54209185-Pharmacy-mcq-5

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PHARMACY PREP FINAL TEST 1

1-. A person seeking informati

1-. A person seeking information about his GERD condition treatment on about his GERD condition treatment and he describesand he describes that he is currently on medication

that he is currently on medication for his constipation condition. Which of the for his constipation condition. Which of the followingfollowing antacid, is suitable for his GERD cond

antacid, is suitable for his GERD condition.ition. I.Magnesium hydroxide I.Magnesium hydroxide II.Aluminum hydroxide II.Aluminum hydroxide III.Calcium carbonate III.Calcium carbonate A.I only A.I only B.III only B.III only C.I and II only C.I and II only D.II and III only D.II and III only E. All of the above E. All of the above

2- Calcium, one of the most abundant metal in the body suffers reabsorption in which 2- Calcium, one of the most abundant metal in the body suffers reabsorption in which part of the kidney?

part of the kidney? a) Proximal Tubules a) Proximal Tubules b) Distal tubules b) Distal tubules c) Collecting tubules c) Collecting tubules d) Nefrons d) Nefrons e) Glomerulus e) Glomerulus

3- Treatment for CNS toxicity associated with a

3- Treatment for CNS toxicity associated with anticholinergic poisoningnticholinergic poisoning A. Atropine A. Atropine B.Neostigmine B.Neostigmine C.Pyridostigmin C.Pyridostigminee D.Edrophonium D.Edrophonium E. Physostigmine E. Physostigmine

4- Which of the following cytochrome is the most abundant in the body? 4- Which of the following cytochrome is the most abundant in the body? a) 3A4 a) 3A4 b) 3A2 b) 3A2 c) 2A6 c) 2A6 d) 2C6 d) 2C6 e) 1A4 e) 1A4

5- Hoshimoto disease is the most common form of chronic thyroiditis. It most often 5- Hoshimoto disease is the most common form of chronic thyroiditis. It most often occurs in middle aged woman and most patient show evidence of:

occurs in middle aged woman and most patient show evidence of: A. Hyperthyroidism

A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C.

C. Thyroid Thyroid carcinomacarcinoma D.

D. Malignant Malignant hyperthyroidismhyperthyroidism E.Malignant hypothryroidism E.Malignant hypothryroidism

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6- 20. Safe antiemetic drug used in morning sickness? 6- 20. Safe antiemetic drug used in morning sickness? A. Scopolamine A. Scopolamine B.Diphenhydramine. B.Diphenhydramine. C.Meclizine C.Meclizine D.Promethazine D.Promethazine E. Dimenhydrinate E. Dimenhydrinate

7- Unsafe food is the common cause

7- Unsafe food is the common cause of travelers diarrhea, what kind of of travelers diarrhea, what kind of food consideredfood considered safe food during traveling?

safe food during traveling? I.Peeled fruits

I.Peeled fruits

II.Carbonated beverages with no ice cubes II.Carbonated beverages with no ice cubes III.Fresh soft cheese

III.Fresh soft cheese A.I only

A.I only B.III only B.III only

C.I and II only C.I and II only D.II and III only D.II and III only E. All of the above E. All of the above

8- Patients have diarrhea should avoid all of the following drug EXCEPT: 8- Patients have diarrhea should avoid all of the following drug EXCEPT: A. Magnesium containing antacids

A. Magnesium containing antacids B. H

B. H22 Receptor Antagonists Receptor Antagonists

C. Proton Pump Inhibitors C. Proton Pump Inhibitors D. Muscarinic antagonist D. Muscarinic antagonist E.

E. ββ-blockers-blockers

9- Nowadays, we have a variety of medications used to treat diaper rash in babies. 9- Nowadays, we have a variety of medications used to treat diaper rash in babies. Treatment of uncomplicated diaper rash may include:

Treatment of uncomplicated diaper rash may include: I- Nystatin

I- Nystatin II- Zinc oxide II- Zinc oxide

III- White petroleum III- White petroleum a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct e) All are correct

10- Constipation is a common problem in elderly patient, treatment include the what type 10- Constipation is a common problem in elderly patient, treatment include the what type of following laxatives?

of following laxatives?

I.Docusate sodium (emollient laxatives) I.Docusate sodium (emollient laxatives) II.Lactulose

II.Lactulose

III.Glycerine suppositories III.Glycerine suppositories A..

A.. I I onlyonly B.

B. III III onlyonly C.

C. I and I and II II onlyonly D.

D. II II and III and III onlyonly E.

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11- All are examples of drugs used

11- All are examples of drugs used for hypersensitivity allergic reactions EXCEPT:for hypersensitivity allergic reactions EXCEPT: a) Diphenhydranate a) Diphenhydranate b) Loratidine b) Loratidine c) Cimetidine c) Cimetidine d) Hydroxyzine d) Hydroxyzine e) Promethazine e) Promethazine

12- All of the following eye drops can be used in allergic ophthalmic disorders EXCEPT: 12- All of the following eye drops can be used in allergic ophthalmic disorders EXCEPT: a) Latanoprost a) Latanoprost b) Hydrocortisone b) Hydrocortisone c) Dexamethasone c) Dexamethasone d) Prednisone d) Prednisone e) Cromolyn e) Cromolyn

13- Possibilities that should be considered

13- Possibilities that should be considered in additive or multiple effects of aspirinin additive or multiple effects of aspirin

therapy leading to impaired blood clotting and/or increased risk of bleeding may occurs if therapy leading to impaired blood clotting and/or increased risk of bleeding may occurs if Salicylate are used concurrently with:

Salicylate are used concurrently with:

a) Medication having significant potential to cause hypoprothrombinemia a) Medication having significant potential to cause hypoprothrombinemia b) Medication having significant potential to cause thrombocytopenia b) Medication having significant potential to cause thrombocytopenia

c) Medication having significant potential to cause gastrointestinal ulceration c) Medication having significant potential to cause gastrointestinal ulceration d) Medication having significant potential to cause hemorrhage

d) Medication having significant potential to cause hemorrhage e) All are correct answers.

e) All are correct answers.

14- Cholecystitis, normally characterized by edema and congestion to severe infection 14- Cholecystitis, normally characterized by edema and congestion to severe infection with gangrene and perforation is an inflammation of:

with gangrene and perforation is an inflammation of: I- Gallbladder I- Gallbladder II- Liver II- Liver III- Heart III- Heart a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

15- All of the following increase the

15- All of the following increase the risk of metabolic acidosis, EXCEPTrisk of metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT a) Renal failure a) Renal failure b) Starvation b) Starvation c) Methanol toxicity c) Methanol toxicity d) Thiazides d) Thiazides

e) Carbonic anhydrase diuretics e) Carbonic anhydrase diuretics 16- All of the following may be

16- All of the following may be examples of drugs that may be examples of drugs that may be taken with food,taken with food, EXCEPT:

EXCEPT: a) Celebicox a) Celebicox

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b) Indomethacin b) Indomethacin c) Acetaphinocen c) Acetaphinocen d) Chlaritromycin d) Chlaritromycin e) Sulcrafate e) Sulcrafate 17-

17- Safe antiemetic Safe antiemetic drug used idrug used in morning n morning sickness?sickness? A. Scopolamine A. Scopolamine B.Diphenhydramine. B.Diphenhydramine. C.Meclizine C.Meclizine D.Promethazine D.Promethazine E. Dimenhydrinate E. Dimenhydrinate

18- Antineoplastic immunosupressant agent having hemorrhagic cystitis as side effect, 18- Antineoplastic immunosupressant agent having hemorrhagic cystitis as side effect, include: include: a) Cytarabine a) Cytarabine b) Vincristine b) Vincristine c) Tamoxifen c) Tamoxifen d) Cyclophosphamide d) Cyclophosphamide e) Stilbestrol e) Stilbestrol 19-

19- Poisoning symPoisoning symptoms ptoms such as such as Diarrhea, UriDiarrhea, Urination, Miosisnation, Miosis, Bronchoconstriction,, Bronchoconstriction, S

Salivation or sweating caused by antiacetylcholinesterases can be treated by:alivation or sweating caused by antiacetylcholinesterases can be treated by: A.Pralidoxime (2-PAM) A.Pralidoxime (2-PAM) B.Atropine B.Atropine C.Physostigmine C.Physostigmine D.Neostigmine D.Neostigmine E.Donepezil E.Donepezil

20- Characteristics of nephrotic syndrome may include

20- Characteristics of nephrotic syndrome may include all of the following, EXCEPT:all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Protein urea a) Protein urea b) Hypoalbuminemia b) Hypoalbuminemia c) Edema c) Edema d) Hyperalbuminemia d) Hyperalbuminemia e) Hyperlipidemia e) Hyperlipidemia

21- Conditions that may be the result of long-term treatment with cortisone may include: 21- Conditions that may be the result of long-term treatment with cortisone may include: I- Cushing syndrome

I- Cushing syndrome II- Osteoporosis II- Osteoporosis

III- Addison’s disease III- Addison’s disease a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

22- Which of the following agent

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a) Tolnaftate a) Tolnaftate b) Terbinefrine b) Terbinefrine c) Fluconazole c) Fluconazole d) Bethamethasone d) Bethamethasone e) Clotrimazole e) Clotrimazole

23- Atropine blocks which of

23- Atropine blocks which of the following neurotransmitterthe following neurotransmitter A.Epinephrine A.Epinephrine B.Norepinephrine B.Norepinephrine C.Acetylcholine C.Acetylcholine D.Dopamine D.Dopamine E.methyl dopa E.methyl dopa

24- Acetaminophen and aspirin may

24- Acetaminophen and aspirin may be therapeutically similar. Which of the followingbe therapeutically similar. Which of the following case(s) we can give acetaminophen instead of aspirin?

case(s) we can give acetaminophen instead of aspirin? I- Fever

I- Fever

II- Headaches II- Headaches III- Blood thinner III- Blood thinner a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

25- Factors that my increase the risk of renal failure may include: 25- Factors that my increase the risk of renal failure may include: a) Hemorrhage a) Hemorrhage b) Heart diseases b) Heart diseases c) Oliguria c) Oliguria d) Pulmonary edema d) Pulmonary edema e) All are correct e) All are correct

26- Differences between H

26- Differences between H11 and H and H22 inhibitors may include: inhibitors may include:

I- They have a very similar chemical structure I- They have a very similar chemical structure II- H

II- H11 is involved in allergic reactions inhibition while H is involved in allergic reactions inhibition while H22 is involved in gastric acid is involved in gastric acid

inhibition inhibition

III- Tertiary amine, alkyl chain, and aryl or heteroaryl groups are essential for activity of III- Tertiary amine, alkyl chain, and aryl or heteroaryl groups are essential for activity of H1 and H2 antihistamines. H1 and H2 antihistamines. a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

27- Excessive pressure known as pressure atrophy may be caused by: 27- Excessive pressure known as pressure atrophy may be caused by: a) Gigantism

a) Gigantism b) Bed sores b) Bed sores

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c) Postural hypotension c) Postural hypotension d) Postural position d) Postural position e) All are wrong e) All are wrong

28- All of the following may be side effects associated with corticosteroids treatment, 28- All of the following may be side effects associated with corticosteroids treatment, EXCEPT:

EXCEPT:

a) Hypoglycemia a) Hypoglycemia

b) Sketetal muscle weakness b) Sketetal muscle weakness

c) Sodium retention c) Sodium retention d) Peptic ulceration d) Peptic ulceration

e) Lower resistance to infection e) Lower resistance to infection

29.Drug of choice Gastroesophageal reflux disease symptoms relief (GERD) 29.Drug of choice Gastroesophageal reflux disease symptoms relief (GERD) I.H

I.H22 antagonist antagonist

II.Alginic acid II.Alginic acid III.Liquid antacids III.Liquid antacids a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

30- The xanthine oxidase inhibitor allopurinol indicated in gout, which is the principle 30- The xanthine oxidase inhibitor allopurinol indicated in gout, which is the principle metabolite of allopurinol. metabolite of allopurinol. A.Dextropurinol A.Dextropurinol B.Oxipurinol B.Oxipurinol C.Purineol C.Purineol D.Purine D.Purine E.Thiolpurine E.Thiolpurine

31- Local injection therapy for erectile deficiency may include which of the following 31- Local injection therapy for erectile deficiency may include which of the following agents? agents? a) Sildenafil a) Sildenafil b) Prazosin b) Prazosin c) Yohimbine c) Yohimbine d) Alprostadil d) Alprostadil e) Finasteride e) Finasteride

32- Which of the following agents may

32- Which of the following agents may be classified as 5HTbe classified as 5HT11receptor antagonist used forreceptor antagonist used for

the treatment of migraine? the treatment of migraine? a) Propanolol a) Propanolol b) Sumatriptam b) Sumatriptam c) Indomethacin c) Indomethacin d) Amitriptiline d) Amitriptiline e) Naproxen e) Naproxen

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33- Which of the following statements is wrong regarding

33- Which of the following statements is wrong regarding antifungal drugs?antifungal drugs? a) They essentially assist the host immune system with the

a) They essentially assist the host immune system with the fight against fungus.fight against fungus. b) In general, they are poorly soluble drugs.

b) In general, they are poorly soluble drugs.

c) They can be classified against systemic or superficial fungal infection. c) They can be classified against systemic or superficial fungal infection. d) Polyene antifungals work by inhibiting synthesis of ergosterol. d) Polyene antifungals work by inhibiting synthesis of ergosterol. e) Azole antifungal work by

e) Azole antifungal work by inhibiting synthesis of ergosterol.inhibiting synthesis of ergosterol.

34- What should be considered when selecting a drug for breast-feeding mother? 34- What should be considered when selecting a drug for breast-feeding mother? a) Quantity of milk that the child receives daily

a) Quantity of milk that the child receives daily b) Inherent toxicity of the drug

b) Inherent toxicity of the drug

c) Rate and extent of drug passage into breast milk c) Rate and extent of drug passage into breast milk d) Basic drugs may diffuse more into breast milk than

d) Basic drugs may diffuse more into breast milk than acid drugsacid drugs e) All of the above are correct

e) All of the above are correct

35- Wrong statement regarding the use of etidronate may include which of the following? 35- Wrong statement regarding the use of etidronate may include which of the following? a) It is a biphosphonate

a) It is a biphosphonate

b) It is used to treat Paget’s disease b) It is used to treat Paget’s disease

c) It is used to treat hypercalcemia of malignancy c) It is used to treat hypercalcemia of malignancy

d) Patient should not lie down for at least 30 minutes after the taken dose d) Patient should not lie down for at least 30 minutes after the taken dose e) Can be taken before bed time.

e) Can be taken before bed time.

36- Prophylactic treatment of osteoporosis in a menopause woman normally is done by 36- Prophylactic treatment of osteoporosis in a menopause woman normally is done by the oral administration of which of the following agents?

the oral administration of which of the following agents? a) Estrogen only a) Estrogen only b) Progesterone only b) Progesterone only c) Estrogen + progesterone c) Estrogen + progesterone d) Calcitrol d) Calcitrol e) Vitamin D e) Vitamin D

37- Antifungal agent that is not absorbed from the GI tract and therefore needs to be 37- Antifungal agent that is not absorbed from the GI tract and therefore needs to be administrated only intravenously or topically:

administrated only intravenously or topically: a) Fluconazole a) Fluconazole b) Clotrimazole b) Clotrimazole c) Amphotericin B c) Amphotericin B d) Nystatin d) Nystatin e) Itraconazole e) Itraconazole

38- Immunosupressant drug normally used as the drug of choice in the prevention of 38- Immunosupressant drug normally used as the drug of choice in the prevention of transplant rejection include:

transplant rejection include: a) Cyclosporine a) Cyclosporine b) Neostigmine b) Neostigmine c) Vincristine c) Vincristine d) Cytarabine d) Cytarabine e) Muromonab e) Muromonab

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39- The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis may be best treated by administration of 39- The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis may be best treated by administration of which of the following agents?

which of the following agents? a) Salbutamol a) Salbutamol b) Diphenhydramine b) Diphenhydramine c) Adrenaline c) Adrenaline d) Acetazolamine d) Acetazolamine e) Aminiphyline e) Aminiphyline

40- Muscles are present all over the body. Biceps muscles are part of: 40- Muscles are present all over the body. Biceps muscles are part of: I- Arm

I- Arm II- Thigh II- Thigh III- Rib cage III- Rib cage a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

41- Bones are responsible for the support of human body. Ileum, ischium and pubis are 41- Bones are responsible for the support of human body. Ileum, ischium and pubis are skeletal structure of:

skeletal structure of: a) Hip bones a) Hip bones b) Brain bones b) Brain bones c) Shoulder bones c) Shoulder bones d) Leg bones d) Leg bones e) Arm bones e) Arm bones

42- What is normally found in all connective tissues? 42- What is normally found in all connective tissues? a) Mucoids a) Mucoids b) Albuminoids b) Albuminoids c) Lipid c) Lipid d) Polysaccharides d) Polysaccharides e) All of the above e) All of the above

43- Correct statements regarding the management of diabetes in Canada include: 43- Correct statements regarding the management of diabetes in Canada include: I- The fasting glucose in diagnosis is 7.8mmol/L

I- The fasting glucose in diagnosis is 7.8mmol/L II- Mass screening for type II diabetes is n

II- Mass screening for type II diabetes is not recommendedot recommended

III- Glycosylated hemoglobin should be measured every 6 months in people taking III- Glycosylated hemoglobin should be measured every 6 months in people taking hypoglycemic agents hypoglycemic agents a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

44- Bacturia and polyuria are normally characteristics of which of the following 44- Bacturia and polyuria are normally characteristics of which of the following conditions?

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a) Gastrointestinal infections a) Gastrointestinal infections b) Urinary tract infections b) Urinary tract infections c) Respiratory tract infections c) Respiratory tract infections d) Cardiovascular infections d) Cardiovascular infections e) Ocular infections

e) Ocular infections

45- Capsaicin, also known as

45- Capsaicin, also known as Zostrix is an OTC medication with which of Zostrix is an OTC medication with which of the followingthe following characteristics?

characteristics?

I- It is a hot pepper extract I- It is a hot pepper extract

II- Produce an analgesic effect after several doses II- Produce an analgesic effect after several doses III- Produce heat, a transient burning on application III- Produce heat, a transient burning on application a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

46- Examples of drug used as antihelmintic, their side effect cause red urine, stool and 46- Examples of drug used as antihelmintic, their side effect cause red urine, stool and vomit coloration include:

vomit coloration include: a) Metronidazole a) Metronidazole b) Amphoterricin b) Amphoterricin c) Pyrvinium pamoate c) Pyrvinium pamoate d) Tolnaftate d) Tolnaftate e) Capsaicin e) Capsaicin

47- Process normally used to decrease the absorption at site of an injection may include: 47- Process normally used to decrease the absorption at site of an injection may include: I- Cooling I- Cooling II- Heating II- Heating III- Massage III- Massage a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

48- Vincristine is an anticancer drug with which of the following characteristics? 48- Vincristine is an anticancer drug with which of the following characteristics? I- Inhibit mitotic spindle formation

I- Inhibit mitotic spindle formation

II- Fatal if administrated intrathecally, intravenous administration only. II- Fatal if administrated intrathecally, intravenous administration only. III- It is an antineoplastic agent

III- It is an antineoplastic agent a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

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49- Bones are very important in the support of the human body. The most important 49- Bones are very important in the support of the human body. The most important bone(s) found in the leg may include:

bone(s) found in the leg may include: I- Tibia I- Tibia II- Fibular II- Fibular III- Radius III- Radius a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

50- Bones found in the skeletal structure of shoulder may include which of the following? 50- Bones found in the skeletal structure of shoulder may include which of the following? I- Scapula I- Scapula II- Humerus II- Humerus III- Spine III- Spine a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

51- The skeletal anatomical structure o

51- The skeletal anatomical structure of spine is constituted of:f spine is constituted of: I- Cervical spine

I- Cervical spine II- Thoracic spine II- Thoracic spine III- Lumbar spine III- Lumbar spine a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

52- Example of corticosteroid with lower sodium retention

52- Example of corticosteroid with lower sodium retention side effect may include:side effect may include: I- Betamethasone I- Betamethasone II- Dexamethasone II- Dexamethasone III- Prednisone III- Prednisone a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only

d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

53- Which of the following women has a predominate incidence of Urinary Tract 53- Which of the following women has a predominate incidence of Urinary Tract Infection-UTI?

Infection-UTI?

a) Women taking cranberry juice regularly a) Women taking cranberry juice regularly b) Breast-feed women

b) Breast-feed women c) Normal health women c) Normal health women

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d) Pregnant women

e) Women taking oral contraceptives e) Women taking oral contraceptives 54- Adrenergic antihistaminic agents are

54- Adrenergic antihistaminic agents are classified as:classified as: a) a)

αα

-blockers-blockers b) b)

ββ

11-stimulants-stimulants c) Phosphodiesterol c) Phosphodiesterol d) d)

ββ

-blockers-blockers e) e)

β

22-stimulants-stimulants

55- Examples of drug used for

55- Examples of drug used for prophylaxis of tuberculosis may include:prophylaxis of tuberculosis may include: a) Isoniazide a) Isoniazide b) Penicillin b) Penicillin c) Streptomycin c) Streptomycin d) Amphoterricin d) Amphoterricin e) Fluconazole e) Fluconazole 56- Example of sympathetic

56- Example of sympathetic

αα

-reductase inhibitor agent include:-reductase inhibitor agent include: a) Prazosin a) Prazosin b) Finasterid b) Finasterid c) Alprostadil c) Alprostadil d) Sildenafil d) Sildenafil e) Yohimbine e) Yohimbine

57- Correct statements regarding Fe salts may include

57- Correct statements regarding Fe salts may include which of the following?which of the following? a) Used in megaloblastic anemia

a) Used in megaloblastic anemia b) Require intrinsic factor

b) Require intrinsic factor c) Used in pernicious anemia c) Used in pernicious anemia d) High doses can damage

d) High doses can damage liver and tissues (Hemachromatosis)liver and tissues (Hemachromatosis)

e) Parenteral Fe salts can never be administrated e) Parenteral Fe salts can never be administrated 58- Liver cirrhoses may be characterized by: 58- Liver cirrhoses may be characterized by: I- Ascitis I- Ascitis II- Jaundice II- Jaundice III- Bleeding III- Bleeding a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

59- Gold therapy is normally associated with many adverse reactions. Side effects of 59- Gold therapy is normally associated with many adverse reactions. Side effects of Gold Therapy may include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Gold Therapy may include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Pruritis a) Pruritis b) Decrease in WBCs count b) Decrease in WBCs count c) Thrombocytopenia c) Thrombocytopenia

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d) Anaphylactic shocks d) Anaphylactic shocks e) All are correct

e) All are correct

60- Antiarrhythmic lidocaine pharmacological effect is characterized by which of the 60- Antiarrhythmic lidocaine pharmacological effect is characterized by which of the following mechanisms?

following mechanisms? a) No effect on the SA node a) No effect on the SA node

b) Suppress automatically in purkinje fibers and atrial muscle b) Suppress automatically in purkinje fibers and atrial muscle

c) Depression of phase Q depolarization

d) Decreases the effective refractory period on purkinje fibers and inhibit the duration d) Decreases the effective refractory period on purkinje fibers and inhibit the duration action potential

action potential

e) Shows a very little change in ECG e) Shows a very little change in ECG

61- Bismuth subsalicylate may be used in chronic cases of diarrhea. Which of the 61- Bismuth subsalicylate may be used in chronic cases of diarrhea. Which of the following mechanism is the most appropriate for bismuth subsalicylate?

following mechanism is the most appropriate for bismuth subsalicylate? a) Inhibit protein by local action

a) Inhibit protein by local action b) Has adsorbent proprieties b) Has adsorbent proprieties

c) Salicylate portion has antidiarrheal action due to inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

that may be a mediator of intestinal secretion

d) Blocks the stool due

d) Blocks the stool due to inhibition of bisulphitto inhibition of bisulphit e) It frequently causes GIT hemorrhage

e) It frequently causes GIT hemorrhage

62- Medication that should be advised to be taken with plenty of fluids may include: 62- Medication that should be advised to be taken with plenty of fluids may include: I- Lopressor I- Lopressor II- Clotrimazole II- Clotrimazole III- Allopurinol III- Allopurinol a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only

d) II and III only

63- All of the following may be symptoms associated with BPH, EXCEPT: 63- All of the following may be symptoms associated with BPH, EXCEPT: a) Nocturia a) Nocturia b) Oliguria b) Oliguria c) Incontinence c) Incontinence d) Weak urination d) Weak urination e) Speed jet of urine

e) Speed jet of urine

64- Erectly deficiency may be aggravated by which of the following conditions? 64- Erectly deficiency may be aggravated by which of the following conditions? a) Hypertension a) Hypertension b) Diabetes b) Diabetes c) Depression c) Depression d) Alcoholism d) Alcoholism

e) All the above aggravate ED

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65- Conjunctivitis is eye inflammation and may be caused by: 65- Conjunctivitis is eye inflammation and may be caused by: I- Viral agents

I- Viral agents II- Bacterial agents II- Bacterial agents III-Allergic agents III-Allergic agents a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

66- Edema is normally retention of water. All

66- Edema is normally retention of water. All of the following may cause edeof the following may cause edema,ma, EXCEPT: EXCEPT: a) Corticosteroids a) Corticosteroids b) Steroids medications b) Steroids medications c) Antibiotics c) Antibiotics d) Renal failure d) Renal failure e) Diabetes e) Diabetes

67- Considerations that should be taken in applying corticosteroids include: 67- Considerations that should be taken in applying corticosteroids include: a) Quantity applied a) Quantity applied b) Kind of lesion b) Kind of lesion c) Frequency of dose c) Frequency of dose d) Pigmentation of skin d) Pigmentation of skin e) Area to apply e) Area to apply

68- Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by which of the following? 68- Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by which of the following? a) elevation of arterial pH

a) elevation of arterial pH

b) Low CO b) Low CO22

c) Elevation of serum bilirrubine c) Elevation of serum bilirrubine d) Elevated H ions

d) Elevated H ions e) Low O

e) Low O22

69- All of the following eye drops may cause dilatation of pupil known as mydriac effect, 69- All of the following eye drops may cause dilatation of pupil known as mydriac effect, EXCEPT: EXCEPT: a) Atropine a) Atropine b) Cyclopentolate b) Cyclopentolate c) Homatropine c) Homatropine d) Neostigmine d) Neostigmine

e) All are right e) All are right

70- All of the following eye d

70- All of the following eye drops may cause a miosis effect, EXCEPT:rops may cause a miosis effect, EXCEPT: a) Pilocarpine a) Pilocarpine b) Neostigmine b) Neostigmine c) Atropine c) Atropine d) Timolol d) Timolol e) Physostigmine e) Physostigmine

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71- Glaucoma is eyes develop

71- Glaucoma is eyes develop condition. Which of the following condition. Which of the following statements is/are rightstatements is/are right regarding glaucoma?

regarding glaucoma?

I- Progressive optic neuropathy involving changes in optic nerve and visual field I- Progressive optic neuropathy involving changes in optic nerve and visual field II- Characterized by increase in intraocular pressure

II- Characterized by increase in intraocular pressure

III- Glaucoma may be classified in narrow and open angle. III- Glaucoma may be classified in narrow and open angle. a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

72- Drug used in the treatment of open angle glaucoma but contra indicated in the 72- Drug used in the treatment of open angle glaucoma but contra indicated in the treatment of narrow angle glaucoma may include:

treatment of narrow angle glaucoma may include: a) Epinephrine a) Epinephrine b) Timolol b) Timolol c) Pilocarpine c) Pilocarpine d) Latanoprost d) Latanoprost e) Levobunolol e) Levobunolol

73- PGE analog used in the treatment of glaucoma include: 73- PGE analog used in the treatment of glaucoma include: a) Alprostadil a) Alprostadil b) Dinoprostone b) Dinoprostone c) Finasteraid c) Finasteraid d) Latanoprost d) Latanoprost

74- Which of the following is a false statement regarding glaucoma? 74- Which of the following is a false statement regarding glaucoma? a) Open angle glaucoma affect 90% of the total glaucoma population a) Open angle glaucoma affect 90% of the total glaucoma population b) Narrow

b) Narrow angle glaucoma affect 50% of the total glaucoma populationangle glaucoma affect 50% of the total glaucoma population

c) Open angle glaucoma may be caused by chronic use of topical corticosteroids c) Open angle glaucoma may be caused by chronic use of topical corticosteroids d) Timolol eye drops can be used only in open angle glaucoma

d) Timolol eye drops can be used only in open angle glaucoma e) Open angle glaucoma is due to obstruction of aqueous drainage e) Open angle glaucoma is due to obstruction of aqueous drainage 75- Example of drug(s) used in stimulation of hair growth include: 75- Example of drug(s) used in stimulation of hair growth include: I- Finasteride I- Finasteride II- Minoxidil II- Minoxidil III- Diazoxide III- Diazoxide a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only

76-Alendronate sodium (Faxomax) is indicated in the treatment of: 76-Alendronate sodium (Faxomax) is indicated in the treatment of:

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I.Corticosteroid induced osteoporosis I.Corticosteroid induced osteoporosis II.Paget’s disease II.Paget’s disease III.Osteoarthritis III.Osteoarthritis A.I only A.I only B. III only B. III only C.I and II only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only D. II and III only

E. All of the above are correct E. All of the above are correct

77-Which of the following calcium salts provides the highest amount of elementary 77-Which of the following calcium salts provides the highest amount of elementary calcium. calcium. A.Calcium citrate A.Calcium citrate B.Calcium carbonate B.Calcium carbonate C.Calcium acetate C.Calcium acetate D.Calcium chloride D.Calcium chloride E.Calcium + Vitamin D E.Calcium + Vitamin D

78- Which of the following presentation is isotrentinoin,

78- Which of the following presentation is isotrentinoin, a vitamin A derivative used ina vitamin A derivative used in acne treatment? acne treatment? a) Orally only a) Orally only b) Topically only b) Topically only

c) Orally and topically c) Orally and topically d) For children only d) For children only

e) Available over-the-counter e) Available over-the-counter 79- The rate limit step in oph

79- The rate limit step in ophthalmic drug absorption is known as:thalmic drug absorption is known as: a) Pupil a) Pupil b) Cornea b) Cornea c) Retina c) Retina d) Iris d) Iris e) Optic disk e) Optic disk

80- Carbamide peroxide 10% in used in teeth as: 80- Carbamide peroxide 10% in used in teeth as: a) Antiplaque agent a) Antiplaque agent b) Antitartar agent b) Antitartar agent c) Anti-calcubus agent c) Anti-calcubus agent d) Whiting agent d) Whiting agent e) Breath-freshen agent e) Breath-freshen agent

81- Which of the following is considered the largest muscle in the body? 81- Which of the following is considered the largest muscle in the body? a) Latissimus dorsi a) Latissimus dorsi b) Deltoid b) Deltoid c) Gluteus c) Gluteus d) Masseter d) Masseter e) Triceps e) Triceps

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82- Which of the following statements is right regarding the mechanism of action of ASA 82- Which of the following statements is right regarding the mechanism of action of ASA as anti-inflammatory?

as anti-inflammatory?

a) Inhibit phospholipase enzymes a) Inhibit phospholipase enzymes b) Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

b) Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

c) Inhibit prothrombin time c) Inhibit prothrombin time d) Inhibit leukotrienes secretion d) Inhibit leukotrienes secretion

e) Stimulates the release of COX1 and COX2 e) Stimulates the release of COX1 and COX2

83- All of the following are examples of NSAIDs, EXCEPT 83- All of the following are examples of NSAIDs, EXCEPT a) Indomethacin a) Indomethacin b) Aspirin b) Aspirin c) Rofecoxib c) Rofecoxib d) Ketorolac d) Ketorolac e) Sulindac e) Sulindac

84- One of the most safe and inexpensive NSAID when compared with other drugs in 84- One of the most safe and inexpensive NSAID when compared with other drugs in this class may include:

this class may include: a) Indomethacin a) Indomethacin b) Ketoralac b) Ketoralac c) Ibuprophen c) Ibuprophen d) Naproxen d) Naproxen e) Diclofenac e) Diclofenac

85- Example of drug(s) used in

85- Example of drug(s) used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis may include:the treatment of myasthenia gravis may include: I- Neostigmine I- Neostigmine II- Pyridostigmine II- Pyridostigmine III- Physostigmine III- Physostigmine a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only

86- Iron is the most abundant metal in the body and is required by the body to maintain 86- Iron is the most abundant metal in the body and is required by the body to maintain normal levels of:

normal levels of:

a) Leukocyte development a) Leukocyte development b) Ascorbic acid absorption b) Ascorbic acid absorption

c) Bone growth c) Bone growth d) Immune function d) Immune function e) Oxygen transport e) Oxygen transport

87-After an oral administration, the greatest amount o

87-After an oral administration, the greatest amount of iron absorption occurs in the:f iron absorption occurs in the: a) Ascending colon a) Ascending colon b) Stomach b) Stomach c) Duodenun c) Duodenun d) Transverse colon d) Transverse colon

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e) Sigmoid colon e) Sigmoid colon

88- Correct statement regarding finasteride may include: 88- Correct statement regarding finasteride may include: I- Useful in treating BPH

I- Useful in treating BPH

II- Used to treat some types of alopec II- Used to treat some types of alopeciaia III- It is a corticosteroid III- It is a corticosteroid a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only

89- Finasteride used in the treatment of BPH can best be described as a (an): 89- Finasteride used in the treatment of BPH can best be described as a (an): a) Androgen inhibitor a) Androgen inhibitor b) Estrogen inhibitor b) Estrogen inhibitor c) Androgen c) Androgen d) Estrogen d) Estrogen e) Testosterone analog e) Testosterone analog

90- Which of the following is/are employed as antifungal agent? 90- Which of the following is/are employed as antifungal agent? I- Cycloserine I- Cycloserine II- Terbinafine II- Terbinafine III- Clotrimazole III- Clotrimazole a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only

d) II and III only

91-.A solution contains 10% of p

91-.A solution contains 10% of potassium ions, express the concentration in terms ofotassium ions, express the concentration in terms of mEq/L. mEq/L. A.39mEq/L A.39mEq/L B.2.56mEq/L B.2.56mEq/L C.0.39mEq/L C.0.39mEq/L D.3.56mEq/L D.3.56mEq/L E.2.00 mEq/L E.2.00 mEq/L

92- you have a stock solution of 1:750 and would like to prepare 60mls of 1:10.000, how 92- you have a stock solution of 1:750 and would like to prepare 60mls of 1:10.000, how much you need to use of the stock solution?

much you need to use of the stock solution? a) 2.4mls a) 2.4mls b) 4.6mls b) 4.6mls c) 1.3mls c) 1.3mls d) 46mls d) 46mls e) 0.46mls e) 0.46mls

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93 - How many millimoles of monobasic sodium phosphate

93 - How many millimoles of monobasic sodium phosphate is present in 100 g of is present in 100 g of thethe substance: substance: A.1.38 mmol A.1.38 mmol B.725mmol B.725mmol C.724mmol C.724mmol D.138mmol D.138mmol E.1380mmol E.1380mmol

94.ZnSO4 is a 2 ion electrolyte, dissociating 40% in a certain concentration. Calculate 94.ZnSO4 is a 2 ion electrolyte, dissociating 40% in a certain concentration. Calculate dissociation constant. dissociation constant. A.1.8 A.1.8 B.1.4 B.1.4 C.2.6 C.2.6 D.3.4 D.3.4 E.2.0 E.2.0 94-B 94-B

95- If the pKa of aspirin is 5.6, what fraction of drug would be ionized at pH 8.6? 95- If the pKa of aspirin is 5.6, what fraction of drug would be ionized at pH 8.6? a) 80% a) 80% b) 90% b) 90% c) 99% c) 99% d) 99.9% d) 99.9% e) 100% e) 100% 96- Dissociation factor

96- Dissociation factor (i)(i) plays an important role in determining the contribution of a plays an important role in determining the contribution of a substance towards isotonicity. If it is assumed that

substance towards isotonicity. If it is assumed that HCl undergoes 80% dissociation, whatHCl undergoes 80% dissociation, what will be its dissociation factor?

will be its dissociation factor? a) 2.3 a) 2.3 b) 3.2 b) 3.2 c) 6.1 c) 6.1 d) 3.6 d) 3.6 e) 1.6 e) 1.6

97- What is the concentration in

97- What is the concentration in mg/mL of a solution containing 5mEq of KCl mg/mL of a solution containing 5mEq of KCl per mL?per mL? A.5 mg/mL A.5 mg/mL B.74.5mg/mL B.74.5mg/mL C.372 mg/mL C.372 mg/mL D.157 mg/mL D.157 mg/mL E.58.5 mg/mL E.58.5 mg/mL 97-C 97-C

98- Assuming you have alcohol 95% and need to prepare 60mls of alcohol 12%. How 98- Assuming you have alcohol 95% and need to prepare 60mls of alcohol 12%. How much of alcohol 95% should be used to make this new concentration of alcohol? much of alcohol 95% should be used to make this new concentration of alcohol? a) 4.32mls a) 4.32mls b) 7.57mls b) 7.57mls c) 8.64mls c) 8.64mls

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d) 6mls d) 6mls e) 6.57mls e) 6.57mls

99- You are giving ZnCl

99- You are giving ZnCl22 0.7%, phenilephrine 0.1% and boric acid 1.1% with E values 0.7%, phenilephrine 0.1% and boric acid 1.1% with E values

0.16, 0.32 and 0.5 respectively. This solution will be: 0.16, 0.32 and 0.5 respectively. This solution will be: a) Isotonic a) Isotonic b) Hypertonic b) Hypertonic c) Hypotonic c) Hypotonic d) Iso-osmotic d) Iso-osmotic

e) Isotonicity cannot be finding. e) Isotonicity cannot be finding.

100- You receive a Rx with the following signature: Start with double dose of 5mls, than 100- You receive a Rx with the following signature: Start with double dose of 5mls, than take 2.5mls BID for 7 days. How many mls of amoxicillin suspension should be

take 2.5mls BID for 7 days. How many mls of amoxicillin suspension should be dispensed to this patient:

dispensed to this patient: a) 30mls a) 30mls b) 35mls b) 35mls c) 40mls c) 40mls d) 45mls d) 45mls e) 50mls e) 50mls

101- A formula for a cosmetic cream require 6

101- A formula for a cosmetic cream require 6 gram of emulsifying agent. Consisting ofgram of emulsifying agent. Consisting of spn 90 and tween 90 emulsifying agents. Required HLB is 10.5. How many gram of each spn 90 and tween 90 emulsifying agents. Required HLB is 10.5. How many gram of each emulsifying agent should be used in preparing the emulsions. HLB of span 4.3 and

emulsifying agent should be used in preparing the emulsions. HLB of span 4.3 and Tween 15.

Tween 15.

A.Span 3.47 and tween 2.57 A.Span 3.47 and tween 2.57 B.Span 2.57 and Tween 3.47

B.Span 2.57 and Tween 3.47

C.Span 4.5 and Tween 4.2 C.Span 4.5 and Tween 4.2 D.Span 4.2 and Tween 4.5 D.Span 4.2 and Tween 4.5 E. span 4.3 and Tween 15 E. span 4.3 and Tween 15

102- How much lidocaine is present at a 1:1000, in 30 ml solution. 102- How much lidocaine is present at a 1:1000, in 30 ml solution. A.3 gram A.3 gram B.300 mg B.300 mg C.30 mg C.30 mg D.3 mg D.3 mg E.1.5 gram E.1.5 gram

103- What is the minimum quantity that can be weight on a balance with sensitivity 103- What is the minimum quantity that can be weight on a balance with sensitivity requirements of 15mg of a 5% error is

requirements of 15mg of a 5% error is permissiblepermissible a) 100mg a) 100mg b) 200mg b) 200mg c) 300mg c) 300mg d) 400mg d) 400mg e) 500mg e) 500mg

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104- What is the sensitivity of a balance that can weight 120mg of a substance and has a 104- What is the sensitivity of a balance that can weight 120mg of a substance and has a permissible error of 5%? permissible error of 5%? a) 6mg a) 6mg b) 16mg b) 16mg c) 66mg c) 66mg d) 26mg d) 26mg e) 1.6mg e) 1.6mg

The next four questions have as reference the following information: The next four questions have as reference the following information: In a biostatistics analysis of a drug we

In a biostatistics analysis of a drug we found the following resultsfound the following results 2, 4, 8,

2, 4, 8, 5, 7, 4 5, 7, 4 and standard deviatiand standard deviation on 5.5. 105- What is the mean in this a

105- What is the mean in this analysis?nalysis? a) 4 a) 4 b) 5 b) 5 c) 30 c) 30 d) 15 d) 15 e) 6 e) 6

106- What is the median in this a

106- What is the median in this analysis?nalysis? a) 2 a) 2 b) 5 b) 5 c) 4.5 c) 4.5 d) 7 d) 7 e) 8 e) 8

107- What is the mode in this a

107- What is the mode in this analysis?nalysis? a) 2 a) 2 b) 4 b) 4 c) 5 c) 5 d) 7 d) 7 e) 8 e) 8

108- What is the Coefficient of variance? 108- What is the Coefficient of variance? a) 5 a) 5 b) 10 b) 10 c) 25 c) 25 d) 50 d) 50 e) 100 e) 100

109- Type I error, also called alpha-error give what kind of results? 109- Type I error, also called alpha-error give what kind of results? a) False-positive a) False-positive b) False-negative b) False-negative c) Positive false c) Positive false d) False-false d) False-false e) Positive-positive e) Positive-positive

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110- Correct statements regarding biostatics error may includ 110- Correct statements regarding biostatics error may include:e: I- Type I error also known as

I- Type I error also known as

αα

-error can admit a variance error of 1 to 5%-error can admit a variance error of 1 to 5% II- Type II error also known a

II- Type II error also known ass

ββ

-error is a positive-false type of error because it shows a-error is a positive-false type of error because it shows a very small difference-delta error (99,99998)

very small difference-delta error (99,99998) III- In type I error the data

III- In type I error the data shows no difference but there shows no difference but there is difference, it is false-positiveis difference, it is false-positive a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

111- Working in a hospital pharmacy you were asked to verify the cost/effectiveness of a 111- Working in a hospital pharmacy you were asked to verify the cost/effectiveness of a medication that is available in 5 different brands. The cost of each tablet was $3.00, medication that is available in 5 different brands. The cost of each tablet was $3.00, $7.00, $2.00, $3.00 and $5.00 from brand 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. The mean cost of $7.00, $2.00, $3.00 and $5.00 from brand 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. The mean cost of your analysis is:

your analysis is: a) 3hr a) 3hr b) 2hr b) 2hr c) 5.4hr c) 5.4hr d) 4hr d) 4hr e) 4.5hr e) 4.5hr

112- In pharmacoepidemiology, studies in which subsets of a defined population are 112- In pharmacoepidemiology, studies in which subsets of a defined population are identified. Groups characterized by defined populations which, as a whole, are followed identified. Groups characterized by defined populations which, as a whole, are followed in an attempt to determine distinguishing subg

in an attempt to determine distinguishing subgroup characteristics is know as:roup characteristics is know as: a) Cluster a) Cluster b) Segment b) Segment c) Strata c) Strata d) Control d) Control e) Cohort e) Cohort

113- Studies that determines the prevalence and not the incidence of a disease is known 113- Studies that determines the prevalence and not the incidence of a disease is known as:

as:

a) Cross sectional studies

b) Strata studies b) Strata studies

c) Case control studies c) Case control studies d) Retrospective studies d) Retrospective studies e) Cluster studies

e) Cluster studies

114- An increase in the incidence of diseases, conditions or other health related events in 114- An increase in the incidence of diseases, conditions or other health related events in a defined human population that is clearly in excess of that which was expected during a a defined human population that is clearly in excess of that which was expected during a specific time is called:

specific time is called: a) Epidemics a) Epidemics b) Endemics b) Endemics c) Pandemics c) Pandemics

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d) Epidemiologic predisposition d) Epidemiologic predisposition e) All are correct

e) All are correct

115- Endemic diseases are conditions or health related behaviors that are constantly 115- Endemic diseases are conditions or health related behaviors that are constantly present in human population. Example of endemic disease may include:

present in human population. Example of endemic disease may include: a) SARS a) SARS b) AIDS b) AIDS c) Flu c) Flu d) Influenza d) Influenza e) Cancer e) Cancer

116- Correct statement regarding primary prevention may include: 116- Correct statement regarding primary prevention may include: a) Early detection and treatment of the disease

a) Early detection and treatment of the disease

b) Involve the palliative treatment and rehabilitation therapy b) Involve the palliative treatment and rehabilitation therapy

cc) Reduction in the incidence of disease through immunization, education and others) Reduction in the incidence of disease through immunization, education and others

d) The diagnostic of disease d) The diagnostic of disease e) Treatment of disease e) Treatment of disease

117- In biostatistic the difference between the highest and lowest data observation is 117- In biostatistic the difference between the highest and lowest data observation is called: called: a) Mean a) Mean b) Mode b) Mode c) Median c) Median d) Range d) Range e) Standard deviation e) Standard deviation

118- One of the most commonly e

118- One of the most commonly encountered estimates of variability in statistics that isncountered estimates of variability in statistics that is equal to the square root of the variance is know as:

equal to the square root of the variance is know as: a) Estimates of variance

a) Estimates of variance

b) Standard deviation of the mean b) Standard deviation of the mean

c) Standard deviation c) Standard deviation d) Sample mean d) Sample mean e) Range e) Range

119- In a biostatistic test of a drug, the normal distribution found was equal to 68%. We 119- In a biostatistic test of a drug, the normal distribution found was equal to 68%. We may assume that the standard deviation

may assume that the standard deviation from the mean value is:from the mean value is: a) 1 a) 1 b) 2 b) 2 c) 3 c) 3 d) 4 d) 4 e) 5 e) 5

120- In epidemiology, a widespread epidemics that achieve large geographic proportion 120- In epidemiology, a widespread epidemics that achieve large geographic proportion is know as: is know as: a) Pandemics a) Pandemics b) Epidemics b) Epidemics

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c) Endemics c) Endemics

d) Epidemiologics d) Epidemiologics e) None of the above e) None of the above

121- Statistical test where two treatments are applied to a single group of experimental 121- Statistical test where two treatments are applied to a single group of experimental unit is called: unit is called: a) Student’s test a) Student’s test b) Paired-t test b) Paired-t test c) F-distribution c) F-distribution d) Chi-square test d) Chi-square test

e) Measures of central tendency e) Measures of central tendency

122- Correct statements regarding BIAS include: 122- Correct statements regarding BIAS include: I- They are experimental errors

I- They are experimental errors

II- They can be classified in selection bias, information bias and confounding bias II- They can be classified in selection bias, information bias and confounding bias III- Selection bias happens when the study results are distorted by the selection process III- Selection bias happens when the study results are distorted by the selection process a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

123- Experimental error resulted from poor data

123- Experimental error resulted from poor data collection or inaccurate measurement iscollection or inaccurate measurement is called: called: a) Selection bias a) Selection bias b) Information bias b) Information bias c) Confounding bias c) Confounding bias d) Type II error d) Type II error e) Type I error e) Type I error

124- In a clinical trial for development of a new drug, phase II procedures include: 124- In a clinical trial for development of a new drug, phase II procedures include: a) Animal experiments

a) Animal experiments

b) Pharmacokinetic test in a health adult b) Pharmacokinetic test in a health adult

c) Safety and efficacy tests done in a limited population that have the disease or condition

for what the drug is developed

d) Test the new drug with comparison of standard drug d) Test the new drug with comparison of standard drug e) Studies to compare the

e) Studies to compare the drug with its competitordrug with its competitor 125- Which of the following cond

125- Which of the following conditions is quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used?itions is quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used? a) Respiratory tract infections

a) Respiratory tract infections b) Urinary tract infections b) Urinary tract infections

c) Gastrointestinal tract infections c) Gastrointestinal tract infections d) Endocarditis

d) Endocarditis

e) Cerebral infections

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126- Burns classification: 126- Burns classification: I1

I1stst degree: skin red, no blisters degree: skin red, no blisters II.2

II.2ndnd degree: blisters and pain degree: blisters and pain III.3

III.3rdrd degree: no blisters and leather skin degree: no blisters and leather skin a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

127- Which of the following complications is con

127- Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effectsidered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment?

associated with isoniazid treatment? a) Cardiac dysfunction a) Cardiac dysfunction b) Mental dysfunction b) Mental dysfunction c) Hepatitis c) Hepatitis d) Renal complications d) Renal complications e) Discoloration of skin e) Discoloration of skin

128- The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin? 128- The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin? a) Thiamine a) Thiamine b) Pyridoxine b) Pyridoxine c) Folic acid c) Folic acid d) Niacin d) Niacin e) Cyanocobalamin e) Cyanocobalamin

129- All of the following are ex

129- All of the following are examples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT:amples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT: a) Ampicillin a) Ampicillin b) Cloxacillin b) Cloxacillin c) Amoxacillin c) Amoxacillin d) Bicampicilin d) Bicampicilin e) All are correct e) All are correct

130- Which of the following is an

130- Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV?AIDS-HIV? I- Acyclovir I- Acyclovir II- Zidovudine II- Zidovudine III- Stavudine III- Stavudine a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only

d) II and III only

131- Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to: 131- Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to: I- Mutation

I- Mutation II- Adaptation II- Adaptation

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III- Gene transfer III- Gene transfer a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

132- The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in: 132- The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in: a) Virus a) Virus b) Gram-negative bacterias b) Gram-negative bacterias c) Gram-positive bacterias c) Gram-positive bacterias

d) Both gram-positive and negative bacteria d) Both gram-positive and negative bacteria e) Plasmodium

e) Plasmodium

133- Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to: 133- Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to: a) 30s ribosomal subunit only

a) 30s ribosomal subunit only b) 50s ribosomal subunit only b) 50s ribosomal subunit only c) 70s ribosomal subunit only c) 70s ribosomal subunit only d) 30s and 50s and

d) 30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits70s ribosomal subunits

e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits

134- Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow 134- Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents?

include which of the following agents? a) Tetracycline a) Tetracycline b) Aminoglycosides b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin c) Vancomycin d) Cloramphenicol d) Cloramphenicol e) Clindamycin e) Clindamycin

135- Drugs NOT associated with osteoporosis: 135- Drugs NOT associated with osteoporosis: A.Phenytoin A.Phenytoin B.Levothyroxine B.Levothyroxine C.Heparin C.Heparin D.Warfarin D.Warfarin E.Corticosteroids E.Corticosteroids

136- Main difference between column chromatography and high-pressure liquid 136- Main difference between column chromatography and high-pressure liquid chromatography is:

chromatography is:

a) The high-pressure pump

b) The particle size b) The particle size

c) The capillary action c) The capillary action d) The stationary phase d) The stationary phase e) The mobile phase e) The mobile phase

137- The most common used agent in the stationary phase of TLC-Thin Layer 137- The most common used agent in the stationary phase of TLC-Thin Layer Chromatography is:

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a) Iodine a) Iodine b) Amino sugars b) Amino sugars c) Silica gel c) Silica gel d) Chloroform d) Chloroform e) Ninhydrin e) Ninhydrin

138- The stationary phase of TLC is constituted of: 138- The stationary phase of TLC is constituted of: a) Liquid reagent a) Liquid reagent b) Pure solvent b) Pure solvent c) Liquid absorbent c) Liquid absorbent d) Solid adsorbent d) Solid adsorbent e) Solid absorbent e) Solid absorbent

139- Ninhydrin is used in TLC as spray reagent for detection of: 139- Ninhydrin is used in TLC as spray reagent for detection of: I- Amino acids

I- Amino acids II- Amino sugars II- Amino sugars III- Amines III- Amines a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

140- In gas chromatography the mobile phase is: 140- In gas chromatography the mobile phase is: a) Liquid a) Liquid b) Solid b) Solid c) Gas c) Gas d) Solid adsorbent d) Solid adsorbent e) Iodine vapor e) Iodine vapor

141- Inert gas used in gas chromatography include: 141- Inert gas used in gas chromatography include: I- Nitrous oxide I- Nitrous oxide II- Nitrogen II- Nitrogen III- Helium III- Helium a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only

d) II and III only

142- Characteristics of Derivativation in gas chromatography include: 142- Characteristics of Derivativation in gas chromatography include: I- Permit analysis of compounds with inadequa

I- Permit analysis of compounds with inadequate volatility or stabilityte volatility or stability II- Improve chromatographic behavior or detectability

II- Improve chromatographic behavior or detectability III- Silylation is the most used technique in derivativation III- Silylation is the most used technique in derivativation a) I only

a) I only b) III only b) III only

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c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

143- Immunoassays are used to detect: 143- Immunoassays are used to detect: a) Amino acids a) Amino acids b) Proteins b) Proteins c) Antigens c) Antigens d) Antibodies d) Antibodies

e) C and D are right

144- Assay used to test antigens

144- Assay used to test antigens in HIV include:in HIV include: a) Immunoassay a) Immunoassay b) Radioimmunoassay b) Radioimmunoassay c) Enzyme immunoassay c) Enzyme immunoassay d) ELISA assay d) ELISA assay

e) Western blotting assay e) Western blotting assay

145- Method that separates macromolecules in nucleic acids and proteins on the base of 145- Method that separates macromolecules in nucleic acids and proteins on the base of size and electric charge is called:

size and electric charge is called: a) Immunoassay a) Immunoassay b) Radioimmunoassay b) Radioimmunoassay c) Enzyme immunoassay c) Enzyme immunoassay d) ELISA assay d) ELISA assay

e) Western blotting assay

146.

146. Cetrizine inhibits which of the following receptors?Cetrizine inhibits which of the following receptors? A.Histamine A.Histamine B.Serotinin B.Serotinin C.Prostaglandin C.Prostaglandin D.Leukotriene D.Leukotriene E.Bradykinins E.Bradykinins

147.The principal side effect of bupropion? 147.The principal side effect of bupropion? A.Seizures A.Seizures B.Hemolytic anemia B.Hemolytic anemia C.Respiratory depression C.Respiratory depression D.Diarrhea D.Diarrhea E.Constipation E.Constipation

148.Which of the following may cause pink to brownish black skin discoloration 148.Which of the following may cause pink to brownish black skin discoloration A.Dapsone A.Dapsone B.Edrophonium B.Edrophonium C.Clofazimine C.Clofazimine D.Entacapone D.Entacapone E,Nisoldipine E,Nisoldipine

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149-Which of the following is an antidote for Methotrexate overdose? 149-Which of the following is an antidote for Methotrexate overdose? A.Deferoxamine A.Deferoxamine B.EDTA B.EDTA C.Atropine C.Atropine D.Leucovorin calcium D.Leucovorin calcium E.Calcium E.Calcium

150.Which of the following should be avoided in patient with hyperkalemia? 150.Which of the following should be avoided in patient with hyperkalemia? A.Labetalol A.Labetalol B.Triamterene B.Triamterene C.Hydrochlorothiazide C.Hydrochlorothiazide D.Fluconazole D.Fluconazole E.Thiazides E.Thiazides

151- Humectants enable hygroscopic nature of emollients, the example of humectant 151- Humectants enable hygroscopic nature of emollients, the example of humectant include: include: A.Zinc oxide A.Zinc oxide B.Glycerine B.Glycerine C. Petrolatum C. Petrolatum D.Lip balm D.Lip balm

E.alpha hydroxyl acids E.alpha hydroxyl acids

152- Treatment of tricyclic antidepressants overdose is done by all the following 152- Treatment of tricyclic antidepressants overdose is done by all the following procedures, EXCEPT:

procedures, EXCEPT:

a) Control the seizures and cardiotoxicity a) Control the seizures and cardiotoxicity

b) Administration of benzodiazepinics or phenytoin to control seizures b) Administration of benzodiazepinics or phenytoin to control seizures

c) Activated charcoal can be used c) Activated charcoal can be used

d) MAO antidepressants can helps to overcome the patient’s seizure

e) Control acidosis with administration of sodium bicarbonate e) Control acidosis with administration of sodium bicarbonate

153- Specific antidote used for poisoning caused by snake and black spider bits 153- Specific antidote used for poisoning caused by snake and black spider bits a) Deferoxamine a) Deferoxamine b) Ancrod b) Ancrod c) Antivenin c) Antivenin d) Psysostigmine d) Psysostigmine e) Naloxone e) Naloxone

154- Best treatment for carbon monoxide intoxication: 154- Best treatment for carbon monoxide intoxication: a) Alkalinization of urine a) Alkalinization of urine b) Oxygen therapy b) Oxygen therapy c) Supportive therapy c) Supportive therapy d) Acidification of urine d) Acidification of urine e) Gastric lavage e) Gastric lavage

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155- Treatment for head lice 155- Treatment for head lice Treatment for head lice: Treatment for head lice:

I.Permethrine 1% (drug of choice) I.Permethrine 1% (drug of choice) II.Pyrethrins with piperonyl shampoo II.Pyrethrins with piperonyl shampoo III.Lindane 1% shampoo III.Lindane 1% shampoo a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

156- Osteoporosis caused by the deficiency of the following: 156- Osteoporosis caused by the deficiency of the following: I.Estrogen I.Estrogen II.Androgens II.Androgens III.Alcohol III.Alcohol a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only

157- The major first step in the initial management of ANY intoxication and poisoning is 157- The major first step in the initial management of ANY intoxication and poisoning is the supportive care treatment that involve:

the supportive care treatment that involve: a) Detoxification a) Detoxification b) Decontamination b) Decontamination c) Hydration c) Hydration

d) Evaluation and support of vital function (Airway, Breath and Circulation-ABC)

e) Toxicology laboratory tests e) Toxicology laboratory tests

158- General management in treating patients with depressed mental status include: 158- General management in treating patients with depressed mental status include: I- Treat hypoglycemia with 50mls of dextrose

I- Treat hypoglycemia with 50mls of dextrose 50%50% II- Administration of thiamine 100mg IV push II- Administration of thiamine 100mg IV push III- Administration of naloxone

III- Administration of naloxone a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct

e) All are correct

159- Decontamination procedures may unconscious patient: 159- Decontamination procedures may unconscious patient: a) Gastric lavage

a) Gastric lavage

b) Emesis b) Emesis

c) Administration of activated charcoal c) Administration of activated charcoal d) Administration of adsorbent agents d) Administration of adsorbent agents

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160- Intravenous calcium administration is used in which

160- Intravenous calcium administration is used in which of the following situations?of the following situations? a) Verapamil overdoses

a) Verapamil overdoses b) Cocaine overdose b) Cocaine overdose

c) Verapamil overdose and hyperkalemia

d) Hyperkalemia d) Hyperkalemia

e) Nifedipeno overdose e) Nifedipeno overdose

161. 1-methyl cyclopentane and cyclohexane are 161. 1-methyl cyclopentane and cyclohexane are A. Enantiomer

A. Enantiomer B. Diastereomers B. Diastereomers C.

C. Constitutional Constitutional isomersisomers

D. Identical D. Identical E.Geometrical E.Geometrical 161-C 161-C 162.

162. Alkenes such 2-Butene, 3-hexene are Alkenes such 2-Butene, 3-hexene are planar hydrocarbons, their double bond planar hydrocarbons, their double bond cancan generate specific

generate specific type of type of isomer isomer has;has; A.

A. Constitutional Constitutional isomersisomers

B. Geometrical isomers (cis/trans)

C. Enantiomers C. Enantiomers D. Identical D. Identical E.Diatereomers E.Diatereomers 162-B 162-B

163. (R)-glyceraldehyde and (S)-glyceraldehyde 163. (R)-glyceraldehyde and (S)-glyceraldehyde

A. Diastereomers A. Diastereomers B. Epimers B. Epimers C. Enantiomers C. Enantiomers D. Geometrical isomers D. Geometrical isomers E.Identical E.Identical 163-C 163-C

164. 1-methyl cyclopentane can generate which of the following isomer: 164. 1-methyl cyclopentane can generate which of the following isomer: A. Cylcohexane A. Cylcohexane B. Hexane B. Hexane C. Pentane C. Pentane D.1-methyl cyclohexane D.1-methyl cyclohexane E.1-methyl cylcopentane E.1-methyl cylcopentane

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165. Molecule contain one stereogenic center can generate the following type of isomers: 165. Molecule contain one stereogenic center can generate the following type of isomers: I.Diastereomers I.Diastereomers II.Geometrical isomers II.Geometrical isomers III.Enantiomers III.Enantiomers a) I only a) I only b) III only b) III only c) I and II only c) I and II only d) II and III only d) II and III only e) All are correct e) All are correct

166. The following structures are: 166. The following structures are:

N N S S CH CH₂₂CHCH₂₂N(CHN(CH₃₃))₂₂ Cl Cl NN S S CH CH₂₂CHCH₂₂CHCH₂₂N(CHN(CH₃₃))₂₂ Cl Cl Fenethazine Fenethazine Chlorprozamine Chlorprozamine (Thorazine) (Thorazine) A. Analogs A. Analogs B. Homologs B. Homologs C. Bioisosters C. Bioisosters D. Isomers D. Isomers E.Diastereomers E.Diastereomers 166-B 166-B

167. Biological activity of meperidine is due to presents in Meperidine include; 167. Biological activity of meperidine is due to presents in Meperidine include;

N N O O OC OC₃₃HH₅₅ CH CH33 Meperidine Meperidine A. Tertiary amine A. Tertiary amine

B. N-methyl 4-phenyl piperidine

C. Propyl ester C. Propyl ester D. Alkyl amines D. Alkyl amines E. aromatic esters E. aromatic esters 167-B 167-B

168. Hydrolysis of ester gives when heated with aqueous acid or base; 168. Hydrolysis of ester gives when heated with aqueous acid or base; A.

A. Amines Amines and carboxylic and carboxylic acidacid B.

B. Carboxylic Carboxylic acids acids and and alcoholalcohol

C.

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D.

D. Carboxylic Carboxylic acid acid onlyonly E.

E. None None of of the the aboveabove 168-B

168-B

169 Which of the following reactions

169 Which of the following reactions is most likely to occur on a is most likely to occur on a primary aromaticprimary aromatic amine? amine? I. Oxidation I. Oxidation II.Amination II.Amination III. Acetylation III. Acetylation A.I only A.I only B. III only B. III only

C.I and II only C.I and II only D. II and III only D. II and III only

E. All of the above are correct E. All of the above are correct 169-B

169-B

170- Carboxylic acids are one of the most common groups present in the molecular 170- Carboxylic acids are one of the most common groups present in the molecular structure of drugs mainly metabolized by:

structure of drugs mainly metabolized by: a) Oxidation a) Oxidation b) Hydrolysis b) Hydrolysis cc) Conjugation) Conjugation d) Estherification d) Estherification e) Deamination e) Deamination 170-A 170-A

171- Imidazoline is a molecular structure that contain a heterocyclic ring and belongs the 171- Imidazoline is a molecular structure that contain a heterocyclic ring and belongs the molecular structure of:

molecular structure of: a) Prazosin a) Prazosin b) Nifedipine b) Nifedipine c) Atropine c) Atropine d) Clonidine d) Clonidine e) Allopurinol e) Allopurinol 171-D 171-D

172.Wich of the following are metabolites of ester type local anesthetics: 172.Wich of the following are metabolites of ester type local anesthetics: I.PABA I.PABA II.alcohols II.alcohols III.esters III.esters A.I only A.I only B.III only B.III only C.I, II only C.I, II only D.II and III only D.II and III only

E. All of the above are correct E. All of the above are correct 172-A

172-A

173.The classic NSAIDs consist of different structurally diverse acids, which of the 173.The classic NSAIDs consist of different structurally diverse acids, which of the following propionic acid derivative

following propionic acid derivative I.Ibuprofen

I.Ibuprofen II.Ketoprofen II.Ketoprofen