1 The third phase of an architect's regular services.
2 Project financing falls under what kind of service of the architect. 3 Comprehensive planning falls under what service of the architect.
4 The fee of the architect for design-build services on a guaranteed maximum cost aside from his fee for regular design services.
5 What percentage of an architect's work is liability under the civil code.
6 For interior design services, the architect shall be paid what percentage of the fee upon submission of the final design.
7 When the owner fails to implement the plans and documents for construction as prepared by the architect, the architect is entitled to receive what percentage of his fee. 8 The minimum fee per appearance of an architect when rendering service as an expert
witness shall be.
9 The minimum basic fee for specialized decorative building.
10 The minimum basic fee for industrial buildings with a project cost below 50 million pesos. 11 The minimum basic fee for hospitals with a project cost below 50 million pesos. 12 In design-build services, the single-point-responsibility of project delivery puts the legal
liability for both the design and construction on the.
13 The release of 10% retention by the owner shall be done after how many months from the date of final payment.
14 Printed documents stipulating the procedural and administrative aspect of the contract. 15 An outline specification enumerating the type and trade names of materials to be used. 16 A price given by a contractor, sub-contractor, material supplier or vendor to furnish
materials, labor or both.
17 A statement from the architect confirming the amount of money due the contractor for work accomplished.
18 A bond furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guarantee to execute the work in accordance with the terms of the contract.
19 An offer to perform the work prescribed in a contract at a specified cost. 20 The fee of the architect for design-build services by administration.
21 A stipulation of the use of specific products or processes without provision for substitution. 22 A list of instructions stipulating the manner on which bids are to be prepared.
23 The performance and Payment Bonds shall be released by the owner after the expiration of how many months from the final acceptance of the work.
24 The Guarantee Bond is released how many months after the date of final payment. 25 How many days shall the Building Official issue a certificate of occupancy after final
inspection of the project.
26 A statute specifying the period of time within which legal action must be brought for alleged damage or injury.
27 A bond, the form or content of which is prescribed by statute.
28 A rule that certain kinds of contracts are enforceable unless signed and in writing or unless there is a written memorandum of their terms signed by the party to be charged. 29 A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed
period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'. 30 A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease.
31 The person receiving a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., by lease. 32 The person granting a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., by lease. 33 Range of the multiplier for Multiple of Direct Personnel Expense.
34
35 Supervision Work is a non-creative work, true or false.
36 A world-wide used method of compensation for architectural services.
37 This method of compensation is applied only to pre-design services, supervision work, and other works which the Architect may perform other than the regular and specialized allied services.
38 This type of compensation is similar to the concept being charged by realtors, developers, and lawyers.
39 For reimbursable expenses, how many kilometers from the Architect's office shall a work be located to allow reimbursable expenses.
40 This method of compensation is frequently used where there is continuing relationship on a series of projects.
41 The full-time construction inspector shall be under the technical control and supervision of the ___.
42 Submission of shop drawings shall be accompanied by a ___ in duplicate.
43 How many sets of shop drawings for approval shall the contractor submit to the Architect? 44 Who shall have the responsibility of securing, but not liable for non-issuance, of the final
occupancy permit.
45 True or false, can the owner relegate to the contractor the responsibility of establishing the lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks provided that the owner pays the contractor for such works?
46 Who shall have the responsibility for establishing lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks?
47 Who shall pay for the services of a licensed surveyor for confirmation and certification of the location of column centers, piers, walls, pits, trenches, pipe work, culvert work, utility lines, and other similar works required by the contract.
48 Professional Fee for the Architect as a full-time supervisor. 49 Professional fee for the Construction Manager.
50
51 Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of sidewalk width to that of the road right-
Performance bond Schedule of material and finishes
Quotation Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses Certificate of payment Closed specification Instruction to bidders 30 days Contractor (1/6) Leasehold Lessee Bid 7% 12 months / 1 yr 2 months Statute of Frauds 6% 8% Architect General conditions 3 months 2-2.5 Statute of Limitation Statutory Bond Lessor Lease Architect 12%
Contract documents phase Pre-design services Specialized allied services
10% 10%
50% 85% PHP 500.00
This type of compensation is only applied to non-creative work.
Personnel Expenses
Percentage of Construction Cost 50 kms.
Professional Fee Plus Expenses Multiple of Direct
TRUE
Percentage of Construction Cost
1-1.5% 1.5-3%
CPIF / CPAF Cost Plus Fixed Fee Letter of transmittal
3 Contractor
TRUE Owner
Four types of Contracts for construction management
Firm Fixed Price Fixed Price Incentive
of-way?
52 At what interest rate per month should a client pay the architect should the former fail to pay the latter beyond 30 days from receipt of billing?
53 What code holds the architect responsible for the building/structure he designed for a certain period of time.
54 What type of compensation is applied to cases where the architect's personal time is required, such as conferences, joint venture activities, etc.?
55 What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from the contract? 56 What type of compensation is applied to most of Gov't projects and entails more paper
works and is advantageous to both client and architect. 57 Professional Fee for the Project Manager.
58 If the Project Manager is hired by the owner, who shall have the responsibility of hiring the Construction Manager?
59 True or false, based on the Civil Code, the Project Manager has no legal responsibility insofar as design and construction is concerned.
60 His primary responsibility is the exercise of overall cost control which relieves the owner of many of the anxieties that usually beset , particularly those concerned with forecasting cost and completion dates.
61 In the architect's code of ethics, to whom does the architect has responsibility to seek opportunities for constructive service in civic and urban affairs?
62 What PD created the PRC which regulates the practice of various professionals. 63 Architect XYZ uses paid advertisements without sanction by professional consensus and
years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to whom? 64 Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before date of bidding. 65 The offer of a bidder to perform the work described by the contract documents when made
out and submitted on the prescribed proposal form, properly signed and sealed. 66 The cashier's check or surety bond accompanying the proposal submitted by the bidder,
as a guarantee that the bidder will enter into a contract with the owner for the construction of the work, if the contract is awarded to him.
67 Instructions which may be issued prior to the bidding to supplement and/or modify drawings, specifications, and/or general conditions of the contract.
68 Written or printed description of work to be done describing qualities of material and mode of construction.
69 Means information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person or sent by registered mail to the individual, firm or corporation at the last known business address of such individual, firm or corporation.
70 Includes labor or materials or both as equipment, transportation, or other facilities necessary to commence and complete the construction called for in the contract. 71 Means to build-in, mount in position, connect or apply any object specified ready for the
intended use.
72 Means to purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to jobsite. 73 Means to furnish and install.
74 No further retention shall be made on the balance of the contract when how many percent of the contract has been completed?
75 No payment shall be made on contracts in excess of how many percent of the contract price.
76 The guarantee bond is equal to how many percent of the contract price?
77 How many percent of the architect's fee is payable to the architect upon completion of the preparation of the schematic design phase and up to final design development phase? 78 Standard factor computed for changes and/or revisions made on completed contracts. 79 Approximately, how many square meters of office space for the architect is built by the
contractor as temporary facilities for the project.
80 All trees and other plants that need to be transplanted elsewhere within ___ meters shall be done by the ___ at his own expense.
81 If there is a variance/discrepancy between the drawings and specifications, what shall be followed?
82 How many days prior to bidding shall the contractor seek the architect's
clarification as to the particular areas of work which requires evaluation of the architect? 83 How many days upon written notice can a contractor terminate a contract with a valid
reason?
84 Suspension of work for ___ days by order of any court or other public authority through no act or fault of the contractor gives the him the right to terminate contract.
85 True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to pay the contractor any sum within 15 days after its award by arbitration
86 True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to act upon any request for payment within 30 days after its certification by the architect. 87 Who declares bankruptcy as a valid reason for the termination of a contract? 88 True or false, upon termination of contract and upon the decision of the architect that
materials and equipment left by the contractor which do not belong to him can be used and rent of such shall be borne by the failing contractor.
89 True or false, in case of suspension of work, all unpaid work executed including expenses incurred during suspension shall be evaluated by the architect and charged to the owner. 90 True or false, the owner has no right to claim liquidated damages if he takes over the
work from the contractor for failure to complete the project.
91 How many days prior to canceling an insurance be given to the owner stipulating the intention to cancel?
92 How many percent of the contract amount is the Performance Bond? 93 How many percent of the contract amount is the Payment Bond?
94 A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the event of his breach. 95 Basic Fee for Physical Planning Type 1 or site such as industrial estates, commercial
15% 10 days Contractor 90 Days False (30 days) False (15 days) TRUE
5,000 for First 50 Hectares Penalty Clause 15% TRUE FALSE 2.5 Specifications 15 Days 15 Days 12 sqm. 50 / Contractor Install 50% Provide 30% 30% 65% Furnish Proposal Civil Code (1/6) 2% 2-5% Payment Bond Per Diem+Reimb. Expenses
Project Manager People / Public TRUE Project Manager PD 223 Public / People Lump Sum / Fixed Fee
Bid Bulletin Specifications Special Provisions Work Written Notice Proposal Bond
centers, sports complex, resorts, etc. 96 Predecessor of PD 1096
97 What presidential decree institutionalized the profession of environmental planning? 98 It is a right enforceable against specific property to secure payment of an obligation. 99 Minimum basic fee for simple projects.
100 Minimum basic fee for alterations/renovations.
101 When the architect is engaged to render opinion or advise, clarification or explanation on technical matters pertaining to his profession, the minimum basic fee shall be ___. 102 When rendering service as an expert witness, the architect is compensated ___/ hr. 103 Minimum basic fee for Group 5 Projects (monumental).
104 What is Group 6 Project classification? 105
106 Under what classification of Project does Hospitals and Medical Buildings fall? 107 Under what classification of Project does Stadium fall?
108 Minimum Per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms. From office. 109 On the remaining 15% work fee of the architect, where does the 5% go.
110 Repairs and corrective works at the expense of the contractor should be done within how many days after written notice by owner?
111 Failure on the part of the contractor to remove condemned work shall give the owner right to remove said work at contractor's exepense and contractor shall pay the owner the expenses incurred within how many days from removal by the owner of said work? 112 Contract time reckoning shall commence on the ___ from receipt of ___. 113 An area of a city where municipal buildings are grouped.
114 Any article of property not consisting of or affixed to land plus any interest in land that is less than a freehold.
115 No person who is not a citizen of the Philippines may take the board exams or practice the profession unless the country of his relation allows the same ___.
5,000 for First 50 Hectares
Liens 6% R.A. 6451
PD 1308
Group 3 (Exceptional Character) Group 3 (Exceptional Character)
50% 30% 11th and above 500 200 / hr 12% Repetitive Construction 10% of 1st unit 60% 2nd-10th Unit Minimum Basic fee for housing projects.
PHP 750.00 Construction Phase Service
5 days
7th day / Notice to Proceed Civic Center
10 days
Chattel Reciprocity
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 40 41 42 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53
Maximum stair rise height for a class A stair. 0.19 mtr. Maximum height between landings for class A stair. 2.75 mts.
Minimum exit door width. 0.71 mtr.
Minimum floor to ceiling height. 2.30 mts.
Number of exits for place of assembly for 1000 occupants 4 Travel distance to an exit without fire sprinkler system. 46.00 mts.
Minimum headroom for class A & B stairs. 2.00 mts.
Unit area per person for waiting areas or standing rooms. 0.28 sqm.
Maximum number of seats in a row in between aisles. 14 Maximum number of seats in a row opening on to an aisle at one side. 7 Travel distance to an exit with fire sprinkler system. 61.00 mts. Minimum spacing of rows of seats from back to back for a public assembly building. 0.83 mtr.
Minimum headroom created by any projection from the ceiling. 2.00 mts.
Minimum clear width of turnstiles. 56 cms.
Standard width of a seat without dividing arms for places of assembly. 60 cms. Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60. 91 cms.
Minimum height of a handrail above the upper surface of the tread. 76 cms.
Minimum clearance of a handrail from any wall. 38 mm.
Minimum dimension of landings in direction of travel for class A & B stairs. 112 cms. Minimum number of risers in any one (1) flight of stairs. 3
Minimum inner radius of a monumental stair. 7.50 mts.
Minimum width of any balcony or bridge. 112 cms.
Minimum height of a guard rail. 91 cms.
Maximum height of a guard rail. 106 cms.
Maximum vertical height in floors for an escalator. 1floor Minimum width of a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
Minimum width of a class A ramp. 112 cms.
Maximum rise of any floor from the balcony floor to which an access door leads. 20.3 cms
Maximum rise of fire escape stair for a small building. 30.5 cms. Maximum rise of fire escape stair for existing stairs. 22.9 cms. Minimum width of landing for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 55.9 cms. Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for small buildings. 15.25 cms.
Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for small buildings. 1.98 mts. Number of exits for place of assembly for 600-1000 occupants. 3 Maximum height between landings for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 3.66 mts. Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 2.13 mts.
30 mts.
Maximum travel distance from the door of any room to exit for hotels with sprinkler. 30 mts.
44
Maximum occupant load for a class C public assembly. 50-300 Minimum number of exit for an Institutional type of structure. 2
91 cms.
1.00 mtr. Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving two sides for a public
assembly building.
Maximum travel distance from the main entrance door to exit for apartments with sprinkler. 31 mts. Minimum increase in width for an aisle per linear meter. 2.5 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle for hospitals or nursing homes. 2.44 mts. Minimum width of an aisle for custodial care institutions. 1.83 mts. Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of below 60 for a public assembly building. 76 cms. Minimum width of an aisle for an educational use building. 1.80 mts.
Occupant load per person for laboratories. 4.60 sqm.
Jails are classified under what classification of occupancy. Institutional Minimum width of an aisle for business use structure. 112 cms. Minimum width of an aisle for an industrial building. 112 cms.
Courtrooms with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what
Assembly
FIRE CODE OF THE PHIL.
39 Maximum travel distance between room door intended as exit access and exit with sprinkler system for institutional use.
43 Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving one side for a public assembly building.
55 56 57 58 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 Business
Rooms where baled, bundled or piled materials segregated into desired sizes or groups. Picking rooms. Assembly classification of occupancy.
Assembly
Plenum
A kind of stable explosive compound which explodes by percussion. Fulminate Buildings or structures 15 meters or more in height. High rise building Buildings or structures used for the storage of explosives, shells, projectile, etc. Explosive magazine
purified substance.
Descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air. Phyrophoric A material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support
Oxidizing material combustion.
A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the proper proportion and
Dust ignited will cause an explosion.
Temperature rating at flash point. 37.8 oC (100 oF)
A process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its shape and dimension. Forging The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more volatile from the less
Distillation volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the result vapor so as to produce a nearly
Minimum fire resistance rating for a firewall. 4 hrs.
A continuous passageway for the transmission of air. Duct System A class of fire with flammable liquid and gasses. Class B The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted into vapor. Boiling Point
The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient
Flash Point concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air.
A gas, fume or vapor used for the destruction or control of insects, fungi, vermin, germs,
Fumigant rodents or other pests.
Maximum width of sumps for the retention of oil and petroleum products. 3.70 mts. For Refineries, distilleries, and chemical plants, the minimum height for a fence. 1.50 mts. Minimum width of any driveway in and around a lumber yard / piles. 4.50 mts. Minimum height of fence for a lumber yard for exterior storage of lumbers. 1.80 mts.
Minimum distance of an incinerator from any structure used other than a single family
3.00 mts. dwelling.
Maximum reduction in width of a stair by a handrail. 9 cms. Minimum travel distance from any individual room subject to occupancy by not more
15.00 mts. 6 persons.
Maximum distance of travel from the high hazard area to an exit. 23.00 mts.
Maximum force in kilograms required for a panic hardware. 7 kgs. Maximum height required for a panic hardware installation. 112 cms. Minimum door width of a single door in a door way. 71 cms. Maximum change in elevation between the interior of a door to the outside of it other than
20.5 cms. a balcony.
Minimum width of a door for family day care homes. 61 cms. Minimum stair width for a class B stair serving an occupant load of less than 50. 91 cms. Minimum height required for a panic hardware installation. 76 cms. Maximum number of occupant for a subdivided room or space by a folding partition. 20
A combustible liquid is any liquid having a flash point at or above. 37.8 oC (100 oF) The time duration that a material or construction can withstand the effect of standard
Fire resistance rating fire test is known as.
Length of a nosing or effective projection over the level immediately below it for tread
25 mm below 25 cms in dimension.
Maximum height of a handrail. 86.5 cms.
Under what classification of occupancy does pool rooms fall. Assembly Under what classification of occupancy does home for the aged fall. Institutional Any material which by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements
Cryogenic produces a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surrounding.
Classified as mercantile occupancies, the travel distance from exits shall be. 30.50 mts.
Under what classification of occupancy does drugstores fall. Mercantile Minimum width of an aisle in a store for mercantile occupancies. 71 cms. Under what classification of occupancy does court houses fall. Business Under what classification of occupancy does refineries fall. Industrial 54 Armories with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what classification of
occupancy
An air compartment or chamber to which 1 or more ducts are connected and which form part of an air distribution system.
59
100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151
Minimum clear width of an exit access through a covered mall. 3.66 mts. Minimum height of buildings requiring automatic sprinkler protection. 15 mts.
Minimum number of aisles for Class 'A' stores. 1
Minimum clear width of aisles for a Class 'A' store. 1.50 mts.
Maximum height of riser for Class 'B' Stairs. 20 cms.
Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving more than 50 persons. 112 cms. Standard inner radius of a curved stair in business occupancies. 763 cms.
Maximum height of riser for Class 'A' stairs. 19 cms.
Minimum width of a stair width for Class 'A' stairs. 25 mm. Maximum height between landings for a Class 'B' stairs. 3.70 mts. Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving 50 persons and below. 91 cms. Maximum horizontal projection of a handrail over a stair. 38 mm.
Minimum width of Class 'B' ramp. 76 cms.
Standard slope of Class 'B' ramp in percentage. 10-17%
Minimum width of landings in direction of travel for Class 'A / B' stairs. 112 cms.
Minimum width of Class 'A' ramp. 112 cms.
Minimum width of ramps of 3 stories or more in height. 1.20 mts. Minimum width for fire escape for existing stairs. 55.9 cms. Maximum height between landings for Class 'A' ramp. No limit Maximum height between landings for Class 'B' ramp. 3.66 mts.
Maximum height between landings for fire escape for existing stairs. 3.66 mts. Minimum distance travel to an exit for storage occupancies of high hazard commodities. 23 mts. Minimum horizontal dimension of any landing of platform for existing stairs for fire escape. 55.9 cms. Maximum rise for a fire escape for very small buildings. 30.5 cms.
Class of fire involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, and
Class D other similar materials.
Class of fire involving ordinary combustible materials, such as wood, papers, cloth,
Class A rubber, and plastics.
of extinguishing agents or medium and designed in accordance with fire protection Fire engineering standards which when actuated by its automatic detecting device, Suppression A tank, vat or container of flammable or combustible liquid in which articles or materials
Dip Tank are immersed for the purpose of coating, finishing, treating or similar processes.
An integrated system of under ground or overhead piping or both connected to a source Automatic
Minimum distance of an incinerator containing kindled fire or rubbish fire or bonfires. 5.00 mts. Under what classification of occupancy does museums fall? Assembly
suppresses fire within the area protected. System
A continuous and unobstructed route of exit from any point in a building to a public way. Means of Egress
Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 22.9 cms. Maximum spacing of rungs for a fire escape ladder. 30.5 cms. Under what classification of occupancy does town halls fall? Business
Maximum width of a single door in a doorway. 1.22 mts.
In standard seating, the minimum spacing from back to back. 0.83 mtr. Minimum space from the back of chair to the front of the chair behind. 30 cms. Minimum spacing of rungs for a fire escape ladder. 25 cms. Class III combustible liquids shall mean any liquid having a flash point at how many
60 oC degrees Celsius?
Occupant load per person for classrooms. 1.8 sqm.
Where exterior corridors or balconies are provided as means of exit, they shall open to the
76.25 mts. outside and shall be spaced ___ meters apart. (Educational)
Maximum slope for aisles for public assembly structures. (1:8) 12.5% Size of standpipe provided for each stage for public assembly building. 63.5 mm.
Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in hospitals and nursing homes. 2.44 mts. Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in residential-custodial care. 1.83 mts. Minimum dimension of a rescue window for educational occupancies. 55 cms. Maximum height from the floor for a rescue window for educational occupancies. 82 cms.
Includes buildings containing three or more living units independent cooking and bathroom
Apartment Buildings facilities, whether designed as rowhouse, apartment house, tenement, garden apartment,
or by any other name.
Any room for sleeping in institutional occupancies if subdivided shall have a maximum
465 sqm. area of how many square meters?
Includes buildings or groups of building under the same management in which there are
Hotel more than 15 sleeping accommodations for hire.
Minimum number of stories of apartment buildings requiring fire alarm system. 3 Minimum number of apartment units requiring fire alarm system. 12
A wide area of parks of undeveloped land surrounding a community. Greenbelt The process in which a piece of land, referred to as the parent tract, is subdivided into
Platting two or more parcels.
Angles measured clockwise from any meridian, usually north; however, the National
Azimuths Geodetic Survey uses south.
Usually the last stage of the final site development process prior to issuance of building
Final Plat permit.
A 20th century problem emanating from rapid urbanization of areas surrounding a city
Urban Sprawl which eats up the remaining adjacent rural open spaces.
A type of planning which emphasizes that the proper role of the planner is not to serve
Advocacy Planning the general public interest but rather to serve the interests of the least fortunate or least
well represented groups in society.
This code mandates that all Local Government Units shall prepare their comprehensive Local Government Code, 1991 land use plans and enact them through zoning ordinances. R.A. 7160
In the Philippines, this type of land use planning emphasizes the proper management of
Sustainable Land Use Planning land resources to ensure that the present generation can benefit from its continued use
without compromising future generations.
First Planner and developed the Gridiron. Hippodamus of miletus
A locale with a sizeable agglomeration of people having characteristics of an urban being. City
Reason for planning. Promote Human Growth
Phrase used to characterize development that meets the needs of the present
Sustainable Development generation without compromising the needs of the future generations.
In urban geography, a concept where urban settlement is confined to the area within the
Truebounded City legal limits of the city and the congestion and virtually all of this area is occupied by
urban residents.
The main reason why the nomadic existence of early man metamorphosed to village
Agricultural Surplus settlement and later to the birth of cities.
The rough equivalent of the present tenement cities that existed in ancient Rome, which
Insula resulted from the population growth of the city and the congestion that existed in streets.
He conceptualized the 'City Beautiful Movement'. Daniel Burnham
A tool used to control the manner in which raw kind is subdivided and placed on the
Subdivision Regulations marker for residential development.
A Land Development Decision is also what kind of decision. Traffic. The orderly arrangement of urban streets and public spaces. City Planning
The science of human settlement. Ekistics
By definition, settlement inhabited by man. Human Settlement
A profession which falls between planning and architecture. It deals with the large-scale
Urban Design organization and design of the city, with the massing and organization and the space
between them, but not with the design of the individual buildings.
Planning for roads, bridges, schools, parking structures, pubic buildings, water supply,
Capital Facilities Planning and waste disposal facilities.
The container of man, which consists of both the natural and man-made or artificial
Physical Settlement element.
The remaining space in a lot after deducting the required minimum open spaces. Buildable Area A habitable room for 1 family only with facilities for living, sleeping, cooking, and eating. Dwelling Unit A spatial organization concept a general view of the pattern of land use in a city
Concentric Zone Concept developed by Ernest W. Burgess. The city is conceived as a series of five concentric
zones with the cores as the central business district and fanning out from which are the residential and commuter zones.
A piece of grassy land, especially one used for growing hay or as pasture for grazing
Meadow animals; low grassy land near a river or stream.
A long, narrow chain of hills or mountains. Ridge
This is a type of a retaining wall made of rectangular baskets made of galvanized steel
Gabion Wall wire or pvc coated wire hexagonal mesh which are filled with stones to form a wall.
A very steep slope of rock or clay. Cliff
A long, deep, narrow valley eroded by running water. Ravine
Of land, a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, which is subject to a
Parcel single ownership, and which is legally recorded as a single piece.
A wall that serves 2 dwelling units, known also as party wall. Common Wall On land, an encumbrance limiting its use, usually imposed for community or mutual
Restriction protection.
Niemeyer believed that relating large areas to each other is freedom as in the planned
Brasilia city of___.
In architectural terms, it is the relationship of the number of residential structures and
Density people to a given amount of space.
The government arm responsible for the development and implementation of low cost
National Shelter Program housing in the Philippines.
Housing provided for low-income groups generally through government intervention and
Social Housing characterized by substantial subsidies and direct assistance.
A written agreement between parties, but it allows a specific period during which the
"Option to Buy" buyer can investigate the property and make a decision.
Sometimes called "subscription money", this is a deposit given to the seller to show that
Earnest Money the potential buyer has serious intentions.
They develop or improve the land as well as construct houses. Developers Determines the value of the house and also is familiar with trends in the local market and
Appraiser in the industry.
A provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic
Amortization charges against the capital account.
Written document to transfer the property to one person to another. Deed
Helps people find a place to live, specializing and matching wants of buyers with the
Real Estate Broker local supply.
Are usually large concrete slabs or otherwise panelized units fabricated in a shop and
Total System assembled at the site.
Construct three-dimensional volumetric units in a plant on a production line then hauled
Prefabrication Manufacturer to the site.
System building is the complete integration of all ___. Subsystems Codes that deal with the use, occupancy, and maintenance of existing buildings. Housing Codes Designed to regulate land use, to ban industry and commerce from residential areas and
Zoning to separate different types of living units.
Grand The improvement of slum, deteriorated, and underutilized areas of a city. Urban Renewal An area which is within the city limits, or closely linked to it by common use of public
Urban Area utilities and services.
A piece of land with an economic use for farming. Productive Use
Lands for well-being like parks, plazas, and of similar nature. Health and General Use Two major hindrances to the prefabrication industry. Code of Multiplicities and
Tradition
Three general types of structures.
Primitive Vernacular
Which building component receives priority over the location to have the morning sun. Bedrooms Urban Planning is defined briefly as the guidance of ___. Growth and Change Similarly as the cost of the land, neighborhood character have this effect. Social Implications Minimum road width in a neighborhood development to ease traffic flow. 6.00 mts.
The art of arranging buildings and other structures in harmony with the landscape. Site Planning The study of the dynamic relationship between a community of organisms and its habitat. Ecology
A lattice structure that serves as a summer house. Gazebo
In landscaping, ground cover is represented by ___. Grass and Plants
Also called the blood-stream of a city. Transportation System
A form of absence of all the principles and organized development of a community. Urban Blight Preparations of an accurate base map for urban planning starts with ___. Accurate Aerial Mosaic Appraisal of adequacy of a city's water and sewer systems needs of future land uses are
Comprehensive Plan embodied in the ___.
A monument, fixed object, or marker used to designate the location of a land boundary on
Landmark the ground.
A narrow passageway bordered by trees, fences, or other lateral barrier Lane
The city of Washington conforms to the plan type of ___. Star
An efficient and rapid transport system for automobiles to circulate across urban to urban
Freeways areas.
A line of demarcation between adjoining parcels of land. Land Boundary A survey of landed property establishing or reestablishing lengths and directions of
Land Survey boundary line.
The projection of a future pattern of use within an area, as determined by development
Land-use Plan goals.
The part of the surface of the earth not permanently covered by water. Land
A study and recording of the way in which land is being used in an area. Land-use Survey In surveying, the North-South component of a traverse course. Latitude The study of an existing pattern of use, within an area, to determine the nature and
Land-use Analysis magnitude of deficiencies which might exist and to assess the potential of the pattern
relative to development goals.
A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease. Leasehold
An open space of ground of some size, covered with grass and kept smoothly mown. Lawn A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed
Lease period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'.