Kaplan Mcat

WELCOME TO KAPLAN!

Today you begin your Kaplan MCAT preparation with a full “work-up” that includes a Personal Profile

and two Diagnostic Tests to evaluate both your science knowledge and your critical thinking ability.

Please note that in order to maintain your Higher Score Guarantee eligibility you must take the online (non PDF)

version of the diagnostic found on your Kaptest.com student syllabus. From the information obtained here,

we will prescribe a personalized study regimen designed to review and reinforce relevant science content as

well as emphasize the “higher order” analytical thinking and problem-solving skills the MCAT is designed

to test.

The Science Diagnostic Test consists of 120 discrete science questions, 30 each in biology, general

chemistry, organic chemistry, and physics. You will do this test first. The test is specifically designed to

assess your raw knowledge in the science areas covered on the MCAT. The results of this test, in

combination with the MCAT Diagnostic and the Personal Profile, will provide a more complete picture of

your “MCAT health.” Please use the section of your Online Student Center labeled Science Diagnostic to

complete this test.

The Personal Profile contains questions about your academic background, study habits, perceived

academic strengths and weaknesses, etc. Your responses to these questions will be integrated with your

performance on the Diagnostic Tests, enabling us to tailor a study plan suited to your study habits and

academic needs. PLEASE ANSWER EVERY QUESTION (UNLESS YOU ARE TOLD TO LEAVE IT

BLANK), or incomplete feedback will be generated. You can input your Personal Profile answers into the

last section of the Science Diagnostic input form,(see above for the location of this form) in a section

labeled Personal Profile.

The MCAT Diagnostic Test (half-length) simulates the actual MCAT experience. The test will indicate

how well, at present, you can handle MCAT-style questions and passages that require critical thinking and

problem-solving. Remember, the MCAT is not just a science exam. While it requires you to have a firm

knowledge of fundamental science concepts, it also tests your ability to integrate new information presented

in challenging science passages. As on the actual MCAT, there is no penalty for incorrect answers. Please

use the input form labeled MCAT Diagnostic to input your responses to this test.

Remember, your feedback from today’s “work-up” is only a baseline evaluation. The Kaplan MCAT

Program is designed to help you master ALL the material and skills necessary for your success on the

MCAT.

Good luck!

Team MCAT

Kaplan

Science

Diagnostic Test

You have 75 minutes to complete this exam. This test is composed of 4 sections.

Subject

Section 1:

Biology

Section 2:

General Chemistry

Section 3:

Organic Chemistry

Section 4:

Physics

You must select an answer for every question. If you are uncertain of an answer, guess! (There is no

penalty for wrong answers, just like on the actual MCAT.)

Mark your responses in the input form found by navigating to your kaptest.com student homepage and

choosing Science Diagnostic from the menu options. Use sections 1-4 for input responses from these

sections.

Section 1: Biology

A . bind to receptors on the surface of target cells. B . lower the activation energy of a specific

reaction.

C . bind to specific antigens during an immune

response.

D . bind to receptors in the cytoplasm of target

cells.

2 . Which of the following processes utilizes ATP? I. Diffusion

II. Facilitated diffusion III. Active transport

A . II only B . III only C . II and III only D . I, II and III

3 . All of the following occur in the human respiratory system EXCEPT:

A . ventilation is controlled by the medulla

oblongata.

B . gas exchange occurs across the

alveolar-capillary membrane.

C . the rate of breathing is increased by

sympathetic stimulation.

D . contraction of the diaphragm contracts the

thoracic cavity and permits the lungs to fill.

4 . Which of the following is derived from the mesoderm?

A . Eye B . Heart C . Lungs D . Liver

5 . Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?

A . Memory B . Appetite

C . Coordination of movement D . Control of heartbeat

6 . Which is not a function of the liver?

A . Formation of bile salts B . Storage of glycogen C . Storage of bile pigments

D . Detoxification of chemicals and drugs from

bloodstream

7 . In the nephron, increasing the permeability of the collecting duct to water has the effect of:

A . diluting the urine. B . concentrating the urine.

C . increasing the rate of glomerular filtration. D . buffering urine pH. 8 . A virus has: A . ribosomes. B . transcription enzymes. C . genetic material. D . a polysaccharide coat.

9 . Which of the following statements is NOT descriptive of enzymes?

A . Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by

increasing the activation energy of that reaction.

B . Enzyme activity varies with temperature and

pH.

C . A zymogen is inactive until it is cleaved

under certain physiological conditions.

D . The most scientifically accepted model for

enzyme activity is the induced fit hypothesis.

1 0 . Which of the following molecules links

glycolysis to the Krebs cycle?

A . Lactate B . Pyruvate

C . Glucose-6-phosphate D . Glucose

1 1 . Which of the following cellular substituents is

made within the nucleus?

A . Ribosome B . Lysosome C . Golgi apparatus D . Cell membrane

1 2 . During metaphase I of meiosis: A . chromatin shortens and thickens.

B . homologous pairs of chromosomes migrate to

opposite poles of the cell.

C . the cell’s complement of DNA is the same as

in the non-dividing diploid cell.

D . homologous chromosome pairs line up along

the equatorial plate.

1 3 . Which of the following matings of ABO blood

types CANNOT produce type O offspring?

A . A x O B . B x B C . AB x O D . A x B

1 4 . Bacteria have all of the following EXCEPT: A . ribosomes.

B . a cell wall. C . a nucleus. D . a flagellum.

1 5 . The epidermis can best be classified as: A . epithelial tissue.

B . connective tissue. C . nervous tissue. D . muscle tissue.

Figure 1

1 6 . Figure 1 is an O2-Hb dissociation curve for a

human adult Hb at 38 oC and pH 7.4. An increase in blood carbon dioxide levels would cause the curve to:

A . shift to the left. B . shift to the right. C . remain the same. D . decrease to zero.

1 7 . Which of the following is a true statement

concerning muscle?

A . Cardiac muscle combines attributes of both

smooth and skeletal muscle.

B . Skeletal muscle lacks striations.

C . Muscle tissue only carries out aerobic

respiration.

D . The presence of Ca2+ _{will inhibit muscular}

contractions.

1 8 . During an immune reaction:

A . antibodies are produced by T-lymphocytes. B . cytotoxic B-lymphocytes destroy antigens

directly.

C . antigens recognize and bind to specific

antibodies and trigger the immune system to remove them.

D . helper T-lymphocytes activate other T-cells

1 9 . During which phase of the menstrual cycle is

progesterone at the highest concentration?

A . Follicular phase B . Ovulation C . Luteal phase D . Menstruation

Figure 2

2 0 . Figure 2 is a pedigree for dentinogenesis

imperfecta, a dentine formation disorder. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is transmitted as a(n):

A . autosomal recessive trait. B . autosomal dominant trait. C . sex-linked recessive trait. D . sex-linked dominant trait.

2 1 . Which of the following is in a different chemical

category than the others?

A . Cytosine B . Thymine C . Arginine D . Uracil

2 2 . According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection: A . organisms of the same generation can adapt to

a dramatic shift in environment.

B . an organism’s genotype mutates as a response

to the environment

C . well adapted individuals survive because they

have traits that are selected by the environment.

D . evolution and extinction are unrelated.

2 3 . Which of the following occurs during DNA

replication?

A . An RNA primer is necessary for synthesis

initiation.

B . The leading strand is synthesized as a series of

Okazaki fragments.

C . Synthesis proceeds in the 3’ Æ 5’ direction. D . The enzyme DNA polymerase introduces

negative supercoils into the unwinding DNA.

2 4 . You have just sequenced a fragment of DNA that

reads:

5’ ATGCCA 3’

If this strand is the template for RNA synthesis, what is the sequence of bases of the resulting RNA strand?

A . 3’ ATGCCA 5’ B . 3’ TACGGT 5’ C . 3’ AUGCCA 5’ D . 3’ UACGGU 5’

2 5 . Which of the following hormones elevates

calcium blood concentration?

A . Parathyroid hormone B . Calcitonin

C . Glucagon D . Aldosterone

2 6 . When an action potential is generated, which of

the following events occurs first?

A . Increased permeability to K+

B . Increased permeability to Na+

C . Increased permeability to Cl

-D . -Decreased permeability to Ca2+

2 7 . Which of the following cannot cross the plasma

membrane without assistance?

A . Calcium ions B . Oxygen C . Water D . Urea

2 8 . Which of the following digests proteins? A . Maltase

B . Cholecystokinin C . Amylase D . Chymotrypsin

2 9 . All arteries transport: A . oxygenated blood. B . blood towards the heart. C . blood away from the heart. D . interstitial fluid.

3 0 . If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, and a

cross between a female carrier and an affected male occurs, then in the progeny:

A . all offspring are hemophiliacs. B . all males are hemophiliacs. C . all females are hemophiliacs .

D . half the males and half the females are

hemophiliacs.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

BEGIN GRIDDING AT SECTION 2.

Section 2: General Chemistry

1 . Which of the following will affect the speed of a gas particle?

I. Temperature II. Molar mass III. Volume

A . I only B . III only C . I and II D . I, II, and III

2 . What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 10–6_M?

A . 4 B . 6 C . 7 D . 8

3 . Which of the following is true of a galvanic cell?

A . Oxidation occurs at the cathode, reduction

occurs at the anode, and the reaction is nonspontaneous.

B . Oxidation occurs at the anode, reduction

occurs at the cathode, and the reaction is nonspontaneous.

C . Oxidation occurs at the cathode, reduction

occurs at the cathode, and the reaction is spontaneous.

D . Oxidation occurs at the anode, reduction

occurs at the cathode, and the reaction is spontaneous.

4 . The reaction below is an example of:

CaCl₂(aq) + 2AgNO₃(aq) Æ Ca(NO3)2(aq) + 2AgCl(s)

A . a neutralization reaction. B . a decomposition reaction. C . a metathesis reaction.

D . a single displacement reaction.

5 . Which of the following is the correct definition of Hund’s Rule?

A . Electrons will fill orbitals so that an atom has

the highest possible energy.

B . No two electrons can possess the same four

quantum numbers.

C . Electrons prefer to occupy degenerate orbitals

and have parallel spins.

D . The greater the principal quantum number, the

greater the energy of the electron shell.

6 . What is the standard enthalpy change, DH°, of the reaction below? 2CO(g) + O₂(g) Æ 2CO2(g) A . DHf(CO2) – [DHf(CO) + DHf(O2)] B . 2DHf(CO2) – 2DHf(CO) C . DHf(CO) – DHf(CO2) D . 2DHf(CO2) + 2DHf(CO)

7 . What is the molecular geometry of boron trifluoride (BF_3)?

A . Bent

B . Trigonal planar C . Trigonal pyramidal D . Tetrahedral

8 . Which of the processes below is accompanied by the greatest increase in entropy?

A . Freezing B . Condensation C . Evaporation D . Sublimation

9 . Which of the following elements is the most electronegative?

A . Br B . As C . Na D . Cr

1 0 . 100 mL of an ideal gas is placed in a sealed

container at a pressure of 300 mmHg. If the pressure is increased to 450 mmHg, what is the final volume of the gas?

A . 67 mL B . 75 mL C . 100 mL D . 134 mL

1 1 . Which of the following electrochemical conditions

will result in the greatest amount of copper plated from a copper (II) sulfate solution?

A . A current of 10 amperes in 5 minutes B . A current of 10 amperes in 15 minutes C . A current of 5 amperes in 10 minutes D . A current of 5 amperes in 15 minutes

1 2 . Which of the following acids is the strongest?

Acid pK_a A 1.7 B 2.1 C 5.0 D 7.0 A . A B . B C . C D . D

1 3 . What is the concentration of Ag+ _{in a saturated}

solution of AgCl at 25°C? (Ksp of AgCl = 1.8

¥ 10– 1 0₎

A . 1.34 ¥ 10–5_M

B . 1.8 ¥ 10–10_M

C . 3.2 ¥ 10–10_M

D . 3.2 ¥ 10–20_M

1 4 . Which of the following decreases from left to right

across a period?

A . Electronegativity B . Atomic radius C . Electron affinity D . Ionization energy

1 5 . What is the order of increasing intermolecular

bond strength?

A . Hydrogen bonding < Dipole-dipole interaction

< Dispersion forces

B . Dispersion forces < Dipole-dipole interaction

< Hydrogen bonding

C . Dipole-dipole interaction < Dispersion forces

< Hydrogen bonding

D . Dipole-dipole interaction < Hydrogen bonding

< Dispersion forces

1 6 . The boiling-point elevation constant for water is

approximately 0.5°C/m. What is the boiling point of a solution containing 0.5 moles of glucose dissolved in 500 g of water?

A . 99.5°C B . 100°C C . 100.5°C D . 101°C

1 7 . Which of the following is a Lewis acid? A . OH–

B . PH₃ C . BF3

D . Cl–

1 8 . How much 1 M NaOH is needed to neutralize 75

mL of 2 M H₂SO₄?

A . 75 mL B . 100 mL C . 150 mL D . 300 mL

Questions 19 and 20 refer to the table below:

Trial [X] (mol/L) [Y] (mol/L) Initial rate of formation of Z

(mol/L•sec)

1 0.05 0.02 0.06

2 0.05 0.04 0.24

3 0.1 0.02 0.12

[Note: This data was obtained at a temperature of 298 K.]

1 9 . What is the correct rate law for this reaction? A . Rate of reaction = k[X]

B . Rate of reaction = k[X][Y] C . Rate of reaction = k[X][Y]2

D . Rate of reaction = k

2 0 . If the same experiment were carried out at 300 K,

what would happen to the initial rate of formation of Z?

A . It would increase B . It would decrease

C . It would remain the same D . Cannot be determined

2 1 . For the reaction below, DH°298 K = –114 kJ/mol

and DS°2 9 8 K = –0.15 kJ/mol•K. At 298 K,

would this reaction be spontaneous? 2NO(g) + O₂(g) Æ 2NO2(g)

A . Yes, because DG° is positive B . Yes, because DG° is negative C . No, because DG° is positive D . No, because DG° is negative

2 2 . Electron affinity is defined as:

A . the amount of energy released when a gaseous

atom or ion gains an electron.

B . the amount of energy required to remove an

electron from a gaseous atom or ion.

C . the energy required to convert a compound

into its gaseous ions.

D . the energy change when a compound is

formed from its elements in their standard states.

2 3 . Which of the following is NOT a colligative

property?

A . Freezing-point depression B . Osmotic pressure C . Electrical conductivity D . Vapor-pressure lowering

2 4 . Which of the following factors can change the

numerical value of an equilibrium constant Keq?

A . Volume B . Concentration C . Temperature D . Pressure

2 5 . Boyle’s Law states that:

A . at constant pressure, the volume of a gas is

directly proportional to temperature.

B . at constant temperature, the volume of a gas

is inversely proportional to pressure.

C . at constant temperature and pressure, the

volume of a gas is directly proportional the number of moles of gas.

D . the total pressure exerted by a gaseous

mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures exerted by each individual gas.

2 6 . The mass number of a neutral element corresponds

to the number of:

A . protons.

B . protons and electrons. C . neutrons.

2 7 . According to the following standard reduction

potentials:

Zn2+_{(aq) + 2e}– _{Æ Zn(s) E° = –0.76 V}

Ag+_{(aq) + e}–_{Æ Ag(s) E° = +0.8 V}

What is the cell potential of the reaction below? Zn(s) + 2Ag+_{(aq) Æ Zn}2+_{(aq) + 2Ag(s)}

A . –1.56 V B . –0.04 V C . +0.04 V D . +1.56 V

2 8 . What is the oxidation state of manganese in

KMnO4?

A . –2 B . +1 C . +4 D . +7

2 9 . Transition metal complexes are usually colored

because:

A . electrons escape from the valence shell of the

metal.

B . d electrons relax from a higher energy orbital

to a lower energy orbital.

C . the ionic radii of the transition metals is

small.

D . d electrons jump from a lower energy orbital

to a higher energy orbital.

3 0 . What is the ground-state electron configuration of

Fe (atomic number 26)?

A . 1s2_2s2_2p6_3s2_3p6_4s2_3d6

B . 1s2_2s2_2p6_3s2_3p6_4s1_3d7

C . 1s2_2s2_2p6_3s2_3p6_3d8

D . 1s2_2s2_2p6_3s2_3p6_4s3_3d5

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

BEGIN GRIDDING AT SECTION 3.

Section 3: Organic Chemistry

1 . Which of the following carboxylic acid derivatives are most reactive towards nucleophilic acyl substitution?

A . Esters

B . Acid anhydrides C . Acyl halides D . Amides

2 . The compound below is classed as a(n):

H₂N CH₂ C O NH CH₂COOH A . amino acid. B . dipeptide. C . monoglyceride. D . carbohydrate.

3 . Which compound(s) below is/are optically active?

CH₃ CH₃ I C C Cl Cl H H H₃C H₃C II C CH₃ OH H C H H C H H H III A . II only B . III only C . I and III only D . I, II, and III

4 . What would happen if valine (pI = 6.0) and lysine (pI = 9.8) were subjected to electrophoresis at pH 6?

A . Valine would migrate to the anode and lysine

would migrate to the cathode.

B . Valine would not move and lysine would

migrate to the anode.

C . Valine would not move and lysine would

migrate to the cathode.

D . Lysine would not move and valine would

migrate to the cathode.

5 . Which of the compounds below cannot be oxidized to a carboxylic acid?

A . An aldehyde B . A tertiary alcohol C . A primary alcohol D . A terminal alkene

6 . What is the order of increasing boiling points in the following compounds?

I II III CH₃CH₂COOH CH₃CH₂C O H CH₃CH₂CHOH A . I < III < II B . II < III < I C . III < II < I D . I < II < III

7 . An IR peak in the region 1680–1750 cm– 1 _is

characteristic of what type of bond stretch?

A . O–H B . C=O C . C–C D . C–H

8 . What is the order of stability in the free radicals shown below? I II III C CH3 CH₃ CH CH2 CH₃ CH CHCH3 CH₃ A . III > I > II B . II > III > I C . I > II > III D . I > III > II

9 . Which of the structures below accurately represents a zwitterion? A. B. C. D. C H R COO– H₃N+ C H R COO– H₂N C H R COOH H₃N+ C H R COOH H₂N

1 0 . Which of the following is a false statement about

the reaction below?

CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl NaOH

DMSO CH3CH2CH2OH

A . The reaction proceeds via the formation of a

carbocation.

B . The rate of reaction is dependent upon the

concentration of both substrate and nucleophile.

C . The reaction proceeds via a concerted

mechanism.

D . The reaction intermediate is neutral.

1 1 . Which of the structures below is NOT aromatic?

A. B. C. D. – N H H N H N +

1 2 . Why is the reaction below an inefficient method to

synthesize primary amines?

NH₃ + CH₃Cl OH

–

CH₃NH₂ + HCl

A . Hydroxide ions will hydrolyze the primary

amine.

B . Excess alkyl halide will react to form side

products.

C . Hydrochloric acid will hydrolyze the primary

amine.

D . Ammonia is a poor nucleophile and will not

react with chloromethane.

1 3 . The reaction below results in the formation of:

MgBr + O H H₃O+ A . a secondary alcohol. B . a tertiary alcohol.

1 4 . The bond angle most associated with sp3

hybridized atoms is:

A . 104.5°. B . 120°. C . 109.5°. D . 180°.

1 5 . Which of following is an example of a

chain-propagation step? A . CH3CH2CH2• + CH₃CH₂CH₂• Æ CH3(CH2)4CH3 B . CH3CH2CH3 + Cl• Æ CH3CH2CH2• + HCl C . Cl2 hu æ Æ æ 2Cl• D . 2Cl• Æ Cl2

1 6 . Which of the following cannot be oxidized to form

a carboxylic acid?

A . a primary alcohol B . an alkylbenzene C . a ketone D . an aldehyde

1 7 . Epimers are specific types of carbohydrates that

differ in the orientation of substituents about carbon 2. Therefore, epimers are specific types of:

A . conformational isomer. B . structural isomer. C . enantiomer. D . diastereomer.

1 8 . Which of the following carboxylic acids will be

the most acidic?

A . CCl₃CH₂COOH

B . CHF2CH2COOH

C . CH₃CFClCOOH

D . CH3CF2COOH

1 9 . What is the IUPAC name of the compound

below? O OH OH A . b-Hydroxyhexanoic acid B . 5-hydroxyhexanoic acid C . 6-carboxy-2-hexanol D . 1-carboxy-5-hexanol

2 0 . A compound with the general formula

RCOOCOR (where R = –H or any alkyl group) is classed as a(n):

A . ether. B . ester.

C . acid anhydride. D . epoxide.

2 1 . In the reaction below, what is the function of

AlCl₃?

Cl₂ AlCl₃

Cl

A . It acts as a Lewis acid catalyst. B . It depolarizes the chlorine molecule.

C . It withdraws electrons from the aromatic ring. D . It attacks and adds to the aromatic ring.

2 2 . Which of the following is a quaternary ammonium

salt?

A . (CH3)4N+Cl–

B . (CH₃)₃NH+_Cl–

C . (CH3)2NH2+Cl–

D . NH₄+_Cl–

2 3 . Which reagent would be most suitable in the

extraction of phenol from CCl₄?

A . Sodium bicarbonate B . Hydrochloric acid C . Sodium hydroxide D . Sodium chloride

2 4 . Which of the following represents the most stable form of cyclohexane? A. B. C. D.

2 5 . Which of the compounds below will NOT produce

an IR spectrum?

A . CO B . Cl2

C . HCl D . CO2

2 6 . The reaction below is an example of:

OH O + O O OH + H₂O H+ A . saponification. B . nucleophilic substitution. C . esterification. D . acid-catalyzed hydrolysis.

2 7 . Which of the following is the correct structure of

b-glucose? A. B. C. D. O CH₂OH HO HO OH OH O CH₂OH HO HO OH OH O CH₂OH HO HO OH OCH₃ O CH₂OH H H OH OH

2 8 . Which of the following does NOT directly

contribute to the tertiary structure of a protein?

A . Disulfide bonds

B . Electrostatic interactions C . Hydrogen bonding D . Peptide bonds

2 9 . The reaction below is an example of:

CH₃CH CH₂ + HBr CH₃CHBrCH₃

A . Markovnikov addition. B . anti-Markovnikov addition. C . electrophilic substitution. D . free-radical addition.

3 0 . What is/are the product(s) of the reaction below? CH₃ CH CH₃ O–Na+ + CH₃CH₂Cl A. B. C. D. CH₃ CH CH₃ OCH₂CH₃ + NaCl CH₃ CH CH₃ O–Na+ + CH₂CH₂ + HCl CH₃ CH CH₃ CH₂CH₃ + NaOCl CH₃ CH CH₂ + CH₃CH₂O–Na+ + Cl–

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

BEGIN GRIDDING AT SECTION 4.

Section 4: Physics

1 . A person drives, starting from rest, from the Boston area to the New York area where they again come to rest. The total distance traveled is 260 miles and the trip takes 4 hours to complete. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

A . The person’s instantaneous velocity is always

65 miles per hour.

B . The person’s instantaneous velocity is always

less than 65 miles per hour.

C . The person’s instantaneous velocity is

sometimes less than 65 miles per hour.

D . The person’s average velocity is always less

than the instantaneous velocity.

2 . A projectile is launched with an initial angle of 30° with respect to the horizontal and an initial speed of 100 m/s. The velocity of the projectile at its highest point is:

A . 100 m/s B . 100 cos30° m/s C . 100 sin30° m/s D . 0 m/s

3 . An external force of 50 N is acting horizontally on an object that is on a horizontal surface. The force of friction on the object is 50 N. The object is:

A . accelerating. B . decelerating. C . motionless.

D . Not enough information to determine the state

of motion.

4 . An object is sliding down a frictionless incline whose angle of inclination is 20°. The normal force on the object is:

A . equal to the object’s weight.

B . equal to the component of the object’s weight

along the direction of the incline.

C . less than the component of the object’s

weight along the direction of the incline.

D . greater than the component of the object’s

weight along the direction of the incline.

5 . A spaceship is towing a satellite and exerts a force of 5000 N on the cable that joins the two. The reaction force of the satellite has a magnitude of 5000 N and is directed opposite to the force on the satellite. The magnitude of the net force on the satellite is:

A . 5000 N B . 0 N C . –5000 N

D . Cannot be determined from the information

given.

6 . A 10 kg object slides down an incline whose coefficient of friction is 0.3. As the angle of the incline increases, the frictional force:

A . stays the same B . increases C . decreases

D . increases for inclinations below 45° and then

decreases for inclinations above 45°

7 . A horizontal steel bar of uniform mass density and mass 5 kg is supported by two vertical steel cables attached to the ends of the bar. When a 75 kg mass hangs from the center of the bar, the tension in each cable is:

A . 75 N

B . 375 N C . 400 N D . 800 N

8 . A satellite of mass m orbits the Earth in a circular orbit which is at distance of r from the center of the Earth. The speed of the satellite is constant and equal to v. Determine the amount of work done by gravity during one complete orbit of the satellite.

A . 0 B . 2prm g

C . 2pr GmMearth/r2

9 . A projectile of mass 20 kg is shot at an angle of 60° to the horizontal at a speed of 100 m/s. What is the energy of the projectile at its highest point?

A . 0 Joules

B . 2.5 ¥ 104 _Joules.

C . 7.5 ¥ 104 _Joules.

D . 1 ¥ 105 _Joules.

1 0 . A lamp with a 100-Watt light bulb is turned on.

How long does it take for the lamp to consume 3.6 ¥ 105 _Joules?

A . 3.6 ¥ 103 s

B . 3.6 ¥ 107 _s

C . (1/3.6) ¥ 10– 3 _s

D . (1/3.6) ¥ 10–7 s

1 1 . An 80 kg ice skater, standing on an essentially

frictionless frozen pond, propels himself forward by throwing a 5 kg mass in the opposite direction with a speed of 1 m/s. The skater is then propelled forward at a speed of 1/16 m/s. The total momentum of the skater and mass when both are moving is:

A . 10 kg m /s B . –10 kg m/s C . 0 kg m/s D . 5 kg m/s

1 2 . Suppose that the liquid used in a thermometer has

a thermal expansion coefficient which is less than that of the thermometer tube itself. Which of the following best describes what happens with a change in temperature?

A . The liquid level rises when the temperature

rises.

B . The liquid level falls when the temperature

rises.

C . The liquid level remains the same when the

temperature rises.

D . The liquid level falls when the temperature

falls.

1 3 . A large aluminum stock pot is filled with 2 quarts

of tap water at an initial temperature of 20°C. The water is then brought to a boil in a time of 5 minutes. An identical pot is filled with 3 quarts of tap water at an initial temperature of 20°C and placed over an identical heat source. Determine the amount of time required to bring the 3 quarts of water to a boil.

A . 3.33 minutes B . 5 minutes C . 7.5 minutes

D . Not enough information to determine the

required time.

1 4 . 500 calories of heat are applied to a 10 g cube of

ice which is at an initial temperature of 0˚C. What is the change in temperature of the ice due to this amount of heat? Note: the heat of fusion of water is 80 cal/g and the specific heat of water is 1 cal/gm°C.

A . 0°C B . 5/8°C C . 42°C D . 50°C

1 5 . An ideal gas undergoes a process in which it does

20 Joules of work on a piston and ends up in a final state with an increase in internal energy of 10 Joules. The amount of heat gained or lost by the gas is:

A . 10 Joules lost B . 30 Joules gained C . 10 Joules gained D . 30 Joules lost

1 6 . A copper ball of density 8.9 ¥ 103 _kg/m3 _is

dropped, first into a container filled with water, and then a container filled with oil. The density of the water is 1 ¥ 103 _kg/m3 _{and the density of the}

oil is 700 kg/m3_{. Ignoring frictional effects,}

which of the following best describes the results of this experiment?

A . In each liquid, the ball falls with an

acceleration equal to g.

B . The acceleration of the ball is less than g in

both liquids and the greatest in water.

C . The acceleration of the ball is less than g in

both liquids and the greatest in oil.

D . The acceleration of the ball in both liquids is

1 7 . A long piece of pipe of varying cross section is

filled with a fluid of density 1.02 g/cm3 _{and fitted}

with movable pistons on each end. The piston on the left end has a cross sectional area of A₁ and the piston on the right end has a cross sectional area of A₂. If a pressure of p_o is applied to the piston on the left end then the pressure experienced by the piston at the right end is:

A . p_oA₂

B . (A2/A1)po

C . (A₁/A₂)p_o

D . po

1 8 . An airplane wing is constructed so as to minimize

turbulent flow over the wing and also ensure that the air flowing over the top surface of the wing travels a greater distance in a given amount of time than the air flowing over the bottom wing surface. Such a design will generate a lift force when air flows over the top and bottom wing surfaces because:

A . The velocity of the air on the top surface is

greater than the velocity of the air onthe bottom surface.

B . The velocity of the air on the top surface is

less than the velocity of the air on the bottom surface.

C . The density of the air on the top surface is

less than the density of the air on the bottom surface.

D . The density of the air on the top surface is

greater than the density of the air on the bottom surface.

1 9 . An electron with a speed of 3 ¥ 105 _{cm/s moves}

in a northerly direction through a region of space containing a uniform electric field of strength 100 V/m which is directed toward the east. Which of the following best describes the result of the field on the motion of the electron?

A . The electron is deflected to the east with no

change in velocity.

B . The electron is deflected to the west and

experiences an increase in velocity.

C . The electron is deflected to the east and

experiences an increase in velocity.

D . The electron is deflected to the west with no

change in velocity.

2 0 . A long straight wire carries a current directed

towards the top of the page. A proton moves with velocity 2 ¥ 104 _{cm/s towards the bottom of the}

page and to the left of the wire. The magnetic force on the proton is:

A . towards the top of the page B . towards the left

C . towards the right

D . towards the bottom of the page

2 1 . A circuit consists of a 12 V battery and two

resistors of resistance 3 W and 4 W in parallel with the battery. The ratio of the current in the 3 W resistor to that in the 4 W resistor is:

A . 1:1 B . 3:4 C . 4:3 D . 12:7

2 2 . A circuit consists of a 6 V battery attached to a 12

mF parallel plate capacitor. While the capacitor is charging, the voltage across the capacitor is:

A . increasing and less than 6 V B . decreasing and less than 6 V C . decreasing and greater than 6 V D . equal to 6 V

2 3 . The speed of sound in air is proportional to the

square root of the absolute temperature of the air. An organ pipe of fixed length produces a tone of frequency 343 Hz and wavelength 1 meter at an air temperature of 20°C. At a temperature of 25°C, the same pipe produces a tone with:

A . an increased frequency and a decreased

wavelength

B . an increased frequency and the same

wavelength

C . an increased wavelength and the same

frequency

2 4 . A mass attached to a horizontal spring rests on a

frictionless horizontal surface, and will undergo simple harmonic motion with period 2 s when displaced from equilibrium and released. If the mass is released at t = 0, then determine the time or times at which the spring has its minimum potential energy.

A . 0.5 s only B . 1 s only

C . 0.5 s and 1.5 s only. D . 1 s and 2 s only.

2 5 . A state trooper uses Doppler radar to track the

speed of traffic that moves away from him. If the frequency of the outgoing radar, as measured by the trooper, is 101 0 _{Hz, then the frequency of the}

radar that bounces off the car and returns to the trooper is:

A . also equal to 101 0 _Hz

B . sometimes greater than 101 0 _{Hz depending on}

the way in which it reflects off of each particular car

C . always greater than 101 0 _Hz

D . always less than 101 0 _Hz

2 6 . A light ray of wavelength 600 nm enters a piece

of glass with index of refraction 1.5. Which of the following best describes the path of the emerging ray? A. air glass C. air glass B. air glass D. air glass A . A B . B C . C D . D

2 7 . An object is placed in between the focal point and

the surface of a thin converging lens. The image produced is:

A . real and upright. B . real and inverted. C . virtual and upright. D . virtual and inverted.

2 8 . A plane mirror of height 1 m has the property that

it reflects light rays that are perpendicular to its surface back in the same direction they came. The focal length of such a mirror is:

A . 0 m. B . 0.5 m. C . 1 m. D . infinity.

2 9 . The first four energy levels of a hypothetical atom

are listed below. What is the frequency of light emitted when the atom makes a transition from the n=4 to the n=2 level of this atom? (h = 4.1 ¥ 10– 1 5 _{eV s)} n = 1 n = 2 n = 3 n = 4 –6.4 eV –4.2 eV –3.1 eV –2.6 eV A . 3.9 ¥ 101 4 _Hz B . 6.3 ¥ 101 4 _Hz C . 1.0 ¥ 1015 Hz D . 1.7 ¥ 101 5 _Hz

3 0 . The radioactive isotope of lead, Pb, decays to the

radioactive isotope of bismuth, Bi. The decay process responsible for this decay is:

A . alpha decay. B . beta-minus decay. C . beta-plus decay. D . gamma decay.

Personal Profile Questions

Directions: Please answer these questions on the Science Diagnostic Input Form in the Personal Profile section.

ITEM 1 No Input ITEM 2 No Input ITEM 3 No Input ITEM 4 No Input ITEM 5 No Input ITEM 6 No Input ITEM 7

On which test date do you plan to take the MCAT? (You must put a valid date here.)

ITEM 8

No Input

ITEM 9

Please fill in your approximate undergraduate GPA on a 4.0 scale. If you have taken graduate or post-baccalaureate courses, you may include them in your GPA estimate.

ITEM 10

1. Please indicate your undergraduate major(s). You may check more than one, if necessary.

(A) Biology (B) Chemistry (C) Physics

(D) Mathematics / Computer Science (E) Psychology

(F) History / Sociology / Social Science (G) English / Liberal Arts

(H) Other

2. When you were in school, what was the most effective way for you to study for exams? (You may check more than one.)

(A) Listening to a lecture by a good teacher (B) Working in a small study group (C) Studying heavily from books (D) Studying heavily from lecture notes (E) Working with computer programs (F) No preference

3. Which of the following concerns you about the MCAT? (You may check more than one.) (A) Weakness in basic science knowledge (B) Trouble understanding MCAT passages (C) Trouble with reading and Verbal Reasoning (D) Trouble with essay writing

(E) Test anxiety (F) Test stamina

(G) I'm just not good at standardized tests (H) I’m not concerned

4. Which of the following online services do you use regularly (once a week or more)? (You may check more than one.)

(A) I don't use an online service (B) America Online

(C) Compuserve (D) Prodigy

(E) Internet (newsgroups, e-mail, etc.) (F) World Wide Web

5. In school, how did you prefer to study? Check all that apply.

(A) Alone in dorm room

(B) Alone in Library Reading Room (large table) (C) Alone in Library book stacks (private desk) (D) Small group (4 or less people)

(E) Large group (5 or more people) (F) Other

6. What are your perceived MCAT strengths? Check all that apply.

(A) Solid biology knowledge

(B) Solid organic chemistry knowledge (C) Solid general chemistry knowledge (D) Solid physics knowledge

(E) Strong analytical skills

(F) Strong reading comprehension skills (G) Strong standardized testing skills (H) Familiarity with MCAT question style

7. What are your perceived MCAT weaknesses? Check all that apply.

(A) Weak biology knowledge

(B) Weak organic chemistry knowledge (C) Weak general chemistry knowledge (D) Weak physics knowledge

(E) Weak analytical skills

(F) Weak reading comprehension skills (G) Weak standardized testing skills

(H) Little familiarity with MCAT question style

8. Leave Blank 9. Leave Blank

ITEM 11

If you have taken the MCAT before, please indicate your best total score (3-45). Please mark your score in the last two slots (e.g.: __24). If you have never taken the MCAT previously, leave this item blank.

ITEM 12

As realistically as you can, please tell us your total target MCAT score (e.g., 30 (10s in each numerical section)). You must indicate a target score here.

ITEM 13 No Input ITEM 14 No Input ITEM 15–17 No Input ITEM 18

1. In light of the fact that Kaplan MCAT preparation is a serious commitment, what is your most realistic estimate of how many hours per week you plan to spend on MCAT practice? (including homework assignments)

(A) Fewer than 2 hours (B) 2-5 hours

(C) 5-10 hours (D) 10-15 hours (E) more than 15 hours

2. When was the last time you studied any form of biology (basic or advanced)?

(A) more than 3 years ago (B) 3 years ago

(C) 2 years ago (D) 1 year ago

(E) less than 1 year ago (F) currently studying it

(G) will study it in the near future (e.g., next semester)

3. When was the last time you studied any form of inorganic chemistry (basic or advanced)? (A) more than 3 years ago

(B) 3 years ago (C) 2 years ago (D) 1 year ago

(E) less than 1 year ago (F) currently studying it

(G) will study it in the near future (e.g., next semester)

4. When was the last time you studied any form of organic chemistry (basic or advanced)?

(A) more than 3 years ago (B) 3 years ago

(C) 2 years ago (D) 1 year ago

(E) less than 1 year ago (F) currently studying it

(G) will study it in the near future (e.g., next semester)

5. When was the last time you studied any form of physics (basic or advanced)?

(A) more than 3 years ago (B) 3 years ago

(C) 2 years ago (D) 1 year ago

(E) less than 1 year ago (F) currently studying it

(G) will study it in the near future (e.g., next semester)

6. Is English your native language? (A) Yes

(B) No

7. How would you rate your proficiency in English writing ?

(A) poor (B) fair (C) good (D) excellent

8. How would you rate your proficiency in English reading ?

(A) poor (B) fair (C) good (D) excellent

9. How long has it been since you last wrote brief, organized essays on a regular basis, whether in school or in another context?

(A) I currently do so on a regular basis (B) It's been less than one year (C) It's been one to two years (D) It's been two to three years (E) It's been more than three years

10. How close do you live to your nearest Kaplan Center?

(A) Fewer than 5 miles (B) 5-10 miles

(C) 10-15 miles (D) 15-25 miles (E) more than 25 miles 11–96. Leave these questions blank.

ITEM 19

No Input

ITEM 20