2011 Penology Reviewer Questionnaire

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1 2011 GUIDE QUESTIONS ON PENOLOGY OFFICER EXAM

(Updated as of 03 March 2011)

Nota Bene:

The actual Penology Officer Exam will cover 150 Items plus 10 items on Examinee’s Descriptive Information.

You need to finish the exam at the maximum rate of 3 hours, by spending only 1.2 minutes of your time reading, comprehending and answering each item of the exam.

This Reviewer is NOT FOR SALE. This is in continuance of the advocacy campaign of the proponent when she was designated as the Chief, Plans & Program Div of BJMP-NCR way back 2009. The aim of this questionnaire is to prepare your mental and physical stamina on the day of the exam. It is strongly suggested that you read the latest policies and issuances of the BJMP, the BJMP Manual and laws such as RA 6713, RA 9263.

PART I.

A. JAIL MANAGEMENT CONCEPTS AND APPLICATIONS (30%)

(Commitment, Classifications of Inmates/Reception Procedures/Classification of Disciplinary Boards & Punishable Acts/Treatment of Inmates with Special Needs)

1. Jail overcrowding can be solved:

a. By constructing more jails b. By legislative action

c. By finding alternatives to jail sentence d. All of the above

2. Alternatives to jail sentence:

a. Must include at least some time in jail b. Must be applicable only for minors c. Are not permitted in our country

d. May include fines or community service

3. An inmate told the jail officer while escorting him to court, “Why don’t you just shoot me so that everybody will be happy”. Then the inmate burst into tears. What should the jail officer do?

a. Tell the inmate that shooting him is prohibited b. Find a valid excuse to shoot him

c. Take the inmate immediately to the hospital since he obviously has mental problems

d. Tell his immediate supervisor or warden what the inmates said and describe his emotional stress

4. Some symptoms of depression are:

a. Insomnia

b. Severe Depression c. Excessive sleep d. Difficulty in thinking

5. Potential suicides can be detected during the admission if:

a. All inmates are interviewed by competent psychiatrist b. The jail has clearly written set of rules in the booking area c. The jail has screening form for inmates to accomplish

d. If our admitting or booking officer have been properly trained to ask inmates the right questions and encourage them to answer truthfully

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2 6. An inmate giving away personal belongings is most likely:

a. Addict b. Mentally ill c. Drunk

d. Contemplating suicide

7. A jail officer responding to a suicidal inmate should:

a. Suggest to the inmate possible solution to his problems b. Talk and joke with inmate to take his mind off the problems

c. Use reverse psychology and ordering the inmate to go ahead with his plan

d. Try to persuade the inmate but back-off if the inmate becomes upset.

8. If the inmates appears to be suicidal at the time of his admission:

a. Refer him to mental health professional immediately b. Refuse to admit him

c. Place him immediately in a separate cell

d. Let him join with sympathetic and non-violent inmates

9. Inmates who are threatened by other inmates are likely to:

a. Complain to the jail warden b. Complain to the Officer on duty c. Walk away and do nothing

d. Back out at those inmates who threaten them

10. It is proper to assume that inmate who attempts suicide:

a. Has been assaulted or threatened by another inmate b. Is just faking it

c. Is mentally ill and must be hospitalized immediately d. None of the above

11. A newly admitted inmate screams and tells you that he must be released immediately because his cellmate is an alien from Jupiter is plotting to kill him. This inmate is probably:

a. Paranoid

b. In need of sedation c. Suffering from anxiety d. Hallucinating

12. Inmates withdrawing from drugs or alcoholic abuse:

a. Should be diagnosed immediately

b. Should be separated/segregated from other inmates

c. Can be very dangerous and attack jail officers without warning d. Exhibit paranoid fears, delusion and grandeur

13. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of three (3) years and one (1) day to death, is known as:

a. Provincial Prisoner b. Insular Prisoner c. City Prisoner d. Municipal Prisoner

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3 14. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of six (6) months and one

(1) day to three (3) years, is known as a:

a. Provincial Prisoner b. Insular Prisoner c. City Prisoner d. Municipal Prisoner

15. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of one (1) day to six (6) months, is known as a:

a. Provincial Prisoner b. Insular Prisoner c. City Prisoner d. Municipal Prisoner

16. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of one (1) day to three (3) years, is known as a:

a. Provincial Prisoner b. Insular Prisoner c. City Prisoner d. Municipal Prisoner

17. The following are the classification of detainees, except:

a. Undergoing Investigation b. Awaiting Trial/Under Trial c. Political Detainees

d. Awaiting Final Judgement

18. The following enumerates the security classification for inmates, except:

a. High Risk Inmates b. High Profile Inmates c. Radical Inmates d. Ordinary Inmates

19. Each jail is mandated to establish a Classification Board for Inmates. Who among the following serves as the Chairman of the Classification Board?

a. Jail Warden b. Deputy Warden

c. Chief, Custodial/Security Office c. IWD Officer

20. Which among the following is not a member of the Classification Board? a. Chief, Custodial/Security Office

b. IWD Officer c.Jail Chaplain

d. Inmate’s Representative

21. Which among the following constitutes authorized disciplinary punishment for the inmates?

a. Transfer of confinement from one jail facility to another within the area b. Temporary or permanent cancellation of recreational privileges

c. Close confinement in a cell d. All of the above

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4 22. The following constitutes Minor Offenses of inmates, except:

a. Rendering personal service ot fellow inmate b. Littering

c. Making groundless complaints d. Loittering

23. Which among the following inmate’s infraction constitute Less Grave Offenses?

a. Failure to render assistance to an injured personnel or inmate b. Malingering

c. Posession of pornographic literature d. All of the above

B. CUSTODIAL CONCEPTS AND APPLICATIONS (45%)

(Custody, Security & Control/Emergency Plans, Movement & Transfer of Detainees & Prisoners/Inmate’s Rights & Priveleges/IWD Programs )

24. Strip searches must be done by:

a. An officer of similar sex b. A trustee inmate c. Immediate supervisor

d. Any available BJMP personnel

25. When conducting a frisk strip search, the BJMP officer should always:

a. Subject to inmate to punishment b. Search the body thoroughly c. Vary his procedures in searching d. Be systematic and thorough

26. Strip search should be conducted:

a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are witnesses b. At the warden’s office

c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail personnel

d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the others to avoid further embarrassment

27. In the conduct of initial frisk search, the things that must be looked into are:

a. Addresses the telephone numbers of close and known associates b. Deadly weapons

c. Drugs

d. All of the above

28. Frisk searches should be conducted only :

a. After visitation b. Upon admission

c. After pulling an inmate from the cell prior to transfer d. All of the above

29. A plastic drinking straw maybe used by a drug user:

a. to roll a marijuana cigarette b. As a weapon to demand drugs c. Keep silent and do nothing d. To sniff drugs thru the nostrils

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5 30. The most effective way to combat drug smuggling is:

a. To closely monitor all activities of inmates b. To watch out for inmates behaving suspiciously c. To conduct drug tests on inmates

d. To search inmates’ cell regularly

31. Which of the following is true?

a. In a written report, the jail guard must describe the taste of the substance he finds

b. Taste an unknown substance alone

c. A jail officer should never taste an unknown substance d. Taste an unknown substance in the presence of witnesses

32. Inmates try to hide drugs in:

a. A place where it cannot be stolen b. A place readily accessible

c. A place where drugs will remain dry d. All of the above

33. Which of the following is true?

a. Attorney visiting inmates cannot be searched b. Personnel need not be searched

c. Routine frisks of all visitors are permissible

d. Brother uniformed personnel should not be searched

34. Which of the following is not a step in the booking process?

a. Fingerprinting the inmate b. Searching the inmate

c. Inventory of the inmate’s property

d. Questioning the inmate on the details of his crime

35. Which inmates should be informed about jail rules?

a. All inmates

b. Only those who break the jail rules c. Only those who can read and write d. Only those who are recidivists

36. Who must be searched upon admission in jail?

a. Only those suspected of carrying deadly weapons or contrabands b. Only those admitted following an arrest

c. Only those who have not been searched by the transport officer d. All of the above

37. When is it legal to incarcerate an individual who has not been charged with a crime?

a. When the individual is a minor

b. When the individual is suspected of having committed a crime c. When the individual is mentally ill

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6 38. If a medical staff officer tells you that the arriving inmate is too ill to be

admitted to the jail, you should:

a. Release the inmate immediately.

b. Formally accept the inmate and arrange for a jail officer to take the inmate to the hospital

c. Tell the transport officer to take the inmate to the nearest hospital d. Make the inmate sign a form relieving the jail of any legal

responsibility

39. Which of the following is not true of health screening?

a. It eliminates the use for medical examination after the inmates have been admitted

b. It helps detect the health problems of inmates

c. It helps protect the inmates and personnel from threat of contagious disease

d. It helps reduce the risk that the jail will be found liable for negligent care

40. Why is it important to use alternative routes in escorting inmates?

a. It will help jail officers find the shortest and quickest route b. It will keep all escorts alert

c. It will make the movements of the escorts less predictable d. None of the above

41. Which members of the escort team should be briefed on the route to be taken?

a. All officers assigned to the escort b. The driver of the escort cars c. Only the driver of the lead vehicle d. The primary and back up drivers

42. Which of the following should be done first before picking up the inmates to be escorted?

a. Check the documents needed

b. Search thoroughly the vehicle to be used for contraband that may aide in escape

c. Make sure inmates are not allowed access to a phone d. All of the above

43. When escorting an inmate on foot, it is important to remember:

a. To walk several steps behind the inmate to decrease the chance of assaulting you

b. To walk side-by-side with the inmate

c. To walk in front of the inmate to be able to control what lies ahead d. To walk slightly behind taking cognizance of the weak side of the

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7 44. It is important for the transport officer to be aware that:

a. Restraining devices are not necessary when inmates being escorted are manageable

b. Restraining devices are tools which must be properly maintained and made available

c. Restraining devices are optional when transporting inmates d. None of the above

45. When escorting an inmate in an uncaged vehicle:

a. the second officer should be armed and sit beside the driver in the front seat

b. the second officer should be armed and sit behind the driver c. the second officer should be unarmed and sit in the front seat

d. the second officer should sit in the back seat but should leave all weapons in the front seat

46. In a two (2) vehicle escort, which car should transport the inmate?

a. the first vehicle b. the last vehicle c. the car in the middle

d. whichever of the three cars would do

47. When driving in an escort convoy, which among the following procedure is correct?

a. all drivers to drive fast to minimize danger time

b. all drivers to drive at safe speed maintaining proper distance

c. all drivers to drive at speed and remain very close to the vehicle in front

d. driver to drive at a safe speed leaving room for non-convoy vehicles to get between the cars

48. In a three vehicle escort, which car should transport the inmate?

a. the first vehicle b. the last vehicle c. the car in the middle

d. whichever of the three cars would do

49. Which among the following statement is true with regards to moving or transferring an inmate from one facility to another?

a. Hired vehicle maybe utilized in transporting inmates however, the driver should avoid stopping along the highway to deter rescue attempts b. The carpeta of the inmate must be forwarded to the facility where the inmate will be confined

c. The inmate’s Carpeta must be properly received by the Records Custodian

(8)

8 50. What is the best way to develop and maintain a positive attitude with

regard to the escort personnel ability?

a. Do not think of the situation to avoid stress

b. Have confidence on the escort team’s abilities to successfully complete the escorting task

c. Believe in the saying that whatever is meant to be will be d. Don’t worry as you cannot control the situation

51. What is the role of the advance party in all escort convoy?

a. To drive the lead car in the escort convoy

b. To proceed to the drop-off site and arrange for the clear entry of the transport vehicle

c. To watch the car before the inmate is replaced

d. To go to the drop-off site and stay inside the facility until the inmate had been transported

52. The best definition for a contraband would be:

a. Anything that an inmate could use as a weapon

b. Anything in the inmate’s cell not issued by the jail authorities

c. any article, item, or thing prohibited by law and/or forbidden by jail rules that would pose as security hazards or endanger the lives of inmates

d. Any item that an inmate can use to harm himself or others

53. Mere possession of this contraband is said to be unlawful in itself and such constitutes “illegal contraband”.

a. Dangerous Drugs

b.Weapons and Potential Weapons c. Explosives

d. All of the above

54. This category of contraband enumerates items which may not be classified as illegal under the law but are forbidden by jail rules i.e. cellphone, money or other commodities of exchange such as jewelry. a. Illegal contraband

b. Nuisance Contraband c. Liquor

d. Pornographic materials

55. Which of the following would not be considered a contraband if found in an inmate’s cell?

a. A can of insecticide b. Bottle of wine

c. Blades borrowed from jail personnel d. None of the above

56. Which is true of trustees?

a. Trustees are not likely to bring contraband into the jail. b. Trustees help cut down contraband circulation.

c. Trustees can offer valuable help in searching cells.

d. As they have freedom to move about the jail premises, trusties require more frequent searches than other inmates

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9 57. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Each inmate should be frisk every time he enters or leaves a secure area

b. Search only inmates when you have reason to suspect that he may be carrying contraband

c. Searching inmate after another officer has just done so is an infringement of the inmate’s rights

d. Search only inmates upon their admission

58. The most practical way of preventing visitors from passing contraband to inmate is:

a. Watch the inmate closely throughout the visit b. Permit only trusties to have visitors

c. Strip search both inmate and visitor before every visit d. Conduct searches carefully before and after the visit

59. A jail officer who finds contraband in an inmate’s cell:

a. Should stop the search and immediately bring the item to the attention of the supervisor

b. Should stop the search and immediately question the inmate

c. Should confiscate the item and continue to search for additional contraband items

d. Should leave the cell in disarray

60. An officer planning to search the inmate’s cell:

a. Should give the inmates advance notice b. Should ask the permission of inmates

c. Should permit inmates to remain the cell to ensure the officer does not do damage

d. Should remove the inmates from the cell before beginning the search

61. This is the type of body search conducted using flat palms to pat down the outer clothing of the person to look for any recognizable contraband. a. Strip Search

b. Pat Frisk or Pat Down Search c. Visual Body Cavity Search d. Rub Search

62. This type of body search is said to be intrusive in nature as it require the subject to bare. Inmates maybe subjected to this type of body search upon their admission or re-admission to the facility or if there are reasons to suspect that the inmate has contraband.

a. Strip Search

b. Pat - Frisk or Pat - Down Search c. Visual Body Cavity Search d. Rub Search

63. Body search of this type pats the subject’s body over the clothing in a more thorough manner where the genital, buttocks, and breasts are carefully searched for the presence of contraband.

a. Strip Search

b. Pat - Frisk or Pat - Down Search c. Cavity Search

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10 64. Body search of this type is by far the most invasive search that maybe

done on an individual necessitating manual internal inspection of the body to look for contraband such as illegal drugs, money, jewelry, or weapons. a. Strip Search

b. Pat - Frisk or Pat - Down Search c. Visual Body Cavity Search d. None of the above

65. Area Search maybe carried out in jails through the use of the following techniques, except:

a. Strategic b. Tactical c. Random d. Practical

66. What is the most effective way to maintain control of jail keys?

a. Never allow keys to be used in inmate areas

b. Only a central control officer have to keep the office

c. Keep all keys in one central control area and only distribute them to officers while they are on duty

d. All officers are responsible for holding the keys at all times

67. What is the proper procedure for discarding broken tools?

a. Before throwing them, break them so that they are of no use to inmates

b. Before throwing them, wrap them in paper so inmates will not know what they are

c. Have an officer carry them and dispose of them far from the jail

d. Throw them in the trash in an area of the jail where inmates have no access

68. It is said that the most secure and efficient method of controlling keys is the maintenance of a system of Key Control. In the jail setting, which area is the most ideal place to be designated as Key Control Center or primary issue point?

a. Warden’s Office b. Records Office c. Desk Officer’s Area d. Admin Office

69. Which among the following does not constitute Key control rules? a. Wardens must issue rules relative to key control

b. Account all keys every shift change c. Carry only keys necessary for a shift d. Storing of jails keys together with cuff keys

70. In cases where a jail or cuff key is lost, the proper thing for a duty personnel to do is to:

a. Ask the trustees if a key was found

b. Do a frisk search of all trustees in the area

c. Immediately notify supervisor if a jail or cuff key is lost d. Do a cell search

71. Which is a good way of preventing keys from being stolen/lost?

a. Turning all keys after your shift b. Checking the keys at all times c. Welding the key rings shut

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11 72. How should one carry the keys in the presence of inmates?

a. Keep all keys visible to determine at once if a key is missing b. Keep all your keys in your hands for quick access when needed

c. Carry them as inconspicuously as possible so inmates will not be tempted to take them away

d. Dangle them in your belt to let the inmates know that you are in -charge

73. As a security measure, this type of counting procedure is conducted at least 4 times within a 24 hour period, ensuring beyond doubt that every inmate is accounted for.

a. Mandatory Formal Count b. Census or Informal Count c. Bedbook Count

d. Emergency or Lockdown Count

74. This type of counting procedure is conducted as a security measure following a jail disturbance, riots or escape incidents.

a. Mandatory Formal Count b. Bedbook Count

c. Census or Informal Count d. Emergency or Lock-down Count

75. It is a counting procedure that is infrequent and in the nature of irregular check wherein inmates are required to report to the nearest jail personnel present for accounting purposes.

a. Mandatory Formal Count b. Census or Informal Count c. Bedbook Count

d. Emergency or Lock-down Count

76. The following statements constitute due observance of Dining Room Security Measures, except:

a. Inmates shall march in columns along designated routes under the supervision of duty personnel while other personnel are stationed along the route to direct the movement of inmates to the messhall

b. As a general precaution, inmates shall only be allowed to use individual mess utensils made of plastic

c. The food service supervisor is not required to be present during meals considering that the food is already served

d. Checking and accounting of all utensils after every meal

77. Which among the following statement is not true in the observance of security procedures during meal service?

a. A jail officer should enter the inmate’s quarter to distribute food only when another jail officer is available to handle keys and control the entrance door

b. A jail officer may enter the inmate’s quarter to distribute food alone c. Food may still be served by the duty jail officer provided precautionary doors were locked to pre-empt being overpowered by inmates

d. Security must always be considered in the service of food inside cells

78. What should a jail officer do in the event that a mail being censored contains unusual slang and sentences with double meanings?

a. The censored mail shall be distributed accordingly, as if nothing happened

b. The censored mail shall be marked and the inmate addressee shall be under careful watch

c. The contents of the censored mail should be carefully studied and analyzed to determine the real meaning

(12)

12 79. With leave of court, inmates maybe allowed to view the remains of their

deceased relative. Under what ground can the warden ask the court to reconsider and revoke the order?

a. The deceased relative is lying-in-state in a place beyond thirty kilometer (30) radius from the place of confinement of the inmate b. The detainee has a record of escape

c. the detainee is classified as high-risk/high profile and the jail has inadequate resources to ensure the inmates safety/security d. all of the above

80. A trustee is an inmate:

a. Who is in charge of other inmates b. Who has the trust of the jail personnel

c. Who is assigned to a job in a jail who may be dependable d. None of the above

81. A general rule concerning supervision of inmates is:

a. They can be trusted to do a job

b. They should be supervised and be relied upon to do a good job c. They should be supervised more than those in the general population d. None of the above

82. Which of the inmates should jail officer recommend for disciplinary segregation?

a. Inmates who refuse to abide by jail rules and regulations b. Inmates who are seriously ill

c. Inmates who were former uniformed personnel d. All of the above

83. A jail officer once seized as a hostage should remember that:

a. The longer the incident lasts, the more the dangerous it becomes b. The hostage-taker will control and order him

c. The jail officer can probably talk to the hostage-taker for his release d. He will be killed if his co-jailers will rescue him

84. The situation whereby a positive emotional bond develops between the hostage and the hostage-taker and both feet that is “us against them” is called:

a. Transference b. Delusions

c. Retribution syndrome d. Stockholm syndrome

85. A jail officer taken as a hostage should:

a. Tell the hostage taker that he is a best jail officer b. Show that he fears the situation

c. Remind the hostage-taker that nothing will happen d. Try not to remind the hostage-taker that he is a jail officer

86. When should a jail officer-hostage negotiate with the hostage-taker?

a. Throughout the entire incident until the hostage-taker surrenders b. During the first three hours of the incident

c. When the jail officer-hostage feels that the negotiations will fail d. Never

(13)

13 87. The most dangerous period for the hostage during the hostage-taking

incident is:

a. Five hours into the incident when the hostage-taker is hungry

b. When the commanding officer orders the hostage-taker to surrender c. First two hours of the incident

d. During the lengthy negotiation

88. To cope with the possibility of being seized as a hostage, many jail officers display a reaction called:

a. Stockholm Syndrome b. Retribution Syndrome

c. Positive Emotional Bond Syndrome d. Deny and repress

89. Jail officer comportment means:

a. How the officer presents himself in carrying out his duties b. How the officer shows how he always feel good about himself c. How the officer exercises his discretionary authority

d. None of the above

90. The jail officer in order to provide an appropriate role model for inmates and lessen susceptibility to being manipulated should:

a. Get emotionally involved with inmates he supervises

b. Present an image of pride in his work and high level of integrity c. Use corporal punishment to inmates as authorized by jail rules d. Always feel good about himself

91. In interacting positively with inmates, jail officers should:

a. Show favoritism when warranted by an inmate’s good conduct b. Don’t criticize management decisions

c. Avoid any implications of favoritism d. None of the above

92. A jail officer in order to develop good working relationship with his peers should:

a. Help spread rumors concerning personal problems of officers b. Attend all duties and criticize management decisions

c. Strictly implement jail rules

d. Offer encouragement and support to other officers and let them feel that they are part of the group

93. If a jail officer is tempted to cover-up the infraction of his fellow officer, he must be aware that:

a. One infraction can increase or lead to greater liabilities

b. His fellow officer will return the favor if he commits an infraction himself

c. Cover-up might be picked up by media

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14 94. The proper way for a jail guard on duty to react if an attorney is creating

disturbances because he cannot see his client inmate due to jail activity is:

a. Threatens the lawyer with arrest

b. Shout at him and if it does not work force him out of jail

c. File formal complaint in court and demanding that the lawyer concerned be no longer allowed to represent the inmate because of his disrespectful conduct

d. Maintain emotional control and call for a supervisor to deal with the lawyer

95. If a jail officer believes that there are rules develop by the management which will cause serious problems in supervising an angry inmate population, he should:

a. Criticize the new rules in his peers only

b. Criticize the new rules his both his co-jail officers and inmates he supervise

c. Ignore the new rules

d. Offer suggestions to the management and explain how the rules may cause the problems and proposed have the new rules can be change in some respects

96. A jail officer to be respected by his peers, he must:

a. Follow the code of ethics and good standards and look for ways to perform his job better

b. Make his record of work be at par with his peers c. Share stories to enter his peers and inmates d. Give in to the requests of your peers

97. The primary goal of emergency preparedness plans is:

a. Security

b. Protect jail properties c. Reduce facility liability d. Reduce threat to life

98. The best jail emergency plan to have is:

a. Emergency that doesn’t happen b. A natural disaster

c. A man-made disaster d. Reduce threat to life

99. When responding to an emergency situation, the primary concern of jail officers is:

a. Personal safety b. Safety of their family c. Safety of inmates

d. Compliance with jail rules

100. Jail officers should participate in jail emergency response drills:

a. On a yearly basis

b. Only after the incident occurred to prevent the incident from happening again

c. At a slower than normal rate to ensure its correct implementation d. As if their lives depended upon their actions

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15 101. A proper safety and security equipment inspections:

a. Must be conducted annually

b. Not necessary unless the equipment is used

c. Has a significant impact on the outcome of jail emergency operation d. Should be done by equipment specialist as officers are not qualified to

inspect equipment

102. The best reason why a jail officer needs to have thorough knowledge on jail emergency procedure:

a. It is important in reducing liability to say you did the right thing b. It is a requirement of jail policies and operating procedures

c. Officers are requires to act promptly and effectively during life threatening situations

d. Officers are required to act promptly and effectively during life threatening situations

103. By studying actual jail emergencies, jail officers can:

a. Plan for the safety of their families

b. Improve their emergency response techniques c. Gain expertise in providing post-incident counseling d. Set up “If I Die Plan” for their spouses

104. The most important component of emergency plan during typhoon is;

a. Assuring inmates that they have access to communication facilities b. Assuring inmates that they have adequate food during the typhoon c. Assuring that communications and other logistical equipment is

available and in good working condition

d. Assuring inmates that the emergency plan is approved by the officer

105. When planning for the national calamities emergencies, the most important factor to be considered is:

a. Security

b. Inventory of Supplies

c. Water, Light and sanitations needs of inmates d. Adequate number of emergency lights

106. The visibility of jail officers during calamities tends to:

a. Lessen the fear of inmates about their own safety b. Frighten the inmates

c. Lead to riots when inmates feel they are being intimidated d. Violate their civil rights

107. Critical incidents are events which:

a. Require careful evaluation and judgment

b. Involve a great number of personnel and logistical resources c. Are short term and stress free

(16)

16 108. Review a critical incident should be conducted:

a. Only if deemed necessary by the management b. As soon as the incident is over

c. Within eight hours at the start of the incident d. As soon as caused have been determined

109. Documenting events surrounding a critical jail incident is:

a. A good idea

b. The responsibility if investigators only c. Necessary if litigation is likely to happen

d. Extremely necessary including all phases of incidents

110. A critical incident is a learning experience for:

a. Top management b. Top community

c. Everyone involved in handling the incident

d. Those who developed policy relating to the incident

111. The preparation or planning for critical incident is:

a. Mandated by law

b. A waste of resources as it does not happen often c. A costly venture which small jail cannot afford

d. An area where networking with other jails and other correctional agencies can be very beneficial

112. Policies and procedures relating to critical incidents must:

a. Be clear, concise and understandable

b. Need to be reviewed regularly and revised as necessary c. Need to be accessible to all jail personnel

d. All of the above

113. Stress resulting from critical incident is:

a. Treatable

b. Dangerous and must be dealt with quickly and efficiently c. Often found even in those who project a super-officer image d. All of the above

114. Drills designed to test critical incident-related policies:

a. Are necessary in all jail facilities on a regular basis b. Are realistic in small jails but not practical in big jails c. Is usually little value as it does not happen often d. Are dangerous and risky to inmates

115. Which among the following is not considered as Natural Calamities? a. Fire

b. Landslide c. Epidemics d. Flood

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17 116. Planning for earthquake is difficult from planning of other natural disaster

because:

a. Earthquakes usually last only a few seconds b. Earthquakes do not usually happen

c. Earthquakes strike without warning

d. Earthquakes do not happen twice in the same place

117. Which of the following is not a common cause of injuries in an earthquake?

a. Panic

b. Cracks opening in the earth surface c. Fire and explosions

d. Falling debris and other objects

118. Preparing a jail for a serious earthquake does not involve:

a. Developing a plan for evacuation b. Knowing location of power shut-offs c. Securing heavy objects

d. Constructing an earthquake shelters

119. As soon as the earthquake starts, jail officers must:

a. Lock all inmates in their cells b. Turn-off all lights

c. Take cover and order inmates to do the same d. Begin evacuating the inmates

120. Search and rescue procedures after an earthquake are dangerous because:

a. Inmates may panic or refuse to cooperate b. Officers are likely to trip over scattered object c. Member of the rescue may be disoriented

d. After shocks may caused damage structures to collapse

121. Preparing a jail for a serious earthquake does not involve:

a. Developing a plan for evacuation b. Knowing location of power shut-offs c. Securing heavy objects

d. Constructing an earthquake shelters

122. As soon as the earthquake starts, jail officers must:

a. Lock all inmates in their cells b. Turn-off all lights

c. Take cover and order inmates to do the same d. Begin evacuating the inmates

123. Search and rescue procedures after an earthquake are dangerous because:

a. Inmates may panic or refuse to cooperate b. Officers are likely to trip over scattered object c. Member of the rescue may be disoriented

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18 124. Which of the following should jail officers not exhibit when responding to a

crisis situation?

a. Authority b. Compassion c. Respect d. Sarcasm

125. What is a difference between inmate right and inmate privilege?

a. The terms are essentially the same

b. Right can only be removed by the jail warden while privilege can be removed by any jail officer

c. Privileges are enumerated in the philippine constitution which can only be eliminated when there is a right to do so

d. Inmate rights are enumerated in the Philippines constitution and jail rules and regulations while privileges are benefits granted to inmates over and above statutory requirements.

126. Which of the following is not a source of inmate rights?

a. Philippine Constitution b. BJMP Manual

c. Jail Policies and Regulations

d. Recommendations of the Inmates Organization

127. Which of the following is a valid reason for providing privileges to inmates?

a. reduced inmates boredom and idleness b. Reduced stress of incarceration

c. Have something to take away if they misbehave d. All of the above

128. If a particular inmate violates a particular jail regulation by fighting with another inmate, what must the jail warden do?

a. There is nothing the Jail Warden can do

b. Curtail the inmates’ privileges until he complies the jail rules c. Afford the inmate due process

d. Curtail the recreational periods of the inmate until the complies with jail rules

129. What can a paralegal do in a jail?

a. Defend the inmate in court b. Defend jail personnel in court c. Write legal briefs

d. Review and understand legal commentaries and opinion

130. Why should firearms not be allowed in jails routinely?

a. The officer and his firearm may be taken hostage b. Equipment could be destroyed by inmates

c. They may discharge accidentally

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19 131. The most important duty of a Jail Officer is to:

a. Search every inmate’s cell regularly

b. Carefully inspect all jail premises for security searches and take action to remedy any security defects

c. Assure that all inmates meals are served on time d. Makes certain that all visitors are searched

132. Security in the jail setting strictly means:

a. Maintaining effective communications b. Keeping inmates safe

c. Neutralizing inmate’s deviant behavior

d. Preventing escapes and maintaining peace and order

133. Why is the chain-of-command important?

a. Not necessary in small jails b. For communications

c. To have orderly operations and to establish decision-making responsibilities

d. To have a rank structure

134. The most effective way for shifts to communicate with each other is:

a. Tell an inmate

b. Pass information on to the supervisor c. Tell another jail officer on the next shift

d. Document relevant information in a written logbook

135. The most important aspect of jail operation is:

a. Annual increase of subsistence allowance of inmates b. Inmates Security and Safety

c. Programs for Inmates d. Food Service

136. To be effective a classification system in jail must:

a. Always include women and minors in the classification team b. Be designed specifically for each jail

c. Segregate inmates on the basis of gang affiliations d. Classify inmates by origin

137. An inmate should be disciplined:

a. In the presence of other inmates to strengthen its impart b. When all the facts have been granted

c. When it is the second offense of the inmate d. Immediately

138. The goal of disciplining process in the jail is:

a. Teach the inmates to respect jail officers b. To improve inmates’ behavior

c. Make the inmates behave through fear and intimidation d. Show the inmates who the boss are

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20 139. The following are considered “rights” of inmates, except:

a. The right to be treated as human being b. The right to be visited by counsel

c. The right to vote unless disqualified by law d. The right to receive visitors during visiting hours

140. The following are among the privileges given to inmates, except: a. To wear their own clothes while in confinement

b. To receive visitors during visiting hours c. To be entitled to GCTA

d. To communicate with her/his respective embassy

141. As part of the SOP on Admission of Inmates, the Desk Officer shall: a. Check the credentials of the person bringing the inmate to determine his/her/their identity and authority

b. Shall ask for the information and medical certificate issued by government hospital

c. Shall verify the authenticity of the Commitment Order d. All of the above

142. As part of the Jail Booking Procedure, the admitting officer shall: a. Ensure that the Inmate is fingerprinted and photographed

b. Subject the Inmate to strip-search to check for any markings, cuts, bruises and same shall be indicated in the jail booking report

c. Apprise the inmate in a dialect known to him of the provisions of Art 29 of the RPC as amended by RA 6127

d. All of the above

143. As laid down in the SOP for the Admission and Releasing of Inmates, the person responsible for the verification of the authenticity of the Release Order, upon receipt thereof, is none other than:

a. Property Custodian b. Records /Admin Officer c. Desk Officer

d. Jail Warden

144. The person responsible for the processing of inmates release ,

verification of data on Inmate’s Carpeta to that of the Release Order and routing of release papers to proper signatories is none other than: a. Property Custodian

b. Records /Admin Officer c. Desk Officer

d. Jail Warden

145. The person responsible for the receipt of property and deposited item of inmate and of returning the same, with proper logbook entry is none other than:

a. Property Custodian b. Records /Admin Officer c. Desk Officer

d. Jail Warden

146. By telling ot hers of the stress, you:

a. Will make your coping with the stress easier b. Will get you in trouble with your officemates c. Will make you look very weak

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21 147. Jail officers who suffers from stress:

a. Should shift to less stressful work

b. Should eat larger amount of food to relieve their stress c. Should not discuss their stress with co-employees

d. May exhibit both physical and emotional reactions to the stress

148. Which of the following is false: a. Working in jail is a difficult job

b. It is possible to completely eliminate stress in life c. Feeling stress is not a sign of weakness

d. One way to eliminate stress is a change of environment 149. A jail officer who suppresses his feelings:

a. Endangers inmates and personnel in jail b. Helps in making the jail environment calm c. Learns to cope up with stress

d. Becomes more relaxed as time passes 150. An example of defense mechanism is:

a. Blaming others for your mistake b. Judo Karate

c. Rapid Heartbeat

d. Helping others in stress

151. Which of the following will not help reduce stress a. Asking assistance from friends and family b. Developing ways to solve problems c. Doing exercises

d. Rationalizing your behavior

152. The first step in coping with stress is: a. Complaining to your immediate superior b. Denying all the stress you feel

c. Taking a leave of absence

d. Observing how you react to stressful situations

153. If you were not included in the promotion, a positive way to cope with such feeling is to:

a. Treat inmates more harshly than usual b. Complain to your jail warden

c. Keep silent and do nothing

d. Discuss the situation with your supervisor

154. Which of the following is true?

a. Most male jail officers do not want female officers working in jail b. Female officers tend to have soothing effect on the jail environment c. Female officers need more protection from inmates

d. Female officers tend to increase tension in jails

155. When you are in a situation where you are interviewing an inmate in your office and after telling him something, the inmate refused to listen and starts shouting at you. As a jail officer, you suddenly felt like going away and leaving him. Such reaction is also called:

a. Fight

b. Stress coping c. Flight

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22 156. Your duty jail officer informed you that two (2) inmates are arguing in the

mess hall. Your heart begins to beat faster. Your body is at what stage? a. Flight

b. Alarm c. Resistance d. Anger

157. Officers dealing with opposite sex should:

a. Never do a search without the presence of other officer of the inmates’ sex

b. Observe all basic rules of inmate supervision without exception c. Feel free to used all methods to keep inmates under control d. Never do a strip search except in the presence of witnesses

158. The best type of interpersonal relationship can be described as:

a. Warm and intimate ones b. Keeping feelings to yourself

c. Vent your frustrations to your peers d. Gripe a lot

C. INMATES WELFARE AND DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS (15%)

159. “Morning Meeting” is found in what BJMP program? a. Livelihood Program component

b. Jail disciplinary Program component c. Therapeutic Community Modality Program d. Community Relations Service Program

160. The following are the purpose of “Morning Meeting”, except: a. To start the day

b. To demonstrate common concerns and solve immediate problems c. Enhance sense of community

d. To confront the person who made you feel bad

161. Which among the following statements is not included in the guiding principles of IWDP?

a. In accordance with the UN Standard in the Minimum Treatment of Inmates

b. Responsive and dynamic, providing treatment that is holistic and responsive in nature

c. Provides for retributive treatment

d. Creation is based on mutual trust and confidence

162. This kind of IWD service takes the form of subsistence such as food, clothing, hygienic supplies,etc.

a. Health Services

b. Provisions for Basic Needs c. Livelihood Services

d. Educational Services

163. This IWD activity is concerned with the development of work values, individual worth and dignity, emotional catharsis and individual creativity. a. Religious Services

b. Livelihood Services

c. Sports and Recreation Services d. Educational Services

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23 164. This program consists of a set of physical, psychosocial, intellectual,

vocational and spiritual activities of interventions which facilitates inmate’s enhancement and wellbeing.

a. Counseling Program

b. Psycho – Diagnostic Program

c. Inmates’ Welfare and Development Program d. Peer Counselling

D. BJMP ADMINISTRATIVE MATTERS (10%) (Latest Policies, Issuances/Pertinent Laws)

165. What is the corresponding disciplinary measure imposed under the BJMP Standard Operating Procedures, once a visitor is caught in possession of a merely Prohibited and nuisance contraband? an Illegal Contraband for the first time?

a. The visitor shall be filed an appropriate case in court b. The visitor shall be subjected to pay fines

c. The visitor shall be given a warning and the contraband shall be confiscated and turned over to the Property Custodian for proper disposal d. The visitor shall be considered a delinquent visitor and shall be banned from entering the facility

166. Under the BJMP Standard Operating Procedures, a visitor caught in possession of an Illegal Contraband shall be:

a. Denied immediate entry to the facility b. Shall be arrested by the jail authorities

c. shall be turned-over to the nearest police station for filing of appropriate cases

d. All of the above

167. Prior to classification and segregation of female inmates in relation to the BJMP SOP on Pregnant inmates, the jail administration is mandated to conduct :

a. Random Pregnancy tests to Female inmates prior to segregation b.Mandatory Pregnancy test to Female inmates prior to segregation c.Voluntary Pregnancy Test to Female inmates prior to segregation d. None of the above

168. Infants whose mothers are detained in BJMP jails are among those covered by the policy on “Pregnant Inmates and their Infants.” Under this policy, an infant is defined as:

a. A child in his/her toddler years

b. A child from Zero (0) to Twelve (12) Months Old

c. A Child from Zero (0) to Seventy – Two (72) Hours of Birth d. None of the Above

169. It is defined as the is force that a person uses which would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm. It is said to be the last resort in the use of force continuum.

a. Non-Deadly Force b. Deadly Force c. Weaponless COntrol d. Impact Weapons

170. It is the use of physical force towards an inmate with any device other than deadly force or firearm designed to temporarily incapacitate an inmate.

a. Deadly Force b. Non - Deadly Force c. Weaponless COntrol d. Impact Weapons

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24 171. Which among the following is an example of an impact weapon?

a. Night Sticks b. Firearm

c. Pepper gun spray d. Restraining Devices

172. Acts, which includes negotiation, persuasion and/or verbalization that is resorted to when the mere presence of jail officers is not enough to contain the situation requiring the personnel to give orders to ensure compliance by the inmates.

a. Verbal tussle

b. Verbal Containment c. Verbal Abuse d. Verbal altercation

173. A situation of high probability that a hazard, condition or activity caused by an inmate or group of inmates which will be injurious to themselves, to jail personnel and visitors is so likely to occur almost immediately and without warning.

a. Imminent Danger b. Immediate Danger c. Hostile Intent d. hostile Act

174. Any condition or practice in a place of employment where such a danger exists which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the happening of such danger can be eliminated through the procedures.

a. Imminent Danger b. Immediate Danger c. Hostile Intent d. hostile Act

175. Which of the following best explains the accountability of public officials and employees to the people?

a. It is provided in the Constitution b. It is expected of very public employee

c. They must prove that they are deserving of trust of the people d. They are guided by norms, conduct and discipline

176. Which of the following is not a ground for impeachment of public officials?

a. Treason b. Bribery

c. Traffic Violations

d. Humiliating the under privileged

177. Which of the following cases best explains the need for a policy on discipline?

a. Chartering red tape b. Betraying public trust

c. Fabricating public documents d. Humiliating the under privileged

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25 178. Which of the following acts is not meritorious?

a. Serving everyone regardless of party affiliation?

b. Responding to letters and request upon receipt thereof within 15 days

c. Acting immediately on public transactions d. Receiving token gifts from clients

179. As a public official you must observe norms of conduct in the performance of your official duties. Which of the following norms you should refrain from practicing?

a. Political party affiliation b. Simple living

c. Professionalism d. Justness and sincerity

180. Which of the following has the sole power to try and decide all cases of impeachment?

a. House of Representatives b. Senate

c. Ombudsman d. Sandiganbayan

181. Public officers and employees are accountable to:

a. the private sector b. the underprivileged c. the people

d. the government

182. Which of the following has the exclusive power to initiate all cases of impeachment?

a. House of Representatives b. Senate

c. Ombudsman d. Sandiganbayan

183. If you are administratively disciplined, the object is not to:

a. improve public service

b. preserve the people’s faith and confidence in the government c. punish you

d. emphasize the positive aspect of personnel discipline

184. Which of the following lessons you do not consider as the result of being preventively suspended:

a. the value of exemplary performance b. the value of quality outputs

c. the behavior of being non-productive d. the quality of high standards of behavior

185. Which among the following are not considered “Public Officials” under Republic Act 6713?

a. Elective and Appointive Officials

b. Employees in the career or non-career service whether or not they receive compensation

c. Military and Police Personnel d. None of the above

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26 186. In an organization, the resource management system needs to have

check and balance in order for an organization to function smoothly. In BJMP, what particular office is responsible for this function?

a. I & I

b. Legal Service c. Internal Audit Unit d. Inspectorate Unit

187. Who appraise the Chief, BJMP on the on-going investigation of erring personnel?

a. Chief, Legal Service

b. Director for Investigation and Prosecution c. Chief, Inspectorate Unit

d. All of the above

188. The doctrine of Command Responsibility was institutionalized in all government offices, particularly at all levels of command in the PNP and other law enforcement agencies. The supervisor or officer is held liable of this offense if he has:

a. Knowledge that a crime or offense shall be committed by his subordinates or by others within his AOR

b. Knowledge that a crime or offense is being committed by his subordinates, or by others within AOR

c. Knowledge that a crime or offense has been committed by his subordinates or by others within his AOR.

d. All of the above

189. Which one among the following functions is discharged by the Warden? a. Draft and promulgate rules, policies, programs and standards on jail

management.

b. Exercise close supervision over all directorates, regional offices, provincial offices including district, city and municipal jails.

c. Ensure the security and development of inmates. d. All of the above.

190. The third highest official of the BJMP is: a. Chief Directorial Staff

b. Deputy Chief for Operations c. Deputy Chief for Administration d. Director for Logistics

191. With the enactment of Republic Act No. 9263, the rank of Superintendent is appointed by:

a. Secretary, DILG b. Chief, BJMP c. Regional Director d. None of the above

192. The appointing authority for Jail Officer 2 is: a. Chief, BJMP

b. Regional Director

c. Undersecretary for Public Safety d. None of the above

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27 193. The required training for the rank of Jail Officer 1 is:

a. PSJSC b. PSSSC c. JBRC d. PSOOC

194. Chief Superintendent is the rank required to hold the helm of Directorates at the National Headquarters. Which of the following Directorates is not a Program Director?

a. Directorate for Program Development b. Directorate for HRRM

c. Directorate for Logistics d. Directorate for Operations

195. What non-work related factor contributes to employees being non- productive/ non-performer in our bureau?

a. Lack of training b. Personal problems c. Lack of work orientation d. All of the above

195. Punctuality and attendance form part of an employees performance evaluation. As an immediate superior, when do you rate your subordinate the numeral rating of 6?

a. Not more than 9-12 days absent b. Not more than 13-16 days absent c. Not more than 5-8 days absent d. Not more than 4 days absent

197. Which of the following designations chaired the National Personnel Selection and Promotion Board ( NPSPB)?

a. CDS b. DCA c. DCO d. DHRRM

198. Which of the following designations act as Chairman of the Grievance Committee in the National Headquarters?

a. CDS b. DCA c. DCO

d. Director for HRRM

199. Which among the following designations is not a member of the Regional PRAISE Committee?

a. Chief, Logistics Div

b. Chief, Comptrollership Div c. Chief, Operations Div d. Chief, Program Dev’t Div

200. The suspended personnel for three (3) months do not enjoy the: a. Mid/Year End Bonus

b. RCA

c. Longevity Pay d. None of the above

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28 201. The following personnel is qualified to receive his Terminal Leave

Benefits (TLB) except personnel who: a. Opt to retire before age 56

b. Resign from the service with no leave credits c. Left his station without official leave

d. Apply and qualify for CDD

202. It is the bureau’s policy to consider the entry of individuals who meet the criteria under the Minimum Qualification Standards, except in cases of:

a. Individuals who are exceptionally skilled

b. Individuals whose technical expertise is in the field of penology

c. Applicants who have previous government service but more than 40 years old when number of years served is deducted.

d. Individuals whose technical know-how is urgently needed by the Bureau

203. Under the Merit Selection & Promotion Plan (MSPP), a qualified next-in-rank personnel and/or any aggrieved party who is not considered for promotion to the next higher position may present his case to : a. Directorate for I & I

b. Legal Service

c. Grievance Machinery d. Inspectorate Unit

204. The effective date of appointment shall be the date of : a. issuance of such appointment

b. actual assumption to office c. on-the-job training

d. None of the above

205. Records management is defined as the application of systematic and scientific control of record information which is required in the operation of an organization. Which of the following activities do not involve records management?

a. Creation of records b. Storage of records c. Disposition of records d. Auction of records

206. Records management plays a vital function to any organization. Which one among the following is not considered as function of records management?

a. Program the record’s file cycle b. Simplify correspondence

c. Ensure improved quality of information

d. Aid management in its fundamental responsibilities

207. ____________ is the organization’s operation wherein exchanges of written ideas between two sources occur.

a. Report Management b. Records Creation c. Policy Creation d. Directives Creation

208. Which of the following is not considered as problem in handling records?

a. Cost of keeping and maintaining records b. Lack of specific records policy

c. Increased production of records by means of office automation, photocopier, etc.

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29 209. Easy and quick access to records define a sound records

management. Which of the following is adopted for effective records management?

a. Records Custodian adopts records Classification system b. Records Custodian adopts records charged-out cards c. Records Custodian disposes records without

documentation

d. Records Custodian maintains records in a dark room

210. Under RA 6713, government agencies should act promptly on letters , telegrams or other means of communication within how many days?

a. Within Ten (10) days b. Within fifteen (15) Days c. Within Thirty (30) days d. None of the Above

211. Under RA 6713, what is the maximum number of signatory which should be contained in papers and documents in order to be processed expeditiously?

a. One ( 1) Signatory b. Two (2) Signatory c. Three (3) Signatory d. Four (4) Signatory

212. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall always uphold the public interest over and above personal interest.

a. Commitment to public interest b. Justness and Sincerity

c. Responsiveness to the Public d. Professionalism

213. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall extend prompt, courteous, and adequate service to the public, simplify and systematize policy, rules and procedures, avoid red tape and develop an understanding and appreciation of the socio-economic conditions prevailing in the country.

a. Commitment to public interest b. Justness and Sincerity

c. Responsiveness to the Public d. Professionalism

214. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall at all times be loyal to the Republic and to the Filipino people, promote the use of locally produced goods, resources and technology and encourage appreciation and pride of country and people.

a. Nationalism and Patriotism b. Commitment to Democracy c. Commitment to public interest d. Justness and Sincerity

215. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall commit themselves to the democratic way of life and values, maintain the principle of public

accountability, and manifest by deeds the supremacy of civilian authority over the military. They shall at all times uphold the Constitution and put loyalty to country above loyalty to persons or party.

a. Nationalism and Patriotism b. Commitment to Democracy c. Commitment to public interest d. Justness and Sincerity

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30 216. Married male employees with more than one (1) legal spouse are entitled to

avail of Paternity Leave. Regardless of whichever spouse gives birth, the maximum number of deliveries which can be availed of is:

a. Two (2) deliveries b. Three (3) deliveries c. Four (4) deliveries d. Five (5) deliveries

217. Which of the following statement is false with regard to availment of the three (3) day Special Leave Privileges?

a. It maybe availed of for personal milestones including death anniversaries b. Parental Obligations such as attendance in school programs

c. It may only be availed of in a continuous and not in intermittent manner d. It maybe availed of during domestic emergencies, calamity, accident, hospitalization

218. When an official or employee who is on leave without pay for One (1) Year, fails to report for work at the expiration of the leave applied for, he shall be considered:

a. AWOL

b. Automatically separated from the service c. Shall be furnished with a Return to Work Order d. Shal be considered dropped from the Rolls

219. Study Leave is a time off-from work with pay for those qualified officials and employees who are taking e.g. board exam or completion of master’s degree. What is the maximum number of months that maybe availed of, under the Study Leave Program?

a. Three (3) Months b. Four (4) months c. Five (5) Months d. Six (6) Months

220. Period of Grant is the number of months availed of under the Study Leave Program. What is the equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for One (1) month?

a. Three Months b. Six (6) Months c. One (1) Year d. Two (2)Years

221. What is the equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for two to three (2-3) months?

a. Three Months b. Six (6) Months c. One (1) Year d. Two (2)Years

222. What is the equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for more than three (3) months?

a. Three Months b. Six (6) Months c. One (1) Year d. Two (2)Years

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31 PART II. WARDENSHIP MANUAL NOTES

KINDS OF WARDEN AND LEADERSHIP STYLES (Culled from BJMP Wardenship Manual Notes)

223. Which of the following role is true among jail wardens?

a. Warden as leader and mentor b. Warden as spokesperson c. Warden as figurehead d. All of the above

224. When a warden is said to be a figurehead, he deems to perform functions such as:

a. Diplomacy and goodwill with other units through pleasant and collaborative shoulder-rubbing with other government agencies, NGO’s and civic groups

b. Seeks inflow of information in his office and updates to come up with wise decisions and relevant actions

c. Symbolic image of the jail which will stand for the unit in ceremonial and civic activities inside and outside the workplace

d. All of the above

225. Which among the following shows good traits of the warden as a Leader and a Mentor?

a. A Warden which uses Diplomacy and goodwill with other units through pleasant and collaborative shoulder-rubbing with other government agencies, NGO’s and civic groups

b. One who Seeks inflow of information in his office and updates to come up with wise decisions and relevant actions

c. Serves as symbolic image of the jail which will stand for the unit in ceremonial and civic activities inside and outside the workplace d. A warden that leads and tries not to drive by initiating jail activities,

coordinates efforts and motivates personnel to produce great results.

226. Which among the following does not cater to Inmates Welfare and Development?

a. Education and skills training b. Medical and dental services c. Wok programs

d. None of the above

227. In planning, wardens must be able to draft a SMART plan. A SMART plan means:

a. A wise plan that can provide solution to jail problems

b. A plan that will provide options to the warden in finding ways to address jail incidents

c. A plan that is specific, measurable, attainable, result oriented and time bounded.

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32 228. An action-hungry warden, who gives oneself to hardwork ,highly

dedicated and a serious worker who will not give in to bribing or any anomalous deals, is said to be a:

a. Warden by “Lusot” b. Warden by “Kayod” c. Warden by “Libro” d. Warden by “Oido”

229. A kind of Warden who capitalizes on a loophole to avoid too much work, or as an excuse for failure. This kind of warden is also fond of making shortcuts thru unconventional and illegal ways to attain the objectives is what kind of warden?

a. Warden by “Lusot” b. Warden by “Kayod” c. Warden by “Libro” d. Warden by “Ugnayan”

230. This type of warden operates by the dictates of the book what the manuals and other formal documents say. He/she is systematic, thorough, and analytical.

a. Warden by “Lusot” b. Warden by “Kayod” c. Warden by “Libro” d. Warden by “Ugnayan”

231. This type of warden is said to be one having a vast field of practical experiences to compensate for the lack of formal management education.

a. Warden by “Lusot” b. Warden by “Kayod” c. Warden by “Libro” d. Warden by “Oido”

232. A hybrid of all types of wardens deemed as a gifted reconciler of all philosophies and beliefs who adopts various styles of management depending on the need and conditions of the organization. This type of warden is participatory and coordinative.

a. Warden by “Lusot” b. Warden by “Kayod” c. Warden by “Libro” d. Warden by “Ugnayan”

233. It is said to be the art of influencing and directing people in a manner that wins their obedience, confidence, respect and enthusiastic cooperation in achieving a common objective:

a. Planning b. Coordinating c. Leadership d. Directing

==================================================== “ Life is my teacher…. And I will always be its’ humble student” - Michelle Ng Bonto

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