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A. a train whistle has a lower frequency as the train approaches you. C. wavelengths of light from galaxies moving away from the Earth shift to red.

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e Clicker Questions

Chapter 1: Cosmology and the Birth of Earth

1. A light year represents:

A. a year that has fewer days than a normal year. B. the time it takes light to orbit the Sun once.

C. the time it takes for light to travel from the Sun to the Earth. D. the distance that light travels in one year.

2. According to the geocentric model: A. the Earth lies at the center of the Universe. B. the Earth orbits the center of the Universe.

C. the Earth and all planets in our solar system orbit the Sun. D. all objects in the Universe are fixed in position.

3. Because of the Doppler effect:

A. a train whistle has a lower frequency as the train approaches you. B. a train whistle has a higher frequency as the train moves away.

C. wavelengths of light from galaxies moving away from the Earth shift to red. D. wavelengths of light from galaxies moving away from the Earth shift to blue.

4. The key evidence that the Universe is expanding is:

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A. the blue shift of light from nearby stars. B. the red shift of light from nearby stars. C. the blue shift of light from distant galaxies. D. the red shift of light from distant galaxies.

5. According to the big bang theory:

A. everything that now comprises the Universe started at a single point about 13.7 billion years ago.

B. our Sun is what remains after the explosion of a much bigger star. C. the Universe will end in a huge explosion 5 billion years from now. D. the Universe is rapidly shrinking, and will ultimately collapse to become a single explosive point.

6. Physicists have concluded which of the following concerning element formation?

A. All elements now in existence formed during the big bang.

B. Hydrogen and helium formed during the big bang, but heavier elements formed later, through fusion reactions in stars and the explosions of supernovae. C. Fission reactions in stars split larger atoms to form smaller ones.

D. Supernova explosions produced most of the new hydrogen that formed long after the big bang.

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A. formed by chemical reactions on Earth. B. formed by big bang nucleosynthesis. C. formed by stellar nucleosynthesis.

D. formed by fusion reactions that occur during volcanic eruptions.

8. Which statement represents the favored geological theory describing the formation of the Earth?

A. The Earth condensed like a giant ice crystal directly from gases formed during the big bang, and then it was captured by the gravitational pull of the Sun. B. The Earth was a moon of Jupiter, knocked into its present orbit by a collision early in the history of the Solar System.

C. The Earth formed by the coalescence of planetesimals that occurred in a ring orbiting the Sun.

9. According to the ____________, the Earth consists of __________________.

A. heliocentric model / gas from the big bang

B. nebula theory / big bang gas and gas from stars that have died C. Doppler theory / the remains of a supernova

10. Accumulations of dust and ice into masses that are basketball sized to a few kilometers across are:

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B. asteroids. C. protoplanets. D. solar wind.

11. Using radiometric dating of _________, geologists conclude that the Earth is about _________ years old.

A. rocks in central Canada / 3.2 billion B. rocks from Australia / 542 million C. fragments of meteorites / 4.57 billion D. the Moon’s surface / 4.57 million

12. Analysis of rocks on the Earth and on the Moon suggest that: A. the Moon formed early in the history of the solar system as a result of a collision between a protoplanet and the Earth.

B. the Moon was a large comet captured by Earth’s gravity.

C. the Moon was pulled out of the Earth, when the Earth was still soft, by gravitational attraction of a passing large object.

Chapter 1: Answer Key 1. D

2. A 3. C 4. D 5. A

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6. B 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 2: Journey to the Center of the Earth

1. The Earth produces a ___________ that shields the planet from _____________ .

A. radiation sphere / comets B. magnetic field / solar wind C. heat plume / asteroids

2. The dominant gas in the atmosphere is ______. The density of the atmosphere _________ with increasing elevation.

A. oxygen / decreases B. carbon dioxide / increases C. nitrogen / decreases D. oxygen / increases

3. Approximately how much of the Earth’s surface is covered by ocean? What is the average depth of the ocean?

A. 70% / 4.5 - 5.0 km B. 30% /30 - 45 km C. 50% / 12 - 15 km

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D. 90% / 100 - 150 km

4. Which of the following statements about the Earth’s density is correct? A. The density of the Earth is constant throughout.

B. The density decreases with increasing depth. C. The density increases gradually with depth.

D. Density increases with depth, but the rate of increase is not constant: the central region is much denser.

5. Do seismic waves travel at the same velocity throughout the Earth? Why?

A. No. The velocity changes with depth at a constant rate. B. Yes. The velocity is the same at all depths.

C. No. The velocity changes with depth, and at certain depths the change is abrupt.

D. Trick question: Geologists have no way of estimating how fast seismic waves travel inside the Earth.

6. Is the temperature the same everywhere inside the Earth? A. Yes. The temperature of the Earth is constant throughout. B. No. The temperature increases with increasing depth. C. No. The temperature decreases with increasing depth.

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D. No. The temperature increases, then decreases, then increases, then decreases, etc, in a periodic way with increasing depth.

7. Which of the following statements is false? A. The mantle is composed almost entirely of solid rock. B. The crust floats on a subterranean “sea” of magma.

C. The mantle is composed of rock, whereas the core is composed of metal. D. The outer core is liquid and the inner core is solid.

8. What is the basis for defining boundaries between the crust, mantle, and core? What is the basis for defining boundaries between the lithosphere and asthenosphere?

A. chemical differences / physical differences B. physical differences / chemical differences

C. differences in seismic velocity / differences in fossil content D. differences in fossil content / differences in seismic velocity

Chapter 2: Answer Key 1. B

2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C

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6. D 7. B 8. A

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 3: Drifting Continents and Spreading Seas

1. According to Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift, all continents were once attached to form a single landmass that he called ________. He thought that this landmass survived until about the middle of the

_________ Era. A. Rodinia / Paleozoic B. Pangaea / Mesozoic C. Baltica / Cenozoic D. Laurentia / Paleozoic

2. What is the relationship between the coastlines on the east side of the Atlantic and those on the west side?

A. There is no relationship at all. B. They are identical.

C. Continents on the east side could fit snugly against those on the west. D. Their elevations are the same.

3. Which of the following statements about Wegener’s reconstruction of late Paleozoic Pangaea is true?

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A. Areas glaciated during the late Paleozoic were all in the northern hemisphere. B. Areas that were deserts in the late Paleozoic were all in polar regions.

C. Areas that were coal swamps in the late Paleozoic were all at high (polar) latitudes at that time.

D. Areas glaciated during the late Paleozoic laid over the south polar region.

4. When Wegener compared rock units now exposed on different continents bordering the Atlantic Ocean, what did he discover? A. Fossils of identical land-dwelling species occur on continents that are now separated from one another by the ocean.

B. There is no relation between mountain belts on the eastern margin and those on the western margin.

C. Precambrian crustal blocks have not been truncated by oceans. D. Glossopteris fossils occur only in Africa.

5. Why did most geologists initially oppose Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift?

A. Wegener could not explain the distribution of fossils. B. Wegener could not explain how or why continents move.

C. Wegener could not explain the distribution of climate belts of the past.

D. Trick question: Geologists all over the world immediately accepted Wegener’s hypothesis.

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6. Keeping in mind the shape of magnetic field lines in space around the Earth, which of the following is true?

A. Averaged over time, magnetic inclination is constant everywhere on the Earth’s surface.

B. Magnetic inclination is 45° at the magnetic equator and 0° at the magnetic poles.

C. Magnetic inclination is 90° at the magnetic equator and 45° at a magnetic latitude of 45°.

D. Magnetic inclination is 0° at the magnetic equator and 90° at the magnetic poles.

7. Why can samples of basalt exhibit paleomagnetism?

A. The dipoles of tiny magnetite grains in basalt align with the Earth’s field as the basalt cools, and stay that way once the basalt is cold.

B. Large crystals of magnetite grow in basalt long after the rock cools. These crystals act like magnets.

C. The Earth’s electrical currents flow through basalt, so it acts like an electromagnet.

D. As the crystals forming basalt settle out of water they align with the Earth’s field, and then are cemented into place.

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A. The Earth’s magnetic poles wander rapidly around the surface, crossing the equator frequently.

B. The Moon drags the magnetic poles with it as it orbits the Earth. C. Continents drift with respect to relatively fixed magnetic poles.

D. The paths are an illusion. Deviations of paleopole positions from the present are caused by lightning strikes.

9. When a magnetometer is towed over a positive marine magnetic anomaly:

A. the measured magnetic field is weaker than expected. B. the measured magnetic field is stronger than expected. C. the sea floor is shallower than expected.

D. the sea floor is deeper than expected.

10. Studies of sea-floor bathymetry demonstrate that: A. the ocean floor is a vast plain, all at the same depth.

B. mid-ocean ridges, up to 15 km high, divide each ocean basin in half.

C. the axis of a mid-ocean ridge can be drawn as a continuous straight line, with no interruptions or offsets.

D. deep ocean trenches, the deepest of which have a depth of about 11 km, border chains of active volcanoes.

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A. Along the axes of the mid-ocean ridges. B. At the floors of the deep-ocean trenches. C. Along the coast of an ocean basin. D Along the equator.

12. Which of the following statements about Earth’s magnetic field is correct?

A. The polarity stays constant through time, i.e., north is always north.

B. The position of the dipole wanders around the Earth’s surface, and was at the equator about 1 million years ago.

C. The polarity of the magnetic field reverses every now and then.

D. The polarity of the magnetic field reverses periodically; reversals occur once every 700,000 years.

Chapter 3: Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. C

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9. B 10. D 11. A 12. C

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 4: The Way the Earth Works: Plate Tectonics

1. A lithosphere plate consists of: A. the crust alone.

B. the lower mantle.

C. the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle. D. the crust and the entire upper mantle.

2. What defines the location of plate boundaries? (Compare Fig. 4.4 to Fig. 4.5.)

A. The locations of earthquake epicenters. B. High mountain belts.

C. The coastlines of continents.

D. Trick question: Plate boundaries are simply drawn along lines of latitude.

3. What is the difference between a "passive continental margin" and an "active continental margin"? (Compare Fig. 4.3 to Fig. 4.15.)

A. Earthquakes happen frequently at passive margins, but not at active ones. B. Wide continental shelves occur at active margins, but not at passive ones. C. Crust is much thicker at a passive margin than in the interior of a continent.

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D. Passive margins are not plate boundaries, whereas active margins are.

4. In the Atlantic Ocean, where does the youngest oceanic crust occur? (See Fig. 4.7.)

A. Along the coastlines of the continents. B. Adjacent to the mid-ocean ridge.

C. There is no set rule: young ocean crust has a nearly random distribution.

5. In which of the following pairs of terms does the second term represent the type of process that happens at the first term?

A. mid-ocean ridge / sea-floor spreading B. convergent boundary / plates move apart C. transform boundary / plates move together D. mid-ocean ridge / subduction

6. Which of the following processes happen at the axis of a mid-ocean ridge?

A. Molten rock intrudes on the crust, and lava erupts at the surface. B. Vents in the sea floor spew out hot, mineral-saturated water.

C. Stretching force (tension) causes the crust to break and slip on faults. D. None of the above.

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7. Which of the following statements about a hotspot track is correct? A. All of the volcanoes making up the track have erupted at roughly the same time.

B. The track is perpendicular to the direction that the plate on which the volcanoes form is moving.

C. Hotspot tracks are parallel to deep ocean trenches.

D. The youngest volcano of the track occurs at one end of the track.

8. At a __________, continental crust is being stretched apart; as a consequence, the crust becomes _______ and volcanoes erupt. A. trench / shorter

B. trench / longer C. rift / thinner D. rift / thicker

9. Why can’t continental crust be subducted?

A. It is too buoyant and can’t sink into the asthenosphere. B. Continental crust is denser than the asthenosphere.

C. Trick question: Continental crust can be subducted, just like oceanic crust.

10. Which of the following statements concerning the forces that drive plate motions is correct?

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A. Plate movement occurs primarily because of simple convection cells in the mantle.

B. Movement of oceanic currents causes the underlying plates to move. C. Ridge-push and slab-pull forces are probably the main forces that drive plate motion.

D. Plates move in response to centrifugal force caused by the rotation of the Earth.

11. The motion of a plate in relation to material on an adjacent plate is called ________ velocity. Values for this velocity are on the order of ______. A. relative / 1 - 15 km/y B. absolute / 1 - 15 cm/y C. relative / 40 - 60 cm/y D. absolute / 40 - 60 km/y Answers 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. D

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7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. A

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 5: Patterns in Nature: Minerals

1. Based on the geologic definition of a mineral, which of the following is a mineral, or is composed of minerals?

A. A DVD disk.

B. An asphalt shingle on a roof. C. Sugar crystals in a sugar cube. D. Molten candle wax.

E. The ice making up a snowflake.

2. When we say that a material is “crystalline” we mean that internally: A. atoms are distributed in an orderly arrangement.

B. atoms and/or clusters of atoms are arranged randomly. C. atoms are arranged strictly in microscopic cubes.

D. the material only occurs in crystals with nicely formed crystal faces.

3. Which of the following processes does not lead to the formation of a mineral?

A. Precipitation from an aqueous solution. B. Instantaneous freezing of molten rock.

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C. Slow cooling of molten rock.

D. Precipitation from concentrated gases. E. Slow diffusion through a solid.

4. Which of the following definitions is not correct?

A. Anhedral crystal: the crystal does not have well-formed faces. B. Euhedral crystal: the crystal does have well-formed faces. C. Geode: a mineral-filled cavity.

D. Symmetric: one part of a mineral crystal bears no geometric relationship with another part.

E. Polymorph: a mineral that has the same chemical composition, but not the same crystal structure, as another one.

5. Which of the following minerals has a metallic luster? A. Pyrite, a mineral that looks like brass.

B. Quartz, a mineral that looks like glass. C. Feldspar, a mineral that looks like porcelain.

D. Halite, a mineral that looks gray or white, and glassy.

6. The chemical formula of quartz is SiO2. This means that if you analyze a

piece of quartz, you will find that:

A. the piece contains equal parts of sodium and chlorine.

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C. the piece contains a random mixture of silicon and oxygen atoms. D. the piece contains a great variety of different elements.

7. If a sample has good cleavage in three directions, and each cleavage plane direction is at right angles to the other two, then:

A. the crystal can be peeled apart into thin sheets. B. the crystal grows to form cube-shaped crystals.

C. if struck with a hammer, a smooth fracture shaped like a clam shell forms. D. when crystals break, little cube-shaped or brick-shaped fragments form.

8. Which statement about the specific gravity of minerals is correct? A. If a mineral has a specific gravity of 2, then a cubic centimeter of the mineral weighs twice as much as a cubic centimeter of water.

B. Galena (lead ore; PbS) has a smaller specific gravity than halite (table salt; NaCl).

C. The specific gravity is a measure of how fast an object will fall a distance of 1 m in a vacuum.

D. The specific gravity of a particular mineral specimen depends on the size of the specimen.

9. The seven principle classes of minerals are distinguished from each other based on:

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B. crystal form.

C. chemical composition. D. hardness.

10. The fundamental unit of the most common mineral class on Earth is: A. the sodium-chlorine cube.

B. the sulfate (SO4) anionic group. C. the silicon-oxygen tetrahedron. D. the carbonate (CO3) anionic group. E. the silicon-iron pyramid.

11. Which of the following phrases is not a correct characteristic of the specified mineral?

A. Mica: two-dimensional sheet silicate. B. Quartz: single-chain silicate.

C. Feldspar: 3-D framework silicate.

D. Olivine: unlinked silicon-oxygen tetrahedra .

E. Calcite: carbonate mineral that reacts strongly with acid.

12. The facets on cut diamonds or other cut gems are generally: A. natural crystal faces.

B. natural cleavage surfaces. C. formed by grinding on a lap.

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D. formed by carefully dissolving portions of a crystal. .

Chapter 5: Answer Key 1. E 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. C

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 6: Up from the Inferno: Magma and Igneous Rocks

1. What is the difference between magma and lava?

A. Composition: the former contains more magnesium and iron than the latter. B. Location: the former is molten rock underground whereas the latter is molten rock at the Earth’s surface.

C. Temperature: the former is hotter than the latter.

D. Grain size: the former has bigger crystals than the latter.

2. What does pyroclastic debris consist of?

A. Fragments of solidified lava erupted into the air from a volcano. B. Solid masses of glass.

C. Rivers of lava that flow down the side of a volcano. D. A type of intrusive igneous rock.

3. In the upper crust of a continent, the geothermal gradient is about: A. 350° - 400°C per km.

B. 150° - 200°C per km. C. 20° - 30°C per km. D. 1° - 5°C per km.

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4. Which of the following phenomena will cause melting to produce magma?

A. The removal of volatiles (H2O or CO2) from the rock.

B. Increasing pressure, while the temperature stays constant.

C. Trick question: the crust floats on a layer of perpetually molten rock, so magma has always existed; there is no need to melt rock to “produce” magma. D. A transfer of heat from a hot magma into the surrounding wall rock.

5. Which is the correct order of adjectives defining magma composition? <— more silica less silica —>

A. felsic / intermediate / ultramafic / mafic B. ultramafic / mafic / felsic / intermediate C. intermediate / felsic / mafic / ultramafic D. felsic / intermediate / mafic / ultramafic

6. A large blob-like or irregularly shaped mass of intrusive igneous rock is called a:

A. sill. B. pluton. C. laccolith. D. dike.

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7. A ________ is a tabular intrusion that cuts across layers, whereas a _______ is one that intrudes between layers.

A. pluton / laccolith B. sill / dike

C. dike / sill D. flow / batholith

8. If you find an outcrop of coarse-grained igneous rock, you are probably looking at:

A. slowly cooled magma in a large pluton that formed deep in the crust. B. a frozen lava flow that cooled quickly at the Earth’s surface.

C. a rapidly cooled magma in a very thin dike. D. a layer of pyroclastic debris.

9. When a gas-rich (“volatile-rich”) magma rises to the Earth’s surface the gas forms ________ which, if frozen into the lava, become(s) _________. A. obsidian / pumice

B. bubbles / vesicles C. tuff / granite

D. gabbro / phenocrysts

10. In which of the following tectonic settings does magma form primarily as a consequence of addition of volatiles?

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A. mid-ocean ridges

B. convergent plate boundaries at volcanic island arcs C. hotspot volcanoes

D. transform faults

11. In which of the following tectonic settings is magma formation not likely a consequence of decompression melting?

A. mid-ocean ridge B. rift

C. convergent plate boundary D. hot spot

12. Pillow basalts form:

A. by the intrusion of mafic magma at great depth in the crust. B. by extrusion at high elevations on large volcanoes.

C. by intrusion of felsic magma at shallow depth in the crust. D. by extrusion under water.

Chapter 6: Answer Key 1. A

2. A 3. C

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4. D 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. D

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 7: A Surface Veneer: Sediments, Soils, and Sedimentary Rocks

1. What is the difference between sediment and sedimentary rock? A. Coherence: sediment consists of loose grains, sedimentary rock consists of a solid aggregate.

B. Location: sediment occurs at the Earth’s surface, whereas sedimentary rock only occurs underground.

C. Temperature: the former is hotter than the latter.

D. Grain size: the former has bigger crystals than the latter.

2. Which of the following is not a manifestation of a physical weathering process?

A. Roots pry a crack open.

B. Rock breaks apart by the formation of joints.

C. Water reacts with minerals and breaks molecules apart. D. Salt crystals grow between grains and push the grains apart.

3. Which of the following is not a manifestation of chemical weathering? A. The dissolving of calcite in water to produce Ca2+ and CO32- in solution.

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C. The growth of ice crystals in cracks to wedge the cracks open.

D. The absorption of water molecules into the crystal structure of minerals.

4. What is the difference between soil and sediment? A The former is coarser grained and the latter is finer grained.

B. The former has been modified by leaching or by accumulation of ions and may contain organic matter, whereas the latter has not.

C. The former has been buried deeply, while the latter has not. D. The former is wet while the latter is dry.

5. Which is the correct order of soil horizons in a typical soil of a temperate forest?

<— ground surface deeper in subsurface —> A. O / A / E / B / C

B. protosoil / evolved soil / deep soil C. A / B / C / E / O

D. zone of accumulation / zone of leaching / zone of weathering

6. The process of erosion does not include which of the following? A. Boulders being plucked off a hillside by a glacier

B. Gravity-driven tumbling off a cliff.

C. Removal of debris by wind or running water. D. Precipitation of cement.

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7. Which of the following processes are considered to contribute to lithification?

A. Compaction and consolidation (removal of water and air between the grains). B. Cementation by minerals precipitated from groundwater.

C. Formation of joints.

D. Churning by subsurface organisms. E. both A and B

8. Sedimentary rocks formed by cementing grains derived from preexistent rocks together are called _______ sedimentary rocks. A very fine-grained example, which typically splits into thin sheets, is called _________. A. clastic / shale

B. biochemical / conglomerate C. chemical / coal

D. clastic / sandstone

9. Imagine a mountain stream whose fast-moving water has carried away all grains except for well-rounded pebbles, cobbles, and boulders. If such stream gravel were lithified, it would turn into:

A. shale. B. siltstone. C. arkose.

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D. breccia. E. conglomerate.

10. Biochemical limestone can consist of: A. coral mounds and/or calcite shell fragments. B. quartz sand grains on a beach.

C. deposits of clay.

D. deposits of plankton shells composed of silica.

11. Evaporites are a type of _______ sedimentary rock. Examples include ______ and ______.

A. organic / coal / black shale

B. biochemical / plankton shells / clay C. chemical / gypsum / halite

D. clastic / quartz / feldspar

12. In the cross section of cross beds shown above, which direction did the current flow at the time of deposition?

A. West to east. B. East to west.

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C. Top to bottom. D. Bottom to top.

13. In the schematic cross section of graded beds shown above, are the beds right-side-up (i.e., the younger bed is on top) or overturned (i.e., the younger bed is on the bottom)?

A. Overturned. B. Right-side-up.

C. Trick question: can’t tell from the data provided. D. Left to right.

.

14. If you were to find an outcrop that consists of channels of sandstone surrounded by layers of shale, much of which is reddish in color, you are probably looking at the deposits of:

A. a beach.

B. a reef environment.

C. the deep water part of a delta. D. the nearshore part of a delta

clast (diameter indicates size)

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15. A region that undergoes long-term _________, so that relatively thick deposits of sediment can accumulate, is called a ____________.

A. uplift / channel

B. subsidence / sedimentary basin C. erosion / slope

D. none of the above

16. If sea level rises so the shoreline migrates inland, we say that a ______________ has occurred.

A. migration B. regression C. accumulation D. transgression

Chapter 7: Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. E 8. A

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9. E 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. D

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 8: Metamorphism: A Process of Change

1. Which of the following phrases correctly completes the following sentence? During metamorphism, ________.

A. glass changes by first melting and then solidifying B. rock reacts with air and water at the Earth’s surface C. sediment undergoes compaction and cementation D. a protolith undergoes change in the solid state

2. Which phenomenon can cause the mineral assemblage in a protolith to change into a metamorphic mineral assemblage?

A. A change in pressure. B. A change in temperature. C. Sheer stress.

D. Infiltration by supercritical fluids. E. All of the above.

3. Metamorphism of sandstone produces ________, whereas metamorphism of limestone produces __________.

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B. quartzite / marble C. veins / foliation

D. conglomerate / dolomite

4. Application of _________ during metamorphism causes inequant grains to align parallel to each other; when this happens, minerals in the rock develop ____________.

A. pressure / homogeneous texture

B. differential stress / preferred orientation C. high temperatures / preferred orientation D. none of the above

5. What is the difference between foliated and non-foliated metamorphic rocks?

A. The former display preferred orientation and/or compositional banding, whereas the latter do not.

B. The former have bigger grains than the latter. C. The former are heavier than the latter.

D. The former have a greater variety of minerals than the latter.

6. Which of the following lists distinguishes foliated metamorphic rocks in the correct sequence?

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A. schist / slate / phyllite B. phyllite / schist / slate C. slate / phyllite / schist D. hornfels / slate / schist

7. When we say that metamorphic rock #1 is “higher grade” than metamorphic rock #2, we mean that:

A. rock #1 was subjected to higher temperatures than rock #2. B. rock #1 was subjected to lower temperatures than rock #2. C. rock #1 has more foliation than rock #2.

D. rock #1 has more dark-colored minerals than rock #2.

8. Imagine traveling from the edge of a collisional orogen (mountain belt) into its interior. At the beginning of your journey, you probably find outcrops of ______, whereas at the end of the journey, you probably find outcrops of _______.

A. slate / gneiss B. gneiss / slate

C. Trick question: In a given orogen, all metamorphic rocks have the same grade.

9. Metamorphism due to heat alone, without differential stress, is called: A. regional metamorphism.

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B. dynamic metamorphism.

C. dynamothermal metamorphism. D. contact metamorphism.

10. Metamorphism at great depth in an accretionary prism produces: A. greenschist.

B. blueschist. C. amphibolite. D. granulite.

11. In a continental _______, you find extensive exposures of ________ metamorphic rock.

A. shelf / Cenozoic B. platform / Paleozoic C. shield / Precambrian D. all of the above

Chapter 8: Answer Key 1. D

2. E 3. B 4. B 5. A

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6. C 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 9: The Wrath of Vulcan: Volcanic Eruptions

1. The character of a lava flow depends on the viscosity of the lava erupted. _____ lava is less viscous than _____ lava, and thus flows out as a

_________.

A. rhyolitic / basaltic / thin sheet B. basaltic / rhyolitic / mound or dome C. rhyolitic / basaltic / mound or dome D. basaltic / rhyolitic / thin sheet

2. Volcanic ash consists of __________. An avalanche of hot ash flowing down a volcano is known as a(n) ____________.

A. cobbles of basalt / ash fall

B. tiny shards of glass / pyroclastic flow C. marble-sized cinders / lahar

D. blocks of rhyolite / debris flow

3. A large, cone-shaped volcano consisting of alternating layers of ash and lava is a(n) ____________.

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B. shield volcano C. cinder cone D. ignimbrite

4. If a volcano is erupting a gassy, felsic magma, then it is more likely to be __________.

A. an “effusive” eruption (i.e., lava flows dominate) B. an explosive eruption

C. can’t be answered with information provided: eruptive style does not depend on composition or gas content

5. Most of the deaths resulting from the 1883 explosion of Krakatau were due to __________.

A. ash fall B. lava flows C. tsunami

D. pyroclastic flows

6. What measurable clues may indicate that a particular volcano may erupt in the near future?

A. The heat flow measured on the surface of the volcano decreases. B. The volcano changes shape as the magma chamber fills.

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D. Both A and C.

7. Mafic lava erupted at a submarine volcano will produce __________ . A. an a’a’ flow

B. a cinder cone C. a pahoehoe flow D. pillow basalt

Chapter 9: Answer key 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. D

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 10: A Violent Pulse: Earthquakes

1. The point on the surface of the Earth that lies directly above the place where slip occurs on a fault is the ____.

A. hypocenter B. focus C. epicenter D. all of the above

2. On a _________ fault, the hanging wall block slips down the surface of the fault, relative to the footwall. If the fault displaces the ground surface, a _________ develops.

A. reverse / fault trace B. normal / fault scarp C. strike slip / fault trace D. reverse / fault scarp

E. Trick question: faults are always entirely underground and cannot offset the Earth’s surface.

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A. Rock bends elastically before breaking; the sudden break and/or frictional sliding causes earthquakes.

B. Rock flows slowly underground, like plastic. After it has flowed a specified distance, an earthquake occurs.

C. Most earthquakes occur when bubbles underground burst, like rubber balloons.

D. None of the above.

4. Which is the correct sequence of seismic waves that will be recorded at distance from the epicenter?

<— first to arrive last to arrive —> A. S-waves / surface waves / P-waves B. Surface waves / P-waves / S-waves C. P-waves / S-waves / surface waves

D. Trick question: all seismic waves travel at the same velocity.

5. A mechanical seismograph consists of a pen attached to a suspended weight, and a drum on which paper roll has been attached. During an earthquake:

A. The weight stays fixed in space, while the drum and paper move.

B. The drum and paper stay fixed in position, while the weight bounces about. C. Both the drum and the weight bounce about.

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6. To locate the epicenter of an earthquake, what information do you need? A. The amplitude of the P-waves.

B. The velocity of P-waves recorded at a seismic station. C. The velocity of surface waves recorded at a seismic station.

D. The difference in the arrival times of the P- and S-waves, as recorded at three different stations.

E. The amplitude of the S-waves.

7. The “intensity” of an earthquake is:

A. a measure of the amplitude of vibrations recorded by a seismograph. B. defined by the amount of damage caused by the earthquake.

C. a measure of the elevation change of the ground caused by the earthquake. D. a constant throughout a continent for a given earthquake.

8. A magnitude 4 earthquake results in ground motion that is ______ the ground motion that occurs during a magnitude 2 earthquake, and releases _____ the amount of energy.

A. 2X / 4X B. 2X / 2X C. 4X / 100X D.100X / 1089X

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9. Which statement about the distribution of earthquakes on Earth is correct?

A. Earthquakes are evenly distributed around the globe. B. Earthquakes occur in discrete belts, along plate boundaries. C. Earthquakes occur exclusively in the interiors of plates. D. Earthquakes are randomly distributed around the globe.

10. Which statement about the distribution of earthquakes at convergent plate boundaries is correct?

A. Hypocenters occur in a Wadati-Benioff zone, down to a depth of about 670 km below the surface.

B. Hypocenters occur only in the downgoing plate.

C. Epicenters occur only on the seaward side of the trench. D. Hypocenters only occur in the upper 15 km.

11. The concept that actions of people can somehow cause or “induce” seismicity is only a myth.

A. False: all earthquakes are directly caused by people.

B. False: filling reservoirs or pumping water underground has triggered small earthquakes.

C. True.

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A. One with a foundation built on an exposure of granite bedrock.

B. One built over a reclaimed swamp, so that the foundation lies over layers of wet clay.

C. One built over recent deposits of wet sand, which were buried in turn by compacted clay.

13. Tsunamis can be caused by:

A. Earthquakes in continental rifts that occur inland. B. Earthquakes along convergent plate boundaries. C. Large hurricanes.

14. With existing technology, it is possible to predict earthquakes to within a few days.

A. True. B. False.

15. When we say that the “recurrence interval” of magnitude 8 earthquakes along a given fault segment is 100 years, we mean:

A. magnitude 8 earthquakes happen every 100 years, so if one just happened, the location will be safe for another 100 years.

B. the probability that an earthquake can happen in a given year is 50%. C. the time between any two magnitude 8 earthquakes may vary substantially, but the average time between earthquakes is 100 years.

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Chapter 10: Answer key 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. C

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 11: Crags, Cracks, and Crumples: Crustal Deformation and Mountain Building

1. Above, we see a cross section of a cube that undergoes ______ in the horizontal direction to become a brick shape.

A. shortening B. stretching C. contraction D. shear

2. When you snap a stick between your hands so it separates into two pieces, you have caused ________ deformation.

A. elastic B. brittle C. ductile

B. all of the above

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3. In the context of geology, a “joint” refers to:

A. a broad bend or curve defined by the shape of a rock layer. B. a fracture on which there has been sliding.

C. a natural crack, on which there has been no sliding, in rock. D. a surface on which two rock layers are cemented together.

4. Both normal faults and reverse faults are considered to be _____ faults. The hanging wall block of a normal fault slides ______ the surface of the fault.

A. strike-slip / laterally on B. oblique-slip / diagonally C. dip-slip / up

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5. The fault shown in the above diagram is a vertical surface, and the slip lineations on it are horizontal. What type of fault is it?

A. strike-slip B. thrust C. normal D. oblique-slip

6. The diagram above depicts a _________. The red line represents the _________.

A. syncline / limb B. anticline / hinge C. anticline / limb D. syncline / hinge

7. If a succession of strata are folded so that they have the shape of an overturned bowl, the fold is a _______.

A. monocline B. dome

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C. basin D. anticline

8. Which of the following statements pertaining to the uplift of the surface of the Earth is not correct?

A. The crust beneath collisional mountain belts can become twice as thick as the crust beneath normal crust.

B. The lithosphere floats on the asthenosphere, so phenomena that cause it to float higher lead to uplift.

C. Where there is isostasy, or isostatic equilibrium, the buoyancy force pushing the lithosphere up is the same as the gravitational force pulling the lithosphere down.

D. Uplift of the Earth’s surface during mountain building does not affect the depth of the Moho beneath the surface.

9. Exotic terranes attach (“accrete”) to the margins of a continent during _______, and cause the area of the host continent to _______.

A. convergent orogeny / decrease B. convergent orogeny / increase C. rifting / decrease

D. rifting / increase

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A. along the margins of the orogen, where rocks undergo thrusting above a detachment.

B. in the internal part where rocks have been squeezed up from great depth. C. in the grabens.

D. in the horsts.

11. The shield area of a continent refers to:

A. regions where shield volcanoes have formed by repeated eruption. B. the portion of the continent where Precambrian rock has been buried by Paleozoic strata.

C. the portion of the continent where extensive areas of Precambrian rock are exposed.

D. the youngest portion of the continental crust in existence.

12. According to geologic studies of the Appalachians, it is clear that there was never an ocean east of what is now the United States until the opening of the modern Atlantic.

A. True. B. False.

C. The answer is not known; more observations are needed until it can be justified.

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1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 12: Deep Time: How Old Is Old?

1. When we say that the ruins of the Roman forum are older than the towers of Notre Dame Cathedral in Paris, we are giving a specification of:

A. numerical age. B. relative age. C. uniform age. D. absolute age.

2. According to the Principle of Uniformitarianism: A. the future is the key to the present.

B. there was once a uniform layer of sediment covering the entire Earth.

C. physical processes that can be observed today also happened in the past, at comparable rates, and are responsible for the geologic features that we see. D. all rock layers start out with roughly the same orientation.

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3. According to the principle of cross-cutting relations, which of the following features in the above cross section is the oldest?

A. the pluton B. the dike

C. sedimentary layer A D. sedimentary layer F

4. According to the principle of cross-cutting relations, which of the following features in the above cross section is the youngest?

A

B

C

D

E

F

pluton dike

A

B

C

D

E

F

pluton dike

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A. the pluton B. the dike

C. sedimentary layer A D. sedimentary layer F

5. A geologist plots the lowest (oldest) and highest (youngest) appearance of fossil specimens on a stratigraphic chart. According to the Principle of Fossil Succession:

A. strata containing X are always younger than those containing Z. B. strata containing Y are always older than those containing Z. C. strata containing Y are always younger than those containing Z.

D. fossil Z might occur in Unit G. (Note: Assume that the highest appearance of a species shown on the chart represents the extinction of the species.)

A

D

C

E

F

B

fossil

X

fossil

Y

fossil

Z

Note: Oldest strata are on the bottom!

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6. The boundary between stratigraphic units A and B is called a(n): A. intrusive contact.

B. fault contact. C. unconformity.

D. conformable contact.

7. When we say that the Redwall Limestone, exposed in the Grand Canyon, correlates with the Monte Cristo Limestone exposed near Las Vegas, we mean:

A. both units have exactly the same rock type, but different fossils. B. both units were deposited at approximately the same time. C. the Redwall was deposited on top of the Monte Cristo. D. the Monte Cristo was deposited on top of the Redwall.

A

B

C

D

E

F

pluton dike

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8. The complete geologic column is represented by the stratigraphic succession exposed in the immense walls of the Grand Canyon. (Hint: Geologists have identified several unconformities in the Grand Canyon.) A. true

B. false C. possibly

D. insufficient data

9. Which interval of time is the longest? A. eon

B. epoch C. era D. period

10. In which of the following do we present the correct sequence of Eras? <— oldest youngest —>

A. Paleozoic / Mesozoic / Cenozoic B. Mesozoic / Paleozoic / Cenozoic C. Cenozoic / Mesozoic / Paleozoic D. Mesozoic / Cenozoic / Paleozoic

11. The half-life of a given radioactive isotope is 100 million years. A mineral specimen contains four atoms of parent for every twelve atoms of

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daughter. Assuming no escape of parent or daughter during decay, how old is the specimen?

A. 800 million years B. 400 million years C. 200 million years D. 100 million years

12. If we obtain a radiometric age of 215 ± 2 Ma on a sample of amphibolite-facies metamorphosed basalt, the date is telling us:

A. when the basalt cooled from lava, and thus the age of eruption. B. the time of the rock just beneath the basalt flow.

C. the time when the rock was eroded and exposed at the Earth’s surface. D. the time when the rock cooled from amphibolite facies conditions.

13. The feldspar grains in an arkose yield an age of 310 ± 3 Ma. This means that:

A. the arkose was deposited about 310 Ma.

B. the arkose underwent lithification about 310 Ma.

C. the granite from which the feldspar grains were eroded solidified from magma and cooled to low temperature about 310 Ma.

D. erosion of granite to provide feldspar grains occurred about 310 Ma.

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1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. C

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 13: A Biography of Earth

1. On what basis do geologists conclude that the Earth formed about 4.57 Ga?

A. Radiometric ages of the oldest rocks found on continents. B. Radiometric ages of certain types of meteorites.

C. The age of clasts in the oldest known sedimentary rocks on Earth. D. Measurement of the spectra of the Sun.

2. Which of the following statements about the early history of the Earth is correct?

A. The Earth accreted in stages, with the iron core forming first, and the rocky mantle forming later.

B. Soon after the Earth formed, it captured a large planetesimal. This planetesimal began to orbit the Earth as the Moon.

C. The Earth was fairly homogeneous early in its history, but soon underwent differentiation. Iron sank to the center to form the core.

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3. The fossil record indicates that the first living organisms appeared on Earth during the:

A. Hadean Eon. B. Archean.

C. Proterozoic Eon. D. Phanerozoic Eon.

4. The first continents, or “protocontinents,” appeared in the Archean. They consisted of:

A. sutured volcanic arcs and hotspot volcanoes. B. thick accumulations of marine sediment. C. masses of bacteria.

D. none of the above.

5. Based on the geologic record, which statement about the oxygen content in the atmosphere is correct?

A. The atmosphere has always had approximately the same amount of oxygen. B. Oxygen is the principal gas released by volcanoes.

C. The oxygen content in the very early atmosphere was much higher than it is today. About 2.5 Ga, it dropped significantly.

D. The early Archean atmosphere had very little oxygen. Oxygen content began to increase when photosynthetic organisms evolved in the Archean, and more so during the Proterozoic and Phanerozoic eons.

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6. The fossil record indicates that complex, multicellular organisms (e.g., worms and jellyfish) appeared:

A. at the end of the Archean (about 2.5 Ga). B. near the end of the Proterozoic (about 670 Ma). C. at the Precambrian/Cambrian boundary (at 542 Ma). D. at the beginning of the Archean (about 3.9 Ga).

7. The fossil record shows that during the early Cambrian: A. the first stromatolites (mounds of bacteria or archaea) appeared. B. the dinosaurs went extinct.

C. there was an “explosion” of life, in that a great diversity of species, many with shells, appeared.

D. the first land plants appeared.

8. At the end of the Precambrian, a ________ formed. This has been given the name _________.

A. microcontinent / Rodinia B. supercontinent / Pangaea C. supercontinent / Rodinia D. microcontinent / Pangaea

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9. Huge coal swamps covered inland areas of continents during the _______. A. Proterozoic Eon B. Cambrian Period C. Devonian Period D. Carboniferous Period

10. At the end of the _______, during the _______ orogeny, Africa collided with the east coast of North America, and the supercontinent ________ formed.

A. Proterozoic / Taconic / Rodinia B. Paleozoic / Alleghanian / Pangaea C. Cenozoic / Laramide / Pannotia D. Mesozoic / Trans-Hudson / Gondwana

11. The stratigraphic record from the interior of North America indicates that:

A. several times during the Phanerozoic, volcanic activity occurred throughout the continent.

B. shallow seas submerged large areas of the continent several times during the Phanerozoic.

C. there were never shallow seas in the interior—the region has always been the site of non-marine deposition.

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D. the region was underlain by oceanic crust until Mesozoic time.

12. During much of the Mesozoic, the western margin of North America was a:

A. rift.

B. transform fault.

C. divergent plate boundary. D. convergent plate boundary. E. passive margin.

13. The most popular hypothesis to explain the mass extinction of life at the Cretaceous-Tertiary boundary is that:

A. an intense ice age occurred, freezing most of the Earth. Geologists refer to this condition as “snowball Earth.”

B. huge rifts developed on most continents, and the rift-related volcanoes emitted vast amounts of deadly gases.

C. a large meteorite collided with Earth at the site of what is now Yucatán. D. so much orogeny (mountain building) occurred that there were steep slopes nearly everywhere.

Chapter 13: Answer key 1. B

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3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. C

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 14: Squeezing Power from a Stone: Energy Resources

1. World usage of energy increased dramatically during the time interval of ___________. Today, ______ provides over 80% of the world’s energy production.

A. 1870–1900 / hydroelectric power B. 1870–1900 / fossil fuel

C. 1940–1970 / fossil fuel

D. 1940–1970 / hydroelectric power

2. The chemicals that make up oil and natural gas are derived from: A. the bodies of dead plankton and algae.

B. accumulations of woody plants and mosses. C. the bodies of land animals (mainly dinosaurs). D. accumulations of shells.

3. To produce oil from kerogen: A. the rock must be saturated with salt. B. the rock must be completely dry.

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C. the temperature must be greater than 400°C, and at a depth of greater than 25 km.

D. the temperature must be between about 90° and 150°C.

4. Oil and natural gas rise into oil traps because:

A. they boil under the conditions found in the source region, and therefore are forced upwards.

B. they flow in all directions once formed, and some happens to end up in the trap.

C. hydrocarbons are less dense than water, so they are relatively buoyant and float above water.

D. Trick question: oil and gas stay within the source rock, so that to pump them out drillers must penetrate the source rock.

5. In order for a rock to be a good reservoir rock from which oil can be pumped it must have:

A. high porosity. B. low permeability. C. high permeability. D. both A and C.

6. Drilling mud is important during drilling for oil because: A. the weight of the mud prevents gushers.

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B. the mud helps pull the oil up and out of the hole.

C. it keeps the drill bit from getting too cold, so the bit can continue to melt its way into rock.

D. all of the above.

7. Natural gas is _____ volatile than oil, and consists of _____ hydrocarbon molecules.

A. less / longer B. less / shorter C. more / longer D. more / shorter

8. Coal forms from ______ that accumulates in a(n) ______ depositional environment.

A. plant material / reducing B. plankton bodies / oxidizing C. plant material / oxidizing D. plankton bodies / reducing

9. What is the correct order of coal types, listed in order from low rank to high rank?

<— low rank high rank —> A. lignite / bituminous / anthracite

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B. bituminous / lignite / anthracite C. anthracite / bituminous / lignite D. bituminous / anthracite / lignite

10. As the rank of coal increases, the proportion of carbon in it ________. A. decreases

B. stays the same C. increases

D. Trick question: rank refers to the proportion of silica in the coal.

11. The basic reaction that takes place in a nuclear power plant is ________. If the fuel rods get too hot, they can cause a _________. A. fusion / meltdown

B. fission / nuclear explosion C. fission / meltdown

D. fusion / nuclear explosion

12. According to current estimates of reserves, oil will remain our main source of energy for roughly the next _____ years.

A. 10 B. 100 C. 1,000 D. 10,000

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Chapter 14: Answer key 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. B

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 15: Riches in Rock: Mineral Resources

1. Why isn’t a typical outcrop of granite considered to be an ore deposit? A. It does not contain a sufficiently high concentration of valuable metals. B. It only contains four major minerals–Ore deposits have a greater variety. C. It doesn’t have a uniform color.

D. Granite is an intrusive rock, so all exposures of granite are underground. Ore deposits occur only in exposed outcrops.

E. Grain size: the former has bigger crystals than the latter.

2. All ores consist of native metals distributed in a matrix of the host rock. A. true

B. false

3. An ore deposit that forms when hot fluids containing dissolved ore minerals circulate through rock is called:

A. a magmatic deposit.

B. a secondary enrichment deposit. C. a hydrothermal deposit.

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4. The ’49ers started by mining placer ores. They did this by: A. drilling wide holes.

B. tunneling deep underground.

C. using picks and shovels to dig out ore-bearing veins in open-pit mines. D. panning the gravel in streams.

5. The stone that is used for countertops, walls, or curbs is called _______. One way to obtain it is by __________.

A. quarry stone / blasting

B. dimension stone / a wireline saw C. flagstone / blasting

D. brick-a-brack / cutting jet

6. Why is the runoff water that comes from mines commonly acidic? A. Most rain is acidic, so the runoff from mines is acidic. This is no different than the runoff from other areas.

B. Many ore minerals are carbonates, and when crushed to a powder during mining, produce acid.

C. Ores are mostly precipitated in limestone, and limestone reacts with acid. D. Many kinds of ore minerals are sulfides, and these react with water to form dilute sulfuric acid.

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Chapter 15: Answer key 1, A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. D

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 16: Unsafe Grounds: Landslides and Other Mass Movements

1. Geologists distinguish among different kinds of downslope movement based, in part, on ___________.

A. location B. thickness

C. rate of movement D. elevation

2. The gradual downslope movement of regolith in a temperate climate is called ________. If such movement occurs in the tundra, where there is permafrost, it is _______.

A. avalanche / mudslide B. slumping / rock fall C. creep / solifluction D. debris slide / lahar

3. In the field, you may be able to recognize a slope down which avalanches are frequent by the presence of:

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B. a slope that is notably steeper than nearby slopes. C. hummocky ground.

D. abundant springs.

4. If the water table beneath a slope rises, either because of heavy rain or the impounding of a reservoir:

A. adjacent slopes become more unstable (because detachment surfaces become weaker).

B. adjacent slopes become more stable (because the water causes grains to stick together).

C. nothing much happens: water has very little effect on slope stability.

5. A submarine avalanche is also known as a ________. The deposits accumulate in a ________.

A. debris flow / talus

B. turbidity current / submarine fan C. olistostrome / talus

D. both A and B

6. Downslope movement can be triggered when: A. downslope force exceeds resistance force.

B. the angle of repose becomes greater than the slope angle. C. a clay-rich regolith dries out.

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7. In a typical slump, the glide surface (slip surface) is _______, and at the uphill end, a(n) ________ forms.

A. planar / exfoliation surface B. planar / head scarp

C. curving (spoon-shaped) / talus D. curving (spoon-shaped) / head scarp

8. Which of the following will increase the potential for mass movement on a slope?

A. A drought.

B. Removing riprap at the base. C. Draining a reservoir.

D. Deforestation.

Chapter 16: Answer key 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 2e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 17: Streams and Floods: The Geology of Running Water

1. When you observe water flowing in a permanent stream, where does the water come from?

A. Surface runoff.

B. Water temporarily trapped in soil. C. Groundwater rising from springs. D. All of the above.

2. During the process of headward erosion, the distance from the mouth to the source of the stream:

A. increases. B. decreases. C. stays the same.

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A B C D 3. Which of the above map patterns represents a dendritic drainage network?

A. A B. B C. C D. D

4. The so-called “continental divide” of North America separates: A. rivers that drain into the Atlantic from the Mississippi drainage network. B. rivers that drain into Hudson Bay from those that drain into the Atlantic. C. rivers that drain into the Great Basin of Utah and Nevada from those that drain into the Pacific.

D. rivers that drain into the Atlantic from those that drain into the Pacific.

5. Why do the courses of rivers in some locations cut across resistant rock ridges rather than find a path around them?

A. Rivers are able to erode resistant (hard) rock layers faster than they can erode soft rock layers.

B. Some rivers are ephemeral, and thus can cut through anything.

C. The stream course was established when the stream flowed over a uniform substrate, and it was superposed on the non-uniform substrate below.

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6. The longitudinal profile of a stream is typically _______. The lowest elevation below which a stream cannot cut is called its ______, and occurs at the stream’s ________ .

A. convex-up / water table / source B. convex-up / base level / mouth C. concave-up / base level / mouth D. concave-up / tributary / source

7. The velocity of water flow in a stream: A. is constant everywhere in a stream.

B. tends to be fastest at shallow depths near the stream’s center. C. is fastest along the bed of the stream.

D. is fastest along the walls of the stream’s channel.

8. The portion of a stream’s sediment load that consists of tiny solid grains carried along with the water, but not bouncing off the stream bed is a stream’s ________.

A. suspended load B. dissolved load C. bed load

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9. Which of the following changes in the landscape is likely if the ultimate base level of a stream drops significantly?

A. The stream downcuts to form a canyon. B. Alluvium fills up the stream’s valley.

C. Nothing much, because the longitudinal profile is constant. D. The stream starts cutting a canyon below sea level.

10. Alluvial fans form when:

A. the gradient of a stream increases, and the water becomes more turbulent. B. a stream goes over a waterfall.

C. an ephemeral stream emerges from the mouth of a canyon and spreads over a broad plain.

D. a stream undercuts a cliff, which collapses and spreads sediment out in a fan-shaped area.

11. Which of the following statements about the location of meanders along a meandering stream is correct?

A. The location is constant through time.

B. Meanders change as they cut away on the inner curve and deposit on the outer curve.

C. The location of meanders only changes if the base level of the stream changes.

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D. Meanders change as they cut away on the outer curve and deposit on the inner curve.

12. Deltas form because ________. The finest sediment typically accumulates _________ from (to) shore.

A. water slows at the mouth of the stream / closest B. water speeds up at the mouth of the stream / farthest C. water slows at the mouth of the stream / farthest D. water speeds up at the mouth of the stream / closest

13. If geologists calculate that the recurrence interval of a flood of a certain size is 100 years, then:

A. such a flood happens every 100 years.

B. the probability that such a flood will happen next year is 1%.

C. if such a flood happened last year, another is less likely to occur than if it happened twenty years ago.

D. it is possible for even larger floods to have a shorter recurrence interval. .

14. As an area becomes urbanized, and large areas of open land are covered by pavement, the lag time between peak rainfall and peak discharge ______.

A. increases B. decreases

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C. stays the same

Chapter 17: Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. B

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Earth: Portrait of a Planet, 3e GeoQuiz Clicker Questions

Chapter 18: Restless Realm: Oceans and Coasts

1. How does oceanic crust differ from continental crust?

A. Ocean crust is about 7 - 10 km thick, whereas continental crust is about 35 - 70 km thick.

B. Ocean crust is composed almost entirely of basalt and gabbro, whereas continental crust includes many kinds of igneous and metamorphic rocks. C. The oldest oceanic crust is less than about 200 Ma old, whereas continental crust ranges up to almost 4 Ga old.

D. All of the above.

2. How deep are the abyssal plains of the ocean? How high is the highest mountain on land (i.e., Mt. Everest)?

A. Abyssal plains range from 30 to 50 km deep / Mt. Everest is 4.4 km high. B. Abyssal plains range from 3 to 5 km deep / Mt. Everest is 8.8 km high. C. Abyssal plains range from 10 to 20 km deep / Mt. Everest is 5.2 km. D. Abyssal plains range from 8 to 15 km deep / Mt. Everest is 6.8 km high.

3. What underlies the broad continental shelves that border some shorelines?

(90)

A. Continental shelves are underlain by very thick piles of basalt, erupted at a hotspot volcano.

B. Continental shelves are underlain by normal continental crust that happens to be pulled below sea level by the weight of the attached oceanic crust.

C. Continental shelves are underlain by continental crust that was stretched during rifting, has subsided, and has been buried by sediment.

D. Continental shelves are underlain by very thick continental crust.

4. The deepest places in the ocean are ________, where water depths reach _________.

A. mid-ocean ridges / 2.0 km B. transform faults / 3.0 km C. abyssal plains / 4.5 km D. trenches / 11 km

5. What does ocean water consist of? A. Pure H2O.

B. A solution of halite (NaCl) in water.

C. A solution containing various ions, mostly Na+ and Cl-, but also SO42-, Mg2+,

Ca2+, and K+.

D. A mixture of water and suspended crystals of various salts.

References

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