• No results found

step 1 drugs

N/A
N/A
Protected

Academic year: 2021

Share "step 1 drugs"

Copied!
11
0
0

Loading.... (view fulltext now)

Full text

(1)

Mechanism of action for each class of anti-Arrythmic drugs?

Use the Mnemonic: NBKC I - Sodium Channel Blockers II - Beta Blockers

III – K+ channel Blockers IV - Calcium Channel Blockers Class IA Antiarrythmics Quinidine Procainamide Dispyrimide Class IB Antiarrythmics Lidoicaine Tocainide Mexiletine Phenytoin Class IC Antiarrythmics Ecainide Flecanide Propophenone 10 Class II antiarrythmics PPEST-BLAAC Pindalol Propranolol Esmolol Sotalol Timolol Butoxolol Labetalol Atenolol Acebutalol Carvedilol

Longest acting Beta blocker: Propranolol

Shortest acting Beta blocker: Esmolol

Beta blocker that is also K+ channel blocker:

Sotolol

Beta blockers used to treat glaucoma Timolol

Carvadalol

Beta blocker that is also an alpha blocker Labatalol, Carvetalol

Beta blocker that is also an agonist Pindalol

Atenolol Acebutalol

MC location and function for Beta1 receptors?

 CNS Increased activity

 Ciliary Muscles of eye to produce aqueus humor

 SA Node to increase HR and Contractility

 Alpha cells of pancreas to increase Glucagon

 JG cells of kidney to increase Renin release

MC location & function of 2 receptors?

 Ciliary muscles of eye to produce aqueus humor

 Bronchial Smooth muscle to bronchodilate

 Ventricles to Increase Contractility

 Beta Cells of Pancreas to cause Insulin Release

 Uterus and bladder to cause relaxation Selective –vs- Non-selective beta blockers?

A-M (-LC)  Selective 

N-Z(+LC)  Nonselective

Antiarrythmic causing hemolysis & thrombocytopenia

Quinidine

Fastest acting Na+ channel blocker Lidocaine

3 antiarrythmics that block 95% of sodium channels

Ecainide Flecanide Propophenone

Antiarrythmic that Causes Cinchinism Phenytoin

Antiarrythmics that cause pulmonary fibrosis

Tocainide Amiodarone

Antiarrythmics that cause Gingival Hyperplasia

Phenytoin

Antiarrythmic that causes hersutism Phenytoin

Antiarrythmics used to treat WPW Quinidine

Procainamide Phenytoin

Antiarrythmic that is contraindicated in WPW

Digitalis

Antiarrythmics Used to Treat ventricular arrythmias

Class I antiarrythmics Antiarrythmics Used to Treat Atrial Arrythmias Class IV antiarrythmics

Antiarrythmics that causes blue skin (Smurf syndrome)

Amiodarone

Antiarrythmics causing Bad GI upset Mexiletine

Antiarrythmic that causes Hyper/hypo-thyroidism

Amiodarone

Antiarrythmics Used to decrease vasospasms after subarrachnoid hemorrhage. Nimodipine Symptoms of cinchinism? Tinnitus Hearing loss Thrombocytopenia Two action of Digitalis?

 Blocks potassium arm of NA-K ATPase causing increased contraction

 Stimulates vagus, slowing HR. Pulmonary fibrosis Rx

Busulfan Bleomycin Tocainide Amiodarone

What is the most common SVT in teenagers?

Wolf-Parkinson White Pathology of WPW?

There is an accessory pathway from SA node bypassing AV node to ventricle called the Bundle of Kent.

Why are 3 Na+ blocker used to treat WPW?

They are both Na+ and Ca2+ channel blockers.

EKG finding of WPW? Delta waves.

Antiarrythmic made from iodine? Amiodarone

Name the class IV antiarrythmics Verapamil

(2)

Ditiazem Nifedipine Nicardipine Nimodipine Amlodipine Femlodipine

Cardioselective class IV antiarrythmics? Verapamil

Diltiazem

Most potent Class IV antiarrythmic? Verapamil 4 K+ Channel Blockers: Amiodarone Bretylium NAPA NAcetyl-Procainamide) Sotalol

How do you determine when to use Dopamine –vs-Dobutamine? DoButamine  Low HR DoPamine  Elevated HR

Receptor Dopamine affect 1st , 2 nd , at high

doses

D2- Dilate Kidney & GI  TPR Beta 1  HR & Contractility Alpha 1  Vasoconstrict

What conditions give you Shock & Bradycardia?

Cholinergic crisis Heart Block

Clues for Cinchonism Tinitis

Hearing Loss Thrombocytopenia

Name 7 Antimetabolite Chemotherapy drugs ARA-A ARA-C Azothiprine 5-FU 6-Mercaptopurine Methotrexate Thioguanadine

Which cancer are treated with antimetabolites?

Fast growing cancers

Which cancers are treated with alkylating agents?

A slow growing cancer

5-FU is use to treat which cancer? Duke stage C Colon Cancer in combination with levamisole

3 drugs used to treat steroid resistant disease

Methotrexate Azothioprine Cyclosporin

5-FU mechanism of action Inhibits Thymidilate synthetase

Methoterxate mechanism of action Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

To what substance is 6-Mercaptopurine metabolized

Uric acid

How do alkylating agents work? They bind dsDNA and prevent it from unwinding for replication

Name 13 alkylating agent Chemotherapy drugs Adriamycin Acridine Bleomycin Busulfan Chlorambacil Cyclophosphamide Cisplatin Dacarbazine Hydroxyurea Isophosphamide Mitomycin Mechlorethamine Procarbazine

Drugs that cause pulmonary fibrosis Bleomycin

Busulfan Amiodarone Tocainide

Favorite Alkylating agent Clorambucil

Favorite Antimetabolite Methotrexate

Drug that causes cardiac fibrosis Adriamycin (Doxarubicin)

Chemo drug that causes hemorrhagic cystitis

Cyclophosphamide

Chemo drug that causes renal failure Cisplatin

Chemo drug used to treat sickle Cell Hydroxyurea

How does hydroxyurea work? It inhibits Ribonucleotide Reductase Which two alkylating agents form free radicals

Cyclophosphamide Adriamycin

Rescue for patient on Adriamycin Desroxazine Rescue

Rescue for patient on Cyclophosphamide MESNA Rescue

Rescue for patient on Methotrexate Leucovorin Rescue

Three alkylating agents used to treat Hodgkins Lymphoma

Mechlorethamine Dacarbazine Procarbazine

Name 7 microtubule Inhibitor chemotherapy drugs

Vincristine Vinblastine Paclitaxel

Name 1 nutrient depleater chemotherapy drugs

L-Aparaginase

Name 1 immune modulator Levamisole

How does Levamisole work? It enhances NK cells

Which Microtubule inhibitor causes neuropathies?

Vincristine

Which Microtubule inhibitor causes aplastic anemia?

Vinblastine

Which Microtubule inhibitor inhibits microtubules after they are made? Paclitaxil

For what cancer is Paclitaxil used? Breast

What is the main side effect of L-arginase?

(3)

Symptoms of Cholinergic crisis SLUD Salivation Lacrimation Urination Defication

Symptoms of Anticholinergic crisis Hot

Dry Red Crazy

Give the location of Alpha 1 receptors

 Radial muscles of the eye to cause Mydriasis without cyclopledgia

 All sphincters

 Arteries to constrict

Give the location of Alpha 2 receptors

 All Presynaptic sympathetic fibers to inhibit NE

 Beta cell of the pancreas to IHN Insulin What drugs are used to treat HTN in pregnancy?

Alpha-methyl Dopa Hydralizine

Name 3 alpha 2 agonists Alpha-Methyl Dopa Guanabenz

Clonidine

Side effect of Clonidine Rebound HTN

Side effect of alpha-methyl Dopa Hemolytic anemia Anticholinergic drugs Atropine Scopalomine Glycopyrrolate Bentropine Trihexyphenadyl

Which anticholinergic is the drug of choice for heart block?

Atropine

Which anticholinergic is used to treat dystonia?

Benztropine

2 Anticholinergics used dry up secretions pre-OP?

Atropine Scopalomine

Which AchE inhibitor is used to diagnose Myesthenia Gravis?

Edrophonium

Which AchE inhibitor is used to Treat Myesthenia Gravis?

Neostigmine Pyridostygmine

Why is physostigmine not used to treat Myethenia Gravis?

Too much CNS penetration causing drowsiness

Anticholinergic used to treat organophosphate poisoning Atropine

What is the mechanism of action of Roloxafen and Tomoxafen?

 INH estrogen receptor at pituitary and Breast

 Pro-estrogen at bone

 Pro-estrogen at liver

Which estrogen receptor blocker promotes enometrial cancer? How?

 Tomoxafen

 Because it stimulates the Endometrium List 2 alpha blockers used to treat BPH Terazocin

Doxazocin

What is the MOA of Finesteride? It is a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor

What are the treatment options for BPH? #1- Terazocin, Doxazocin

#2_ Finesteride #3 – TURP MOA of Heparin

Cofactor for ATIII with allow inhibition of Thrombine and factors 9-12

MOA of Warfarin

IHN Vitamin K and thereby factors 10, 9, 7, 2, Protein C, and Protein S

For what is Vitamin K needed? Gama-carboxylation in the liver

What drug can be used acutely to inhibit GPIIb:IIIa?

Abscixamab

Name three drugs that can be used to inhibit ADP production in the clotting cascade

Ticlopidine Clopidogrel

Dipyridamole

Which are the side effects of Ticlopidine? Seizures

Agranulocytosis Clue for Dipyridamole

Vasodilator used after MI to dilate coronaries

Clue for Clopidogrel

Decreaset mortality in combination with ASA in those with risk factors

RX for PCP

Trimethaprim/Sulfamethoxazole

Rx For Patients Allergic to TMP/SULFA Pentamidine

RX for Leishmania Stybogluconate Treat MAI with Clarithromycin.

Best Rx for C.dif colitis Vancomycin

Current Rx for C.Dif colitis Metronidazole

Pregnant woman’s rectum culture returns (+) for Group B Strep. Rx with? Ampicillin

Treatment for Hookworms Mabendazole

Stongyloides Thiabendazole

What is the treatment for flatworms? Hyclosamine &Niclosamine

How do Hyclosamine & Niclosamine work?

They paralyze the worm's nervous system What drugs are used to treat Malaria? Chloroquine

Mefloroquine Primaquine Quinine

One dose treatment for candidiasis? Fluconazole

Imidazole that crosses (BBB)? Fluconazole

(4)

Imidazole inhibits P450? Ketoconazole

How is it treated?

Tinea Capitis - Griseofulvin

The Infection (Staph Aureus) - Antibiotics The Inflammatory infection – Steroids Rx for LYME'S disease?

Penicillin – First Line Tetracylcinis

4 drugs you can use to treat Herpes? Pencyclovir - TID

Acyclovir - Five (5) times a day Demcycovir - TID Vancyclovir – BID Rx for CMV Gancyclovir Rx for Shingles Famcyclovir Rx for RSV Ribavarin

Rx used to sop viral uncoating Ramantidine

Amantidine

Rx used to sop viral uncoating Ramantidine

Amantidine

How soon must Ramantidine & Amantadine must be given?

Within seventy-two (72) hours of exposure Why do you profiles contacts of people with Influenza with Amantadine for two (2) weeks?

Because IgM takes two (2) weeks to show up.

SE of Ramantadine & Amantadine Anticholinergic Side effects

Anticholinergic -vs- Sympathetic drugs? Anticholinergic drugs will not allow you to sweat, but Sympathetic drugs will.

Why is Amantadine used in Parkinson disease?

Amantadine promotes Dopamine release How does griseofulvin work?

It inhibits microtubules leading to inhibition of fungal replication.

How is Griseofulvin delivered to the infected site?

Through the sweat

How do the IV/Oral antifungal work? By inhibiting the synthesis of Ergosterol Topical(creams) antifungal work by? They bind to Ergosterol and destroy it

(Poke holes in the membrane) What topical antifungal is parenteral? Amphotericin B

Hyperkalemia + Amphotericin mean? Systemic Toxicity due to destruction of cholesterol in the cell membrane leading to leaking of K+ into cytoplasm.

Hypokalemia + Amphotericin mean? Nephotoxicity due to destruction of the cholesterol in the kidney cells and K+ leaks out in urine.

Side Effects of Amphotericin? Hypokalemia

Hyperkalemia Renal Failure

2 fungal infections Rx by Griseofulvin? Tinea Capitis and Tinea Versicolor What four drugs are used to treat anaphylaxis?

 Epinepherine

 Steroids

 Cromoly/Nadacromyl

 Anti-Histamines

What is a side effect of Cromoly and Nadacromyl?

GI Upset

MOA of Cromoly and Nadacromyl? Stabilize Mast Cell membranes

Which has a higher affinity for Alpha receptors Epinepherine of

Norepinepherine? Norepinepherine

What receptors does epinephrine have a higer affinity for?

Beta Receptors

What receptors do first generation antihistamines block?

H1

Name 5 class I antihistamines Diphenhydramine

Hydroxazine Dramamine

Phenylpropophenolamine Phenturamine

What sideeffect is seen with 1st generation

anti-histamines?

Strong Anti-Cholinergic effects Anti-histamine to Rx motion sickness Dramamine

Anti-histamine that is part of Phen-Phen Pheturamine

Anti-histamine pulled off market due to arrythmias

Phenylpropanolamine

MC over-the-counter anti-histamine Diphenhydramine (Benedryl)

Anti-histamine used to Rx Vertigo Hydroxazine (Aderax)

Disease where person passes out with positional change

Benign Positional Vertigo Clues for Miner’s disease

 Vertigo from Middle Ear

 Hearing Loss

 Too much Endolymph

 Tinitis

2 nd generation Anti-Histamines

Ephedrine Pseudephedrine Phenylephrine

Over the counter 2 generation Anti-nd

Histamines Ephedrine

2 nd generation Anti-Histamine used to

treat Neurogenic Shock Phenylephrine

Which 2 generation Anti-Histaminesnd

Can be used to tighten sphincters Pseudephedrine

Only class of drugs that give Mydriasis without cycloplegia? Alpha agonists Name 4 H2 blockers Cimetidine Rinitidine Famotidine Nizatidine

Which H2 blocker revs up the P450 system?

(5)

Cimetidine

List (5) 3rd Generation Anti-Histamine

Terfenadine Loratadine Citrerizine Fesofenodine Astemazol

3 rd Generation Anti-Histamine can treat

both indoor and outdoor allergies Fexofenidine (Allegra)

Benefit of 3 Generation Anti-Histaminerd

Once a day dosing

What is a side effect of ACE-Inhibitors and ARBs? Angioedema 9 Live Vaccines MMR BCG RSV Smallpox Rotavirus Polio Yellow Fever

Vaccines contraindicated with egg allergy MMR

Influenza

What changes are made in vaccination at age 6yo?

DPT  dT Drop Hib

If a child has any reaction to DPT what should you do?

Give acellular Pertuus (aP)

Which live vaccine cas still be given to AIDS patients?

MMR

5 actions of Anesthetics

Anesthesia – Total block of sensory info Analgesia – Blocks pain

Muscle Relaxation CNS depressant Sensitize heart to NE

What complication of surgery is due to the muscle relaxation ability of

anesthetics? Aspiration Uninary retention Decrease GI motility

Relaxed diaphram  Atelectasis DVT

Pneumonia

What 2 drugs are used for post-op urinary retention?

Carbachol Bethanichol

Which inhaled anesthetic does not sensitize the heart to NE?

Isoflurane

Inhaled anesthetic which causes hepatic necrosis?

Halothane b.c. it contains Bromine Only depolarizing anesthetic used Succinyl-Choline

Clues for Ketamine Dissociative Anesthesia Patient is awake Vivid dreams on waking How do all anesthetics work? They are sodium Channel blockers

Rule for AMIDE –vs- ESTER anesthetics I before “CAINE”  Amide  Fat soluble No I before “CAINE”  Ester  water sol What anesthetics cause Malignant Hyperthermia?

Succinyl-Choloine Halothane

What is the treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia?

Dantroline

Name 11 most common Opiates Heroine Methadone Morphine Meperidine Fentanyl Codeine Dextromethorphan Hydrocodone Loperimide Diphenoxylate Pentazosin

What are three effects of Opiates CNS Depressants – Mu-Receptors Analgesics – Kappa-Receptors in S.C. Muscle Relaxants

Most abused Opiate Heroine

Opiate used for Neurolep Anesthesia with Resperidone

Fentanyl

Longest acting Opiate Methadone

MC used Opiate in hospitals for severe pain?

Morphine

MC abused Opiate by physicians Meperidine  does not constrict pupils Most Potent Opiate

Fentanyl

Opiate used for Mild/Moderate pain Codeine

MC over-the-counter Opiate Dextromethorphan

Opiates that can be used as Antitussives Codeine

Dextromethorphan

Opiate that comes in a patch form Fentanyl

Opiate that does not constrict the sphincter of Odi

Meperidine

Opiate that causes Histamine release Morphine

Opiate that causes Catecholamine release Meperidine

Opiate that should not be used in head injuries b.c. it causes cerebral edema Morphine

Opiate used to weak patient off Heroine Methadone

Opiate used for moderate pain Hydrocodone

Codeine

Opiates used to treat diarrhea Loperimide (Lomotil)

Diphenoxilate (Imodium) Opiate that is also a blocker Pentazosin

5 Anti-Inflammatory effect of steroids

 Kill T-Cells and Macrophages

 Inhibit Macrophage Migration

 Inhibit Phospholipase A2

 Inhibit Mast Cell degranulation

(6)

Drugs to treat parkinsonism B - Bromocriptine A - Amantadine L – Levodopa/Carbidopa S - Selegeline A – Anti-Cholinergics Name the Steroid used PO Prednisone

Name the Steroid used Topically Hydrocortisone

Name the Steroid used IV Methylprenisalone

Name the Steroid used as and inhaler Triamcinalone

Steroid with the best CNS penetration Dexamethasone

Steroid with best mineralocorticoid action

Fludrocortisone

Steroid used for nasal allergies Futicasone

Nematosone

Steroid used to stimulate surfactant production is premature babies Betamethasone

Beclmetasone

In what population is Cromalyn and Nadacramyl used?

Any asthmatic that uses a beta-agonist more than once a day.

MOA for aspirin’s (ASA) anti-inflammatory action

Irriversibly inhibts cyclo-oxygenase MOA for NSAID’s

Reversibly inhibts cyclo-oxygenase Uses for ASA

2nd Strokes

ALL MI’s

Side Effects of Asprin GI Bleeding

Tinitus

Thrombocytopenia

When should you stop ASA in a patient Pre-OP?

Two Weeks Pre-OP

MOA for ASA’s Anti-Coagulation effects

Indication for NSAID’s

Mild to Moderate Inflammatory pain Side Effects of NSAID’s

GI Bleed Renal Failure Interstitial Nephritis

Main Over the counter NSAID Ibuprophen

NSAID used to close PDA Indomethacin

NSAID used for dysmenorrhea Naproxyn

NSAID as strong as Morphine Ketoralac

NSAID with Anti-Cholinergic SE Cyclobenzaprine

NSAID with GABA effects for back pain Baclophen

Most potent NSAID #1 Indomethacin #2 Phenybutazone

NSAID used 2nd line for Gout

Indomethacin

What two drugs block Leucotriene receptors?

Zirfurlekast Montelekast

What drug inhibits Lipoxygenase? Zilutin

Name 3 COX inhibitors Celecoxib

Rofecoxib Valdecoxib

Which COX Inhibitor contains Sulfer? Celecoxib

MOA for sulfonylureas

Cause K+ influx into the Islet cells and cause release of preformed Insulin Which sulfonylureas enhance glucose transport into peripheral tissue? Glipizide

Glyburide

Hyperglycemic drugs that Inhibit Glucoase absorption in GI track Ascarbos

Miglitol

Name the 1st generation Sulfonylureas

Chlorprpamide Tolbutamide Tolezalide

Name the 2nd generation Sulfonylureas

Glipizide Glyburide

Which sulfonylurea causes SIADH? Chlorpropamide

Side effects of 1st generation

sulfonylureas

 Sulfur Allergy

 Interstitial Nephritis

 Hemolytic Anemia

 Methhemoglobinemia How does Metformin work? Inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver Side effect of Metformin

Reacts with IV contrast damages kidney Severe Metabolic Acidosis

(4) Hopoglycemic drugs that upregulate insulin receptors

 Pyoglitazone

 Troglitazone

 Repaglinide

 Roglitazone

What blood gases will you see with Immediate (early) ASA toxicity? Resp Alkalosis -  PCO2 pH MC gases seen with ASA toxicity? Mixed - PCO2 pH 

HCO3-What blood gases will you see with late (obtunded/comatose) ASA toxicity? Combined - PCO2 pH  HCO3-Treatment of ASA overdose

HCO3-List the Atypicals

 Mycoplasma  Chlamydia  Legionella  Ureoplasma Simple Gm(-) E.Coli H. Influenza MOA of Quinalones

(7)

Inhibit Topoisomerase Coverage of Quinalones All GM(+) + Staph aureus Simple Gm(-)

ALL Atypicals

Name the quinaolones

 Ciprofloxacin

 Gatifloxacin

 Ofloxacin

 Norfloxacin

 Trovofloxacin

Which quinalone caused liver failure Trovofloxacin

Which quinalone is the most acidic Norfloxacin

MOA of Rifampin

Inhibits Beta subunit of RNA Polymerase Coverage of Rifampin

Treatment for TB

Prophylax contacts of H. Influenze Prophylax contacts of Neissaria Side effects of Rifampin

 Incr. P450

 Myositis

 Hepatitis

 Orange Secretions

How soon must you prophylax contact with Rifampin?

Within 72 hours MOA of Macrolides

Inhibit 50s subunit by inhibiting translocation

Coverage of Macrolides All GM(+) + Staph aureus Simple Gm(-)

ALL Atypicals

Side effects of Macrolides Inhibit P450

Gi Upset Dysgusia

Name the macrolides

 Erythromycin

 Clarithromycin

 Azithromycin

Macrolide with the longest ½ life Azithromycin

Antibiotic treatment for Mycobacterium Aviun Intracellulare

Azithromycin Clarithromycin

Macrolide with the most dysgusia Clarithromycin

Macrolide with the most GI Upset Erythromycin

One dose treatment for GC

 Ceftriaxone – 250mg IM  Cefixime  Cefoxetin  Ciprofloxacin – 500mg PO  Gatifloxacin – 400mg PO  Ofloxacin – 400 mg PO MOA of Clindamycin

Inhibit 50s subunit by inhibiting translocation

Coverage of Clindamycin All GM(+) + Staph aureus Simple Gm(-)

Anaerobes

MCC pseudomembranous colitis Clindamycin

MOA of Tetracyclines

Inhibit 30s subunit by inhibiting t-RNA Name the Tetracyclines

 T(4)  Oxytetracycline  Minocycline  Doxycycline  Damecocycline Coverage of Tetracyclines All GM(+) minus Staph aureus Simple Gm(-)

ALL Atypicals Ricketsial Infections

Tetracycline used to treat Acne Minocycline

Tetracycline that is Hepatically excreted Doxycycline

Tetracycline that blocks ADA receptors in kidney and causes nephrogenic DI Domicocycline

Side Effects of Tetracyclines

 GI Upset  Pill Esophagitis  Photosensitivity  Fanconi syndrome  Binds Ca2+ in GI  Incr. P450

 Turns teeth Gray MOA of Pyramycin

Inhibits the A site of the 50s subunit MOA of Chloramphenicol

Inbibits the 50s subunit by inhibiting Peptidyl-Transferace

Coverage of Chloramphenicol Gm(+) + Staph Aureus

Ricketsial Infections

Side Effects of Chloramphenicol Gray baby Syndrome

Aplastic Anemia

How does Chloramphenicol Cause gray baby syndrome?

They Inhibit ETC Complex IV MOA of Aminoglycosides

Inhibits the 30s subunit by inhibiting EF2 Coverage for Aminoglycosides

ALL Gram negatives

How do Aminoglycosides cause neurotoxicity?

They Inhibit the presynaptic influx of Calcium

Name the Aminoglycosides GASS Toll No Kash G – Gentamycin A – Amikacin S – Streptomycin S - Spectinomycin T – Tobramycin N – Neomycin K – Kentamycin

Aminoglycoside that is hepaticaaly excreted

Amikacin

Aminoglycosides used in triple antibiotic

 Neomycin

 Polymixin B

 Bacitracin

Aminoglycoside with the most side effects Gentamycin

Aminoglycoside used to treat TB Streptomycin

(8)

Ototoxicity Nephrotoxicity Neurotoxicity

How do Aminoglycosides cause neurotoxicity?

They Inhibit the presynaptic influx of Calcium

Causes of dysgusia Zn2+ deficiency Metronidazole Macrolides

Which drugs cause Nephrogenic DI Lithium

Damicocycline

Which part of the triple anti-biotic ointment is responsible for a rash? Neomycin

MOA of Vancomycin

Inhibits cell wall synthesis by inhibiting the Phospholipid carrier

Coverage for Vancomycin GM(+) + Staph Aureus Enterococcus

Staph epidermidis

Side Effects of Vancomycin

 Ototoxic

 Nephrotoxic

 Red man Syndrome

Why does Vancomycin cause Redman syndrome?

Infusion is too fast and causes histamine release

MOA of Metronidazole (Flagyl) Causes release of free radicals Coverage for Metronidazole All Anaerobes

Gardnerella Protozoa

Side effects of Metronidazole

 Dysgusia

 Disulfram Reaction

 G6PD

 Methemoglobinemia

 Hemolytic Anemia

Big mama drugs for anaerobes

 Metronidazole

 Clindamycin

 Cefoxatin

How do sulfa drugs work? They inhibit PABA

5 Sulfa drugs  Sulfamethoxazole  Sulfadiazine  Sulfapyrizone  Sulfaqsalazine  Sulfacetmide

(2) drug used with Sulfa drugs that block Dihydrofolate reductase? Trimethaprim

Pyrimethamine

Coverage of sulfadrugs Gm(+) + Staph aureus Simple Gm(-)

Treatment for PCP and UTI’s Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

Sulfa drugs used to treat burn patients Sulfadiazine (silvadine)

Sulfa drugs used to treat Toxoplasmosis Sulfadiazine/Pyrimethamine

Sulfa drug that comes in an eye drop Sulfacetamide

3 Sulfa drug used to treat ulcerative colitis

 Sulfapyrizone

 Sulfasalazine

 Silfacetamide MOA of Penecillins

Cell Wall inhibitors by inhibiting transpeptidation

Coverae for ALL Penecillins Gm(+) not Staph Aureus ALL Simple Anaerobes Side effects of Penecillins

 Anaphylaxis

 Drug rash

 Interstitial Nephritis

 Hemolytic Anemia

Differentiate between the 2 simple Penecillins

PEN V - PO PENG - IV

Two Extended spectrum Penecillins Amoxacillin

Ampicillin

What coverage do the extended spectrum PCN’s add?

Simple Gm(-) coverage

What is added to the simple PCN’s to cover Staph Aureus?

Amoxacillin/Clauvulinic Acid Ampicillin/Sulbactam

Extended spectrum Penecillins which causes Jarisch-Herxeheimer reaction? Ampicillin

What infections are the most common causes of Jarisch-Herxeheimer reaction?

 EBV

 CMV

 Syphilis

Drug of choice for UTI inpregnant women

Ampicillin/sulbactam MC used in pediactrics Amoxacillin (pink stuff)

5 Anti-Staph PCN’s (Beta Lactamase resistant)  Metahcillin  Nafcillin  Oxacillin  Cloxacillin  Dicloxacillin MCC of Interstitial Nephritis #1 Methacillin #2 Ampicillin 3 PO Anti-Staph PCN’s  Oxacillin  Cloxacillin  Dicloxacillin IV Anti-Staph PCN Nafcillin

Anti-Staph PCN with a high Sodium load Nafcillin 5 Anti-Pseudomonal PCN’s  Pipercillin  Ticarcillin  Azocillin  Mezocillin  Carbenicillin

Anti-Pseudomonal PCN with a high sodium load

(9)

What drug are added to the Anti-Pseudomonal PCN’s to cover staph Pipercillin/Tazobactam

Ticarcillin/Clauvulnic Acid MOA of Cefalosporins

Cell Wall inhibitors by inhibiting transpeptidation

Coverage of Cefalosporins Gm(+) + Staph Aureus Simple Gm(-)

1 st generation Cephalosporin that is

parenteral Cefazolin

1 st generation Cephalosporin that is the

#1 cause of Interstitial Nephritis Cephalotin

Name 5 1st generation Cephalospoirins

 Cefazolin

 Cefalotin

 Cefalexin

 Cefadoxil

 Cefadroxil

Name 5 2nd generation Cephalospoirins

 Cefaclor

 Cefotetan

 Cefomandol

 Cefuroxime

 Cefoxatin

Name 6 3rd generation Cephalospoirins

 Ceftriaxone  Cefixime  Cefotaxime  Ceftazidine  Cefperazome  Maxalactam

Most commonly used Cefalosporin in children

Cefaclor

Cefalosporin used to treat H. Influenza B Cefuroxime

Cefalosporin used to treat Anaerobes Cefoxatin

Cefalosporin with the best CNS penetration

Ceftriaxone

Hepatically excreted Cefalosporin Ceftriaxone

First line for Meningitis > 2 month old Ceftriaxone

First line for Meningitis < 2 month old Cefotaxime

First line for Pseudomonas Ceftazidine

Four Cefalosporins with MTT side chains

 Cefotetan

 Cefomandol

 Cefaperazone

 Moxalactam

What does the MTT chain do? Inhibits Vitamin K

Only oral 3 generation Cefalosporinrd

Cefixeme

Drugs that cause a disulfram reaction Cefotetan

Cefomandol Metronidazole

Cefalosporin with the highest allergic reaction in Pediatrics

Cefaclor

MOA Of Benzodiazapines Increase GABA channel Frequency Indication for Benzodiazepines Anxiety

Insomnia Seizure Muscle Cramps

What is the cause of death for Benzo’s and Barbituates?

Respiratory Failure

Which Anxiolytinc is used for people who cannot be sedated? Bupropion Name (10) Benzodiazepines Floureapam Zolpiden Oxazepam Triazelam Tomazepam Diazepam Lorazepam Clonezapam Chlordiazepoxide Midazelam

Shortest Acting Benzo Florezepam

Longest Acting Benzo Zolpidem

Medium duration Benzo Oxazepam

Triazelam

Benzo used for elderly who have trouble initiating sleep

Triazelam

Benzo used with 20 minutes antegrade amnesia

Triazelam

Benzo used for people who have difficulty maintaining sleep

Tomazepam

(4) Benzos MC used for Seizures

 Diazepam

 Lorazepam

 Clonazepam

 Chlordiazepoxide

(2) Benzos MC used for Status Epilepticus

 Diazepam

 Lorazepam

Benzo MC used for Absance Seizures in children

Clonazepam

Benzo MC used for restless leg syndrome Clonazepam

Benzo that comes in sopository Diazepam

Benzo that is best for anxiety in middle aged females

Lorazepam

Benzo MC used for Alcoholic withdrawal Chlordiazepoxide

Benzo used for short procedures Midazelam

Benzo with 45min antegrade amnesia Midazelam

Antedote for Benzo Overdose Flumazenil

MOA of Barbituates

Increase GABA channel Duration Indication for Barbituates Insomnia

(10)

Seizure Muscle Cramps

Why are Barbituates not indicated for Anxiety

Because they are too sedating Longest acting barbituate Phenobarbital

Shortest acting Barbituate Thiopental

Barbituate most commonly abused on the street

Secobarbital

Treatment for Barbituate Overdose HCO3- + Doxapram

Barbituate most commonly used for generalized seizures on children Phenobarbital

3 drugs used to treat Bipolar #1 Lithium

#2 Valproic Acid #3 Carbamazapine MOA of lithium

Looks like Sodium and stabilizes cell membranes

Side effects of Lithium

 Hyponatremia  Hypothyroidism  Hyperthyroidism  Hypercalcemia  Hypophosphatemia  Nephrogenic DI  Epsteins Anomoly

How does Lithium cause Nephrogenic DI?

It inhibits ADH receptors are the kidney How does Lithium cause Hyponatremia? Because it looks like Sodium, the kidney hold onto it instead of Sodium

How does Lithium cause hypothyroidism?

How does Lithium cause

How does Lithium cause hypercalcemia? It binds to PTH receptors

MOA of Carbamazapine Sodium Channel Blocker Side effects of Carbamazepine Agranulocytosis

SIADH

Indication for Carbamazepine

 Temporal Lobe Seizures

 3rd Line for Bipolar Disorber

 Shooting Neuropthy

How does Carbamazapine cause SIADH It stimulates the ADH receptors in kidney MOA of Valproic Acid

Indication for Valproic Acid

 2nd Line for Bipolar

 1st Line for Myotonic Seizures

 1st Line for Mixed Seizures

Side Effects of Valproic Acid BM Suppression

What is the main cause of depression

 Serotonin

 Norepinepherine

MOA of Tri-Cyclic Anti-depressants Blocks reuptake of ALL Catecholamines Strong Anti-Cholinergic affects

Block 1 receptors by accident Block A-V conduction in heart Clue for Anti-Cholinergic effects Sympathetic with Hot Dry Skin Name (5) TCA’s C - Clomipramine A - Amitryptaline N - Nortryptaline D - Desipramine I - Imipramine

TCA used for bedwetting in children Imipramine

TCA used for Chronic Pain or neuropathy

Amitryptaline TCA used for OCD Clomipramine

Shortest acting TAC’s Nortryptaline

Desipramine MOA of SSRI’s

Inhibit the reuptake of Serotonin Name (4) SSRI’s F - Fluoxetine L – Luvoxatine i P - Paroxatine S – Sertraline

Side effects of SSRI’s Anorgasmia Name (4) MAOI’s P - Phenylzine I - Isocarboxazid T - Tranylcypramine S - Selegeline

Foods avoided when on MAOI’s Wine and Cheese

Wine & cheese contraindicated with MAOI’s because

The interaction can cause Seratonin Syndrome

When switching from SSRI to MAOI, how long is the washout period? One Month

Name the MAOBI Selegeline

MOA of Bupropion Blocks reuptake of Seratonin Indication for Bupropion

 Used if sexual dysfunction occurs with other antidepressants

 Help stop smoking Side effects of Bupropion Decreased Seizure threshold Indications for Electroconvulsive Therapy

Person who is actively suicidal or with intractable depression

#1 Side effect of ECT Amnesia

Treatment for Methemoglobinemia Methyline Blue

Rx for Acute intermittent Porphorya

 Sugar

 Fluids

 Hematin

How does Hematin Work? It inhibits D-ALA Synthase Treatment for Cyanide Poisoning

 Amylnitrate

 Sodium Thiosulphate

 Methyline Blue

(11)

Rx for Carbon Monoxide Poisoning Hyperbaric Oxygen

Rx used for the Used for the Cystic Fibrosis sweat test & to Treat glaucoma Pilocarpine

For what was Methacholine Previously used?

To diagnose Asthma because is Causes Broncho spasm

How do Amphetamines work? They cause the release of preformed catecholamines.

References

Related documents

Purpose: The aim of this study is to explore non-steroid anti-inflammation drugs (NSAIDs) potency for pelvic floor muscle pain by measuring local concentration in a rat

For the purpose of this study, drugs for rare diseases (DRDs) were defined in line with the commonly used definition of DRDs, or ‘ orphan drugs ’ , that treat diseases affecting ≤

Two classes of drugs are commonly used to treat prostate enlargement: alpha-blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors.. Alpha-block- ers are generally used first because they act

Extracts/Drugs Act as Hypoglycemic, Antihyperglycemic or Antidiabetic Effect These classes of herbal drugs reduce the blood glucose level directly, this may be also used to

Diabetes Prescribing Strategy 2014 to 2016 Version 2.1 FINAL Figure 2 shows the change in cost for the different categories of drugs used to treat type 2.. diabetes over the

It is an anti microtubule drug used to treat certain kinds of cancer, including Hodgkin’s lymphoma, non-small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, Head and Neck

Medicines that may interact with Dilute Adrenaline/Epinephrine Injection 1:10,000 include: - antihistamines (drugs used to treat allergic reactions or allergies).. - drugs to

To understand the pharmacologic drugs’ efficacy in CC therapy, we investigated the ability of some widely used or potential anti-cancer drugs (alpha-naphthoflavone