PSM T & D – 2020 1. Which of the following is a discovery of
the scientist shown below:
a. Small pox vaccine
b. Rabies vaccine
c. Theory of Multifactorial disease causation
d. OPV vaccine
2. Infectivity of a disaese agent implies: a. Ability to be transmitted
b. Ability to produce severe cases
c. Ability to invade & multiply in the host body
d. Ability to produce clinically apparent illness
3. ICD – 11 replaces the term Mental Retardation with which of the following?
a. Mental Disability
b. Intellectual Disability
c. Mental incapacity d. Functional disorders 4. Which of the following is the cut off for
Lethal BMI? a. <10 b. <11
c. <12
d. <13
5. Incidence is defined as:
A. Number of cases existing in a given population at a given moment period
B. Number of cases existing over a given period
C. Number of new cases occurring during a specified period
D. Number of old cases present
6. Study of a person who has already contracted the disease is called:
A Case control B. Cohort
C. Control cohort D. None of the above
7. Diseases which are imported into a country in which they do not otherwise occur is:
A. Exotic B. Epizootic
C. Endemic D. None of the above
8. When disease enters and first symptom appears is known as:
A. Serial interval B. Incubation period C. Quarantine D. Period of infectivity
9. Notifiable disease is:
A. Varicella B.Cholera C. Malaria D. Filaria
10. Which is most economical and best screening:
A. Mass screening B. High-risk screening
C. Multiphasic screening D. Any of the above
11. True statements concerning cohort studies include all the following except: A. Cohort studies are longitudinal in design B. Subjects are selected on the basis of characteristics present before the onset of the condition being studied
C. Subjects are observed over time to determine the frequency of occurrence of the condition under study
D. Cohort studies are necessary to estimate the prevalence of disease
12. Most difficult criteria to establish causal association in etiology of a disease is: A) Temporality
B) Strength of association C) Specificity of association D) Biological plausibility
13. Disinfection by autoclaving is NOT recommended for:
A. Sputum' B. Linen
C. Sharp instruments D. Glass syringes
14. The ability of a test to correctly
diagnose the percentage of sick people who are having the condition is called as?
(A) Sensitivity B. Specificity (B) Specificity
(C) Positive predictive value D. NPV (D) Negative predictive value
15. Time gap between infection and maximum infectivity is known as?
(A) Incubation period (B) Serial interval
(C) Generation time (D) Communicable
period 16. Communicability of disease is assessed by?
a. Secondary attack rate
(b) Serial interval © Generation Time d.Incubation period
17. Selection bias can be eliminated by? (A) Randomization (B) Single blinding (C) Double blinding (D) Matching 18. Secular trend is best demonstrated by?
b. Bar graph c. Stem-leaf plot d. Box &Whisker plot
19. A Chi square test with a contingency table having 4 rows & 4 columns would have the following degrees of freedom:
a. 16 b. 4 c. 9 d. 8
20. Where is the head-quarter of this UN agency situated?
a. New York b. Geneva
c. Rome
d. Washington DC
21. Screening of the diseases is which type of prevention? (A) Primordial (B) Primary (C) Secondary (D) Tertiary
22. Best study for assessment of unknown or new disease with no etiological
hypothesis is:
a. Cohort study b. Case control study c. Cross sectional study
d. Descriptive epidemiology
23. One DALY signifies?
a. 1 year of disease free life b. 1 month of bedridden life c. 1 lost year of healthy life d. None of these
24. Berkesonian bias is due to? a. Presence of confounding factors in both cases & controls
b. Questioning the cases more thoroughly as compared to controls c. Different rates of admission to hospital due to different diseases
d. Better recall by the cases as compared to controls
25. In simple random sampling
a. All have equal chance of getting selected b. Selection is dependent on individuals characteristic
c. Only possible when complete sampling frame is not available
d. Suitable for large heterogeneous population
26. Continuous frequency distribution of a grouped data is given by:
A) Bar chart B) Pie chart C) Histogram
D) None of the above
27. The mean Hb level of healthy women is 12g / dl and the SD is 1.5. What is the Z score for a woman with Hb level of 15 g/dl? A) 1
B) 2 C) 10 D) 9
28. Which of the following indicators is not required to determine physical quality of life index?
A. Birth rate B. Infant mortality
C. Life expectancy at age one D. Literacy
29.. Which of these is not a measure of central tendency?
A. Cumulative frequency B. Arithmetic mean
C. Median D. Mode
30. Differences between the means of two samples are tested using which one of the following methods?
A. t- Test B. Analysis of variance C. Chi-square test D.Correlation analysis
31. The relative risk of developing lung cancer for smokers versus non-smokers is 24 this implies that:
A. 24% of all lung cancer patients smoke cigarettes
B. The incidence of lung cancer among smokers is 24 times that among non-smokers
C. The prevalence of lung cancer among smokers is 24 times that among non-smokers
D. 24% of all smokers develop lung cancer
32. Which of the following parasitic infections is transmitted to human by the black fly and can cause blindness?
A. Onchocerciasis B. Toxocariasis C. Trichuriasis D. Strongyloidiasis 33. Which of the following is false regarding kala-azar:
b. Man is the only reservoir host c. Causes by Leishmania
donovani
d. Infants are not susceptible 34. Which of the following wastes are disposed in the bag shown below:
a. Anatomical waste b. Sharp waste c. Urine bags d. Soiled waste
35. Most commonly reported disease in post disaster period is:
A) ARI B) Malaria C) Tetanus D) Gastroentritis
36. All are water washed diseases except: A) Scabies
B) Trachoma C) Typhoid D) Conjunctivitis
37.Identify mosquito larva shown in Fig.
A. Anopheles B. Aedes C. Culex D. Mansonia
38. Identify the disease manifesting as lesions given in the image?
A. Measles B. Chickenpox C. Rubella
D. Erythema infectiosum
39. Newborn care corner is present in - A. NICU
B. OPD
C. Labour room
40. Theory of web of causation was given by?
(A) Mc Mahon and Pugh (B) Pettenkoffer
(C) John snow (D) Louis Pasteur
41. Missing cases are detected by? a. Active surveillance (b) Sentinel surveillance (c) Passive surveillance (D) Monitoring
42. Most common direct cause of maternal mortality in our country is:
a. Hemorrhage b. Anemia
c. Heart disease d.Infection
43. Which of the following is the commonest vector for malaria transmission in India: A) A. stephensi B) A. culicifacies
C) A. sundaicus D) A. fluviatilis
44. Which statement is true concerning measures of central tendency?
a. If more outlying observations are smaller than the rest of
the values, the data are skewed to the right
b. If more outlying observation is larger than the rest of the values, the median will be smaller than the mean c. If the data are skewed to the
left, the means is larger than the median
d. The median is more sensitive than the means to extreme observation
45. Which of the following indices of obesity is height independent:
A) Quetlet’s index B) Ponderal index C) Broca’s index D) Corpulence index
46. Which of the following drugs is not used in the continuation phase of management of a multi drug resistant TB as per the DOTS Plus regime?
a) Ethionamide b) Cycloserine c) Kanamycin d) Ethambutol
47. Minimum depth for the brick lining of a sanitary well is?
A. 10 feet B. 20 feet C. 35 feet D. 50 feet
48. In HIV commonest mode of transmission is by:
a. Homosexual b. Blood transfusion c. Heterosexual d. Needle prick
49. Which of the following disease is spread by soft tick as a vector:
a. Pediculosis b. Q fever
c. Epidemic typhus d.Trench fever
50. Which of the following is true with regard to Bhore Committee report of 1946:
A) 1 PHC for every 40000 population B) 1 PHC for every 50000 population C) 1 PHC for every 30000 population D) 1 SC for every 3000-3500 population
51. In a programme the end point of all activities which may not be operationally measurable is called?
a. Objective b. Target c. Mission d. Goal
52. Environmental manipulation which enables genes to express themselves readily is known as:
A) Positive eugenics B) Negative eugenics C) Euthenics
D) Genetic counseling
53. Microorganism used as weapon in
biological terrorism:
A. Small pox virus B. Rabies
virus
C. Human Parvovirus D. Influenza C virus
54.Chronic carriers are seen in all of the following except:
a. Measles
b. Diphtheria c. Dysentry d. Gonorrhoea
55. All of the following are true for incineration except:
a. Pre-treatment with appropriate chemical needed for optimum results
b. Double chamber pyrolytic incinerators – to burn infectious health care wastes
c. Combustible matter more than 60%
d. Moisture content <30%
56. Which of the following diseases is not included under national vector borne diseases control programme
(A) Dengue (B) Filaria
(C) Chickungunya (D) KFD
57. Which of the following is the contraceptive of choice for emergency contraception?
a) Levonorgestral b) IUD c) Combined pills d) high dose estrogen
58. Which of the following is the nodal ministry for ICDS:
A) Ministry of HRD
B) Ministry of Social Justice & empowerment
C) Ministry of Women & Child Development D) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare 59. Triage is:
A. Treating the most serious cases B. Treating mentally ill patients
C. Categorization of patients and treating them according to the available resources D. Treating terminally ill patients
60.Health guides work at the level of:
a. PHC
b. Village
c. Subcenter
d. Community
61. Which one of the following is NOT a socio-economic indicator:
(A) Literacy rate (B) Family size (C) Housing (D) Doctor population ratio
62. According to Registration Act 1969 (Amendment), birth is to be registered within:
A. 7 days after the birth B. 14 days after the birth
C. 21 days after the birth D. Within 48
hours of birth
63. Universal precaution is applied to:
A. Stool B. Sputum
C. Semen D. Urine
64. Samuel Hahneman is referred to as founding father of:
A) Ayurveda B) Allopathy C) Homeopathy D) Yoga
65. Henry Dunant’s name is associated with A) Indian Red Cross
B) International Red Cross C) Rockefellar Foundation D) None of the above
66. Quarantine was first applied for A) HIV/AIDS
B) TB C) Leprosy D) Plague
67.In lepromin test, Mitsuda reaction is read after:
a. 3 weeks
b. 48 hours c. 24 hours d. 8 weeks
68. A series of speeches is given by experts but there is no discussion among speakers. This is seen in:
A) Symposium B) Lecture
C) Panel discussion D) Workshop
69. WHO day is celebrated on: a. April 10 b. April 7th c. May 31st d. Dec 1st 70. Mid-day meals
provided in schools is:
a. One half of calories and one half of protein b. One third of calories
and one half of protein c. One half of calories
and one third of protein d. One third of calories
and one fourth of protein 71. Mala N contains: a. Levonorgestrel 0.15 mg + ethinyl oestradiol 0.03 mg b. Medroxyprogesteron e acetate 150 mg c. Levonorgestrel 0.25 mg + ethinyl oestradiol 0.03 mg d. Desogestrel 0.3 mg + ethinyl oestradiol 0.03 mg 72. In a standard normal
curve, mean 2 standard deviation covers: a. 60% b. 65% c. 99% d. 95% 73. Odds ratio, is calculated from: a. Cohort study b. Cross sectional study
c. Case control study
d. Randomized
controlled trial
74. Bhopal gas tragedy
is an example of ________________epidemic: a. Propagated b. Point source c. Continuous d. Modern
75. Pearl index indicates the number of accidental
pregnancies per:
a. Hundred women
years
b. Thousand women
years
c. Hundred live births d. Hundred stillbirths
76. Kata thermometer is
used to measure:
a. Cooling power of air
b. Maximum temperature c. Minimum temperature d. Body temperature 77. Ideal desk
recommended for a school child is:
a. Minus desk
b. Plus desk
c. Zero desk
d. Any of the above
78. Candidate for
copper-T insertion include all of the following, except:
a. Has borne at least one child
b. Is willing to check IUD tail
c. Has a history of ectopic pregnancy
d. Has normal menstrual periods
79. Which one of the
following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?
a. Cause specific death rate
b. Case fatality rate c. Standardization
mortality ratio
d. Five year survival
80. Which of the
following is true about chi-square test:
a. Tests the
significance of difference between two proportions b. Also be used when
more than two groups are to be compared
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
81. Comparison of the
value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
a. Evaluation
b. Monitoring
c. Input-output analysis d. Network analysis
82. Yellow Fever certificate of vaccination is valid for?
(A) 6 years, starting from 6 days after vaccination
(B) 10 years, starting from 10 days after vaccination
(C) 10 years, starting from 6 days after
vaccination
(D) 6 years, starting from 10 days after vaccination
83. Ridel Walker coefficient is used to assess: a. Effect of autoclaving b. Sufficiency of pasteurization c. Germicidal property of disinfectant d. Effect of incineration 84. For controlling an
outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except: a. Mass chemoprophylaxis b. Proper disposal of excreta c. Chlorination of water d. Early detection and
management of cases 85. Conditions that have
been identified as immediate
priorities within VISION 2020 include the following EXCEPT
a. Cataract b. Trachoma c. Onchocerciasis d. Epidemic conjunctivitis 86. Type of biological transmission in Filariasis? a. Cyclo developmental b. Propagative c. Cyclo propagative d. Mechanical
87. Most common cause
of neonatal mortality in India is: a. Diarrheal diseases
b. Birth injuries c. Prematurity d. Congenital anomalies 88. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine? a. Aluminum b. Formaldehyde c. Zinc d. Protein
89. New RNTCP software for online monitoring of TB patients is?
a. Nikshay,
b. Nirbhya, c. e-DOT, d. Nischay
90. Which of the
following is the most sensitive index to study the trend of malaria in the community:
a. Infant parasite rate b. Proportional case rate c. Annual Parasite Incidence d. Parasite density index
91. Which of the following formulae is used for computing the Aedes aegypti Index: a. Number of bites of aedes aegypti x 100
Total number of man hours
b. No. of houses positive for Aedes aegypti
breeding X 100
Total no. of houses surveyed
c.No. of containers positive for Aedes aegypti breeding X 100
Total no. of containers examined
d.No. of containers positive for Aedes aegypti breeding X 100
Total no. of houses surveyed = Breteau’s Index
92. The pathogenic agent responsible for the causation of Donovanosis:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis c. Haemophilus ducreyi
d. Herpes simplex
93. Benefits in cost benefit analysis of a program are measured in terms of:
A) Number of lives saved B) Monetary gains
C) Comparison of alternatives D) Sequence of actions
94. Disease transmitted by Hard ticks includes all except:
A. Rocky mountain spotted fever B. Viral encephalitis
C. Tularemia D. Oriental sore
95. Under National Health Mission a U-PHC caters to a population of:
a. 2.5 lakh population
b. 50000 population
c. 1 lakh population d. 1000 – 2500 population
96. Which of the following is the recommendation for IFA prophylaxis under
National Iron Plus Initiative for children between 6 to 10 years of age?
a. 100 mg of elemental iron & 500 microgram of folic acid per day b. 100 mg of elemental iron & 500
microgram of folic acid per week
c. 45 mg of elemental iron & 400 microgram of folic acid per week
d. 20 mg of elemental iron & 100 microgram of folic acid per day
97. Zinc deficiency is characterized by: a. Sexual Infantilism
b. Poor wound healing c. Diarrhoea
d. All of the above
98. Most sensitive test for aduleration of mustard oil with sanguinarine is:
a. FeCl3
b. Nitric Acid test
c. Paper chromatography
d. Methylene blue test
99. Quantity of water available per capita considered adequate to meet the needs of all urban domestic purposes?
A. 100-150 L B. 150-200 L C. 200-250 L D. 250-300 L 100. Which of the following has high glycemic index:
a. Fruits b. White bread c. Brown bread d. Lentils
School health Service (School Health Committee – 1961)
1. No class room should accommodate more than 40 students
2. Per capita space for students in a classroom should not be less than 10 sq ft 3. Desks should be minus type
4. Window area should be at least 25 percent of the floor space; windows should be
placed on different walls for cross ventilation
5. Ventilators should not be less than 2 % of floor area
6. One urinal for 60 students and one latrine for 100 students
Some important definitions to be mugged up:
1. An objective is a planned end point of all activities; it may or may not be achieved.
2. Target often refers to discrete activity that has to be achieved within a given time frame. These are small measurable component of the entire goal. They permit the concept of degree of achievement.
3. Goal is define as the ultimate desired state towards which objectives and resources are directed. Goals are not constrained by time or the existing resources nor are they necessarily attainable.
4. Mission in turn refers to attainment of a certain goal within a stipulated time period with added impetus to the program wherein all resources and activities are to be utilized to its fullest extent to achieve the desired result. Lot of attention is also given to the supervisory and evaluation aspect; in a nutshell it is the mode in which we function to attain the target.
Attitudes are acquired characteristics of an individual. They are more or less
permanent ways of behaving. Attitudes are not learnt from books, they are acquired by social interaction, e.g., attitude towards persons, things, situations and issues. Once formed attitudes are difficult to change.
6. Belief is the psychological state in which an individual holds a proposition Values are considered subjective, vary across people and cultures and are in many ways aligned with belief and belief systems. Types of values include ethical/moral values,
doctrinal/ideological (religious, political) values, social values, and aesthetic values. It is debated whether some values are intrinsic.
"Values are beliefs and attitudes about the way things should be. They involve what is important to us. Values are applied appropriately when they are applied in the right area. For example, it would be appropriate to apply religious values in times of
happiness as well as in times of despair. "A way of measuring what people value is to ask them what their goals are.
I. Health committees and their recommendations: 1. Bhore committee, 1946
a. Setting up of national programs for health system development in the country. b. Integration of preventive and curative services.
c. Creation of Social physician by 2 months compulsory posting in PSM
d. Short Term Plan: Setting up of primary health centres (PHCs) for every 40000 population
e. Long Term plan (3 Million Plan): 1 PHC for every 10000 to 20000 population
a. Looked into progress made since the Bhore committee report.
b. Strengthening of district hospitals and regional health services to serve as referral c. Set up All India Health Services
3. Chadah committee, 1963
a. Looked into the activities of the National Malaria Eradication Programme.
b. Integrated malaria vigilance operation with general health services and Introduced the concept of a basic health worker per 10,000 population.
4. Mukerji committee, 1965
a. Recommended separate staff for family welfare programme.
b. Recommended de- linking of malaria activities from family planning activities. 5. Jungalwalla committee, 1967
a. Recommended integration of health services at all levels. 6. Kartar singh committee, 1973
a. Recommended that auxiliary nurse midwifes (ANMs) be replaced by ‘Female Health Workers’.
b. Introduced the concept of ‘Multipurpose Workers’.
c. One primary health center per 50,000 population, each divided into 16 sub centers of 3000 population each.
7. Shrivastav committee, 1975
a. Creation of bands of paraprofessional and semiprofessional workers from the community itself.
b. Reforms in health and medical education – ROME Scheme – ReOrientation of Medical Education
c. Village Health Guide Scheme
d. Setting up of referral service complex e. National Medical Education Commission
