gives stainless steels an austenitic structure. a) Molybdenum

b) Carbon c) Nickel d) Vanadium

9. Stainless steels with little carbon and no nickel are called ________ a) Ferritic stainless steel

b) Austenitic stainless steel c) Martensitic stainless steel d) Duplex stainless steel

10.Stainless steels with high strength, but low corrosion resistance are known as _______ a) Austenitic stainless steel

b) Ferritic stainless steel c) Martensitic stainless steel d) Duplex stainless steel

11.The low-carbon, high-alloyed steels which possess high strength and toughness are known as _______

a) Carbon steels b) Alloy steels c) Maraging steels d) Stainless steels

(44)

P a g e | 44

12.Which of these is not a function of alloy steels? a) Increases strength

b) Improves ductility c) Reduces cost

d) Improves machinability

13.What does AISI steel stand for? a) American-Indian Steel Institute b) American-Indian Society of Iron c) American Iron and Steel Institute d) Alloys, Iron and Steel Institute

14.Which element is known as the softest heavy metal? a) Copper

b) Lead c) Iron d) Nickel

(45)

P a g e | 45

MODULE NO 6

1. Composites can be classified based on ___________ a) matrix type

b) reinforcement constituent

c) matrix type & Reinforcement constituent

d) neither on matrix type nor on reinforcement constituent type 2. Which of the following is not a laminar composite?

a) Bimetallic b) Cladding c) Paints d) Wood

3. In sandwich composites, which of the following material can be used for filling purpose?

a) Wood b) Cement c) Polymer

d) All of the mentioned

4. Which of the following have a greater impact on longitudinal strength of reinforced composites?

a) Fiber orientation b) Fiber strength c) Fiber length d) Fiber diameter

5. Which of the following may alter the mechanical properties of reinforced composites? a) Constituent properties

b) Fiber length c) Fiber orientation d) All of the mentioned

(46)

P a g e | 46

6. Which of the following property can be enhanced by reinforcing an aluminum alloy? a) Density

b) Torsion resistance c) Wear resistance d) Strength

7. The four types of Artificial nanomaterials are __________ a) Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites and ceramics b) Carbon-based, metallic, composites and ceramics

c) Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites and dendrimers d) Carbon-based, metallic, composites and dendrimers

8. Nano sized polymers built from branched units are called __________ a) Dendrimers

b) Composites

c) Carbon-based materials d) Metal-based materials

9. Which property of nanoparticles provides a driving force for diffusion? a) Optical Properties

b) High surface area to volume ratio c) Sintering

d) There is no such property

10.On both ends of the CNTs, which carbon nanostructure is placed? a) Graphite

b) Diamond c) C60

d) Benzene

11.Which property of Nanomaterials make them suitable to be used for elimination of pollutants?

a) High purity

b) Better thermal conductivity c) Enhanced chemical activity d) Small size

(47)

P a g e | 47

12. ano crystalline materials synthesised by sol-gel technique results in a foam like structures called ___________

a) Gel b) Aerosol c) Foam d) Aerogel

13. Which nanomaterial is used for cutting tools? a) Fullerene

b) Aerogel

c) Tungsten Carbide d) Gold

14. A Carbon monoxide sensor made of zirconia uses which characteristic to detect any change?

a) Capacitance b) Resistivity c) Activity d) Permeability

15.Nanoscale aluminium oxide increases the _________ a) Conductivity

b) Resistance c) Ductility d) Stability

References

Related documents

With the right data classification engine, and ability to move data seamlessly between on-premise and various cloud providers, users will get access to the best services at the

Each accredited program will undergo one site evaluation/audit (at a minimum) during their accreditation cycle. Accreditation cycles can last for up to five years for degree

[r]

In order to detect any unusual changes in disease occurrence patterns early, so as to ensure early identification of outbreaks, focal points at intermediate and higher levels are

Methods for the development of the case definition and guidelines for data collection, analysis, and presentation for gestational diabetes mellitus as an adverse events

36 The Department of Developmental Services (DDS) established guidelines that say that regional centers, clients, families, and service providers should work together

Giả sử chúng ta xem mỗi một phòng là một đỉnh của đồ thị G và mỗi một cửa thông giữa các phòng là một cạnh của đồ thị G thì theo yêu cầu của bài toán (qua

Melting point/freezing point Not applicable No information available Boiling point/boiling range Water 212 °F/100 °C No information available Flash Point Not Available.. This is