AP Biology Take Home Semester Exam


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AP Biology Take Home Semester Exam 

____ 1. Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things? a. evolutionary adaptations

b. energy processing

c. responding to the environment d. growth and reproduction e. all of the above

____ 2. Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from the most to the least complex level?

a. organelle, cell, organ system, population, community, ecosystem b. ecosystem, community, organism, tissue, cell, organelle

c. biosphere, population, organism, cell, tissue, molecule

d. biosphere, community, tissue, organ system, molecule, organelle e. organism, population, organ system, tissue, molecule, cell

____ 3. The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes: a. the flow of energy from sunlight to producers

b. the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers c. the recycling of chemical nutrients

d. the flow of energy to producers and the recycling of nutrients

e. the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling of chemical nutrients

____ 4. Which of the following is true regarding deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

a. Each deoxyribonucleic acid molecule is composed of two long chains of nucleotides arranged in a double helix.

b. Genes are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid.

c. DNA is composed of chemical building blocks called nucleotides. d. Only A and C are correct.

e. A, B, and C are correct.

____ 5. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct? a. Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus.

b. Prokaryotic cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles. c. Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus.

d. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells. e. DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is present in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.

____ 6. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common? a. a membrane-bounded nucleus

b. a cell wall made of cellulose c. ribosomes

d. flagella or cilia that contain microtubules e. linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein

____ 7. In a hypothetical world, every 50 years people over 6 feet tall are eliminated from the population. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average height of the human population will a. remain unchanged.


____ 8. The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as

a. hypothesis-based science. b. discovery science.

c. experimental science. d. quantitative science. e. qualitative science.

____ 9. Collecting data based on observation is an example of ____; analyzing this data to reach a conclusion is an example of ____ reasoning.

a. hypothesis-based science; inductive b. the process of science; deductive c. discovery science; inductive d. descriptive science; deductive e. hypothesis-based science; deductive ____ 10. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles. b. All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei. c. The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass;

each has a mass of about 1 dalton.

d. An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element. e. Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative

charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.

____ 11. Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom's nucleus?

a. atomic mass b. atomic weight

c. atomic number

d. mass weight

e. mass number

____ 12. One difference between carbon-12 and carbon-14 is that carbon-14 has a. two more protons than carbon-12.

b. two more electrons than carbon-12. c. two more neutrons than carbon-12. d. A and C only

e. B and C only

____ 13. The atomic number of carbon is 6. Carbon-14 is heavier than carbon-12 because the atomic nucleus of carbon-14 contains ____ neutrons.

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 12 e. 14

____ 14. The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is correct about an atom of neon? a. It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.

b. It is inert.

c. It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons. d. A and B only


____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____

_ 15. From a. 15 b. 15 c. 15 d. 8 e. B

Use th

_ 16. Which

a. D b. D c. D d. D e. D _ 17. What

a. nu b. nu c. nu d. pr e. pr _ 18. What

a. el b. io c. ag d. is e. m

_ 19. What a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 6 _ 20. Nitrog

about a. E b. T c. E d. T e. T

its atomic nu 5 neutrons. 5 protons. 5 electrons.

electrons in i B and C only

he figure belo

h drawing dep

Drawing A Drawing B Drawing C Drawing D Drawing E

does the reac umber of vale umber of orbi umber of elec resence of un resence of hy do atoms for lements ons

ggregates sotopes molecules

is the maxim

gen (N) is mu t the atoms in Each hydrogen The nitrogen a Each hydrogen The nitrogen a There are cova

umber of 15, i

its outermost

ow to answer

picts the elect

ctivity of an a ence shells in itals found in ctrons in each npaired electro ybridized orbit rm when they

mum number o

uch more elec ammonia (N n atom has a p atom has a stro n atom has a s atom has a par alent bonds be

it is possible t

electron shel

the following

tron configur

atom depend o the atom the atom h orbital in the

ons in the out tals in the ato share electro

of covalent bo

ctronegative th H3)? (book co

partial positiv ong positive c slight negativ rtial positive c etween the hy

to predict that


g questions.

ration of oxyg


e atom ter valence sh om

on pairs?

onds an eleme

han hydrogen oncept) ve charge. charge. ve charge. charge. ydrogen atom

t the phospho

gen ( O)?

hell of the atom

ent with atom

n (H). Which


orus atom has


mic number 8

of the follow s

can make wit

wing statement

th hydrogen?


____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____

_ 21. What a. T b. E c. T d. T e. T _ 22. Which

a. H b. O c. C d. H e. C

Use th

_ 23. What a. 1 b. 8 c. 10 d. 1 e. 16

_ 24. The a

magn a. M b. M c. M d. M e. M

_ 25. Van d

a. hy b. el c. m d. tw e. a

_ 26. A van

a. th b. th c. a d. a e. a

_ 27. Which a. a b. a c. an d. a e. A

do the four e They all have t Each element e They are equal They are eleme They all have u h of the follow H2





he figure belo

is the atomic

0 1 6 atomic numbe esium chlorid MgCl MgCl2




der Waals inte ybrid orbitals lectrons are n molecules held

wo polar cova hydrogen ato n der Waals in he electrons o he nucleus of polar molecu polar molecu nonpolar mo h of the follow

covalent bon van der Waal n ionic bond i hydrogen bon A and B only

elements most the same num exists in only l in electroneg ents produced unpaired elec wing molecul

ow to answer

c number of th

er of chlorine de?

eractions resu s overlap. not symmetric

d by ionic bon alent bonds re om loses an el nteraction is t of one molecu one molecule ule and a near ule and a near lecule and a n wing is not co nd

ls interaction in the presenc nd

t abundant in mber of valenc one isotopic gativity. d only by livin ctrons in their

les contains th

the following

he cation form

is 17. The ato

ult when

cally distribut nds react with eact.

lectron. the weak attra ule and the ele e and the elec rby nonpolar m rby molecule

nearby molec onsidered to b

ce of water

life-carbon, o ce electrons.


ng cells. valence shell he strongest p

g questions. .

med in the rea

omic number

ed in a molec h water.

action betwee ectrons of a ne ctrons of a nea

molecule. that is also po ule that is als be a weak mo

oxygen, hydr ls. polar covalen action? of magnesium cule. en earby molecu arby molecule olar. so nonpolar. olecular intera

ogen, and nitr

nt bond?

m is 12. Wha

ule. e.


rogen-have in

at is the formu

n common?


____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____

_ 28. An ex

a. C b. th c. N d. th e. M _ 29. What

a. A b. A c. A d. A e. C

_ 30. Which a. th b. th c. th d. th e. th _ 31. Why

a. T b. T c. Ic d. H m e. T _ 32. Recal dissoc bonde soluti (mole a. 0 b. 0 c. 1 d. 1 e. 1 Use th

_ 33. How (Carb a. 29 b. 30 c. 60

xample of a hy C and H in me

he H of one w Na+and Cl- in s he two hydrog Mg+and Cl- in

do cohesion, All increase w All are produc All are propert All have to do C and D only

h of the follow he amount of he amount of he amount of he amount of he amount of does ice float The liquid wat The ionic bond

ce always has Hydrogen bon molecules of li The crystalline ll that when so ciate into indi ed molecules on. Which of ecules or ions

.5 M NaCl .5 M glucose .0 M NaCl .0 M glucose .0 M MgCl2

he figure belo

many grams o bon = 12, Oxy

9 0 0

ydrogen bond ethane (CH4).

water molecule salt.

gen atoms in a MgCl2.

surface tensi hen temperatu ed by ionic b ties related to with nonpola

wing is a corr

heat required heat required heat required heat required heat required t in liquid wat ter molecules ds between th s air bubbles t ds stabilize an iquid water. e lattice of ice

odium chlorid ividual sodium

(e.g, glucose f the following


ow to answer

of the molecu ygen = 16, Hy

d is the bond b

e and the O o

a molecule of

ion, and adhe ure increases onding. hydrogen bo ar covalent bo

rect definition d to raise the t d to raise the t d to raise the t d to raise the t d to raise the t


have more ki he molecules i that keep it af nd keep the m

e causes it to b de (NaCl) is p m ions (Na+) , sucrose, gly g solutions w

the following

ule in the figu ydrogen = 1)


of another wat

f hydrogen ga

sion have in c .

onding. onds.

n of a kilocalo temperature o temperature o temperature o temperature o temperature o inetic energy in ice prevent float.

molecules of i

be denser than placed in wate and chloride ycerol) do not would be expe

g questions:

ure above wou

ter molecule.

as (H2).

common with


of 1 g of water of 1 g of water of 1 kg of wat of 1 kg of wat of 1,000 g of w

and thus supp t the ice from

ice farther apa

an liquid wate er the compon

ions (Cl-). In generally dis cted to contai

uld be equal t

h reference to

r by 1°F r by 1°C ter by 1°F ter by 1°C

water by 1°F

port the ice. m sinking.

art than the w


nent atoms of contrast, the ssociate when in the greates

to 1 mol of th

o water?


f the NaCl cry atoms of cov n placed in aq st concentratio

he molecule? ystal valently queous


____ ____ ____ ____ d. 15 e. 34 _ 34. A solu descri a. ac b. ba c. ac d. ba e. ne

_ 35. What a. pH b. pH c. pH d. pH e. pH _ 36. Which

a. T to b. T

to c. T d. T e. T

Use th

_ 37. Obser a. nu b. ty c. ar d. nu 50 42 ution contain ibes this solut cidic: H+ acce asic: H+ accep cidic: H+ don asic: H+ dono eutral

would be the H 2

H 4 H 10 H 12 H 14

h of the follow They maintain o them. They maintain o them. They maintain They maintain They are found

he figure belo

rve the structu umber of carb ypes of carbon rrangement o umber of oxy

s 0.0000001( tion? eptor ptor or or

e pH of a solu

wing stateme n a constant pH

n a constant pH

n a constant pH n a relatively c

d only in livin

ow to answer

ures of glucos bon, hydrogen n, hydrogen, a f carbon, hyd ygen atoms jo

10-7) moles o

ution with a hy

nts is true ab H when bases

H when acids

H of exactly 7 constant pH. ng systems an

the following

se and fructos n, and oxygen and oxygen a drogen, and ox

ined to carbo

f hydroxide i

ydroxide ion

out buffer sol s are added to

s are added to

7 in all living

nd biological

g question.

se. These two n atoms. atoms.

xygen atoms. n atoms by d

ions [OH-] per

[OH-] concen

lutions? o them but not

o them but not

g cells and bio


o molecules d

ouble covalen

r liter. Which

ntration of 10

t when acids

t when bases

ological fluids

differ in the

nt bonds.

h of the follow


are added

are added








e. an _ 38. Which a. ke b. ca c. ca d. ph e. hy

_ 39. Which a. A b. B c. C d. C e. no _ 40. In wh

a. A b. B c. C d. C e. no

Use th

_ 41. Which a. G b. G c. G d. G e. G

_ 42. Which a. G b. G c. G d. G e. G

Use th

nswers A, B, h two functio etone and ald arbonyl and c arboxyl and a hosphate and ydroxyl and a h of the struc A

B C C and E

one of the stru hich of the stru A


C, D, and E on one of the stru

he figure belo

h is a carbony Group A Group B Group C Group D Group E

h is an acidic Group A Group B Group C Group D Group E

he molecules

and C onal groups ar dehyde

carboxyl amino

sulfhydryl aldehyde

tures contain(

uctures uctures are th

nly uctures

ow to answer

yl functional g

functional gr

shown in the

re always foun

(s) a carboxyl

he atoms bond

the following


roup that can

figure below

nd in amino a

l functional g

ded by ionic b

g questions.

dissociate an

w to answer th




nd release H+

he following q

into a solutio








_ 43. Which a. M b. M c. M d. M e. M _ 44. Consi

would a. 57 b. 57 c. 57 d. A e. B

_ 45. The m

a. po b. po c. sa d. tr e. un

_ 46. The b

a. re b. ad c. fo d. fo e. bo _ 47. Upon

are pr a. 13 b. 55 c. 55 d. 55 e. 55

h molecule co Molecule A Molecule B Molecule C Molecule D Molecule E

ider a polysac d result in the

75 glucose m 75 water mol 76 glucose m A and B only B and C only molecule show

olysaccharide olypeptide. aturated fatty riacylglycerol nsaturated fat bonding of tw emoval of a w

ddition of a w ormation of an ormation of a

oth A and C n chemical ana

resent in this p 39

54 55 56 58

ontains an am

ccharide cons e production o molecules.

ecules. molecules.

wn in the figu


acid. l.

tty acid. o amino acid water molecul water molecul n ionic bond hydrogen bo

alysis, a partic protein?

mino functiona

isting of 576 of

ure below is a

molecules to e



cular protein

al group, but

glucose mole

o form a large

was found to

is not an amin

ecules. The to

er molecule re

o contain 556

no acid?

otal hydrolysi

equires which

amino acids.

is of the polys

h of the follow

How many p








Use th

_ 48. Which a. B b. B c. B d. B e. B _ 49. What

a. pe b. hy c. di d. io e. ph _ 50. Which a. hy b. no c. io d. hy e. pe

_ 51. The fi

he figure belo

h bond is clos Bond A Bond B Bond C Bond D Bond E

maintains the eptide bonds ydrogen bond isulfide bond onic bonds

hosphodiester h type of inte ydrophobic in onpolar coval onic bonds

ydrogen bond eptide bonds figure below s

ow to answer

sest to the N-t

e secondary s

ds s

r bonds eraction stabil

nteractions lent bonds


shows the

the following

terminus of th

structure of a

lizes the alpha

g questions.

he molecule?




a. b. 1-c. do d. e.

_ 52. The d

a. co b. hy c. io d. po e. va

-4 linkage of -4 linkage of ouble helical helix second pleated shee dots in the figu

ovalent bonds ydrogen bond onic bonds

olar covalent an der Waal f

the glucos the glucose structure of a dary structure et secondary s ure below bes

s ds

bonds forces

se monomers e monomers o a DNA molec e of a polypep structure of a

st illustrates t

of starch. of cellulose. cule. ptide.


____ 53. The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is –CH2-OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid

alanine is –CH3. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?

a. Serine would be in the interior, and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.

b. Alanine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.

c. Both serine and alanine would be in the interior of the globular protein. d. Both serine and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.

e. Both serine and alanine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein.

____ 54. Which of the following molecules are proteins. a. hemoglobin.

b. lipase c. collagen. d. actin

e. all the above are proteins

____ 55. Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

a. the reaction of two amino acids, forming a di-peptide with the release of water b. the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water c. the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water d. the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the utilization of water e. the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base




The fo more

_ 56. Which a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8 e. 12

_ 57. The a

a. li b. li c. li d. bo e. bo

following ques than once, or

h of the follow


advantage of l ght microscop ght microscop ght microscop oth A and B oth B and C

stions are bas r not at all.

wing molecul

light microsco py provides f py provides f py allows one

sed on the 15

les is an amin

opy over elec for higher mag for higher reso e to view dyn

molecules ill

no acid with a

tron microsco gnification th olving power namic process

lustrated belo

a hydrophobic

opy is that han electron m r than electron ses in living c

ow. Each mole

c R group or s

microscopy. n microscopy cells.

ecule may be

side chain?



____ 58. The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that

a. plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal cells. b. plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded) plasma membrane than animal


c. plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm. d. animal cells are more spherical, while plant cells are elongated.

e. the basic functions of plant cells are very different from those of animal cells. ____ 59. Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA include

a. ribosomes. b. mitochondria. c. chloroplasts. d. B and C only e. A, B, and C

____ 60. The chemical reactions involved in respiration are virtually identical between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. Where are the corresponding reactions likely to occur in prokaryotic respiration?

a. in the cytoplasm

b. on the inner mitochondrial membrane c. on the endoplasmic reticulum

d. on the plasma membrane e. on the nuclear envelope

____ 61. Cells can be described as having a cytoskeleton of internal structures that contribute to the shape, organization, and movement of the cell. All of the following are part of the cytoskeleton except

a. the nuclear envelope. b. microtubules. c. microfilaments. d. intermediate filaments. e. actin.

____ 62. Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules? a. cilia

b. centrioles c. flagella d. A and C only e. A, B, and C

____ 63. Cells would be unable to form cilia or flagella if they did not have a. centrosomes.

b. ribosomes. c. actin. d. A and B only e. A, B, and C

____ 64. Which of the following possesses a microtubular structure similar to a basal body? a. centriole


____ 65. Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their respective functions is not correct? a. cell wall: support, protection

b. chloroplasts: chief sites of cellular respiration c. chromosomes: genetic control information d. ribosomes: site of protein synthesis e. mitochondria: formation of ATP

____ 66. The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via

a. gap junctions. b. the nucleus. c. DNA and RNA. d. integrins. e. plasmodesmata.

____ 67. Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through a. plasmodesmata.

b. intermediate filaments. c. tight junctions.

d. desmosomes. e. gap junctions.

For the following questions, match the membrane model or description with the scientist(s) who proposed the model. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. H. Davson and J. Danielli

B. I. Langmuir

C. C. Overton

D. S. Singer and G. Nicolson E. E. Gorter and F. Grendel

____ 68. Membranes are a mosaic interaction of lipids and hydrophilic proteins. a. A






For th descri

_ 69. chole a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

_ 70. micro a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E _ 71. When

The b a. th b. w c. hy

fr d. th e. th _ 72. The la presen a. m b. in c. ch d. al e. no

he following q iption.

sterol A B C D E

ofilament of th A


n biological m best explanatio

he integral me water that is pr ydrophilic int reezing. he carbon-carb he hydrophob

ateral mobilit nce of: monosacchride

ntegral protein holestrol mol ll the above one of the abo

questions, ma

he cytoskeleto

membranes are on for this is t embrane prote resent in the m teractions bet

bon bonds of ic interaction ty (fluidity) of

es on the mem ns

ecule disperse


atch the labele


e frozen and t that

eins are not st middle of the tween the opp

f the phosphol ns that hold th f lipids in ani

mbrane surfac

ed through th

ed componen

then fractured

trong enough bilayer freez posite membra

lipid tails are he membrane imal cell mem


he bi-layer

t of the cell m

d, they tend to

h to hold the b zes and is easi ane surfaces a

easily broken together are w mbranes is enh

membrane in t

o break along

bilayer togeth ily fractured. are destroyed


weakest at thi hanced in col

the figure bel

g the middle o


d on

is point. d conditions b

low with its

of the bilayer.


____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____

_ 73. The su a. hy b. hy c. am d. co e. ex _ 74. When

phosp surfac a. pe b. ph c. ca d. in e. ch

_ 75. All of a. pr b. ac c. ho d. ce e. cy _ 76. What

a. la b. sm c. la d. io e. m

_ 77. The s

a. th b. th c. th d. A e. A

Use th

The s gluco filled


urface of an i ydrophilic. ydrophobic. mphipathic. ompletely cov xposed on on n a membrane pholipids. In a ce of the mem eripheral prot hospholipids. arbohydrates. ntegral protein

holesterol mo f the followin rotein synthes ctive transpor ormone recep ell adhesion. ytoskeleton at

kinds of mol arge and hydr mall and hydr arge polar onic

monosaccharid elective perm he type of tran he lipid bilaye he types of ca A and B only A, B, and C

he diagram of

olutions in th se but not to with 1 M suc

integral memb

vered with ph ly one surface e is freeze-fra

an electron m mbrane are


ns. olecules. ng are function

sis. rt. ption.

ttachment. lecules pass th

ophobic rophobic

des such as gl meability of bi nsport protein er being perm arbohydrates o

f the U-tube i

he two arms o sucrose. Side crose and 2 M

brane protein

hospholipids. e of the memb ctured, the bi micrograph of

ns of integral

hrough a cell

lucose iological mem ns that are pre meable to prim on the surface

in the figure b

f this U-tube e A is half fille

M glucose. Init

would be bes

brane. layer splits do a freeze-fract

membrane pr

membrane m

mbranes is dep esent in the m marily small, n

e of the memb

below to answ

are separated ed with a solu tially, the liqu

st described a

own the midd tured membra

roteins excep

most easily?

pendent on w membrane

nonpolar mole brane

wer the follow

d by a membr ution of 2 M s uid levels on b as

dle between th ane, the bump


which of the fo


wing questions

rane that is pe sucrose and 1 both sides are

he two layers ps seen on the



ermeable to w 1 M glucose. S

e equal.

s of e fractured


____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 78.Initia a. hy b. pl c. is d. sa e. hy _ 79. Celery salt so a. hy b. hy c. hy d. hy e. is Use th The s memb of 0.4 gluco

_ 80. At the a. si b. si c. si d. si e. si _ 81. All of a. fa b. ac c. N d. pr e. tr

_ 82. What a. w b. ch c. m d. os e. el

lly, in terms o ypotonic. lasmolyzed. sotonic. aturated.

ypertonic. y stalks that a olution becom ypotonic to b ypertonic to b ypertonic to f ypotonic to fr sotonic with f

he figure belo

olutions in th brane. The me 4 M glucose a

se and 0.4 M

e beginning o ide A is hyper ide A is hypot ide A is isoton ide A is hyper ide A is hypot f the followin acilitated diffu

ctive transpor Na+ ions movin

roton pumps. ranslocation o

is the voltage water potential

hemical gradi membrane pot smotic potent lectrochemica

of tonicity, th

are immersed me limp and s

oth fresh wat both fresh wa fresh water bu resh water bu fresh water bu

ow to answer

he arms of a U embrane is pe nd 0.5 M sod

sodium chlor

of the experim rtonic to side tonic to side B nic to side B. rtonic to side tonic to side B ng membrane fusion.


ng out of the

of potassium i e across a me l

ient ential tial al gradient

he solution in

in fresh wate oft. From this ter and the sal ater and the sa ut hypotonic t ut hypertonic t ut hypotonic t

the following

U-tube are sep ermeable to so dium chloride

ride. Initially,

ment, B. B.

B with respe B with respec

activities req


into a cell. mbrane calle

side A with r

er for several s we can dedu lt solution. alt solution.

to the salt solu to the salt solu to the salt solu

g questions.

parated at the odium chlorid

(NaCl), and s , the volume i

ct to glucose. ct to sodium c uire energy fr


respect to that

hours becom uce that the ce

ution. ution. ution.

bottom of the de but not to g side B is fille in both arms


chloride. from ATP hyd

t in side B is

me stiff and ha ells of the cel

e tube by a se glucose. Side ed with a solu is the same.

drolysis excep

ard. Similar st lery stalks are

electively perm e A is filled w ution containin


talks left in a e

meable with a solution

ng 0.8 M


____ 83. In most cells, there are electrochemical gradients of many ions across the plasma membrane even though there are usually only one or two electrogenic pumps present in the membrane. The gradients of the other ions are most likely accounted for by

a. cotransport proteins. b. ion channels. c. carrier proteins. d. B and C only e. A, B, and C

____ 84. White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process? a. exocytosis

b. phagocytosis c. pinocytosis d. osmosis

e. receptor-mediated exocytosis

____ 85. The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that

a. pinocytosis brings only water into the cell, but receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well.

b. pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma membrane whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the plasma membrane surface area.

c. pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis offers more selectivity.

d. pinocytosis requires cellular energy, but receptor-mediated endocytosis does not.

e. pinocytosis can concentrate substances from the extracellular fluid, but receptor-mediated endocytosis cannot.

____ 86. Which of the following statements correctly describe(s) catabolic pathways? a. They do not depend on enzymes.

b. They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers. c. They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers. d. They lead to the synthesis of catabolic compounds.

e. both A and B

____ 87. Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the a. free energy of the system.

b. free energy of the universe. c. entropy of the system. d. entropy of the universe. e. enthalpy of the universe.

____ 88. What is the change in free energy of a system at chemical equilibrium? a. slightly increasing

b. greatly increasing c. slightly decreasing d. greatly decreasing e. no net change


____ 89. Chemical equilibrium is relatively rare in living cells. Which of the following could be an example of a reaction at chemical equilibrium in a cell?

a. a reaction in which the free energy at equilibrium is higher than the energy content at any point away from equilibrium

b. a chemical reaction in which the entropy change in the reaction is just balanced by an opposite entropy change in the cell's surroundings

c. an endergonic reaction in an active metabolic pathway where the energy for that reaction is supplied only by heat from the environment

d. a chemical reaction in which both the reactants and products are only used in a metabolic pathway that is completely inactive

e. There is no possibility of having chemical equilibrium in any living cell. ____ 90. How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

a. Increase the activation energy needed. b. Cool the reactants.

c. Decrease the concentration of the reactants. d. Add a catalyst.

e. Increase the entropy of the reactants.

____ 91. Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's

a. entropy.

b. activation energy. c. endothermic level. d. heat content. e. free-energy content.

____ 92. Which of the following is not true of enzymes?

a. Enzyme catalysis is dependent on the pH and temperature of the reaction environment. b. Enzyme catalysis is dependent on the three-dimensional structure or conformation of the


c. Enzymes provide activation energy for the reaction they catalyze.

d. Enzymes are composed primarily of protein, but they may bind nonprotein cofactors. e. Enzyme activity can be inhibited if the enzyme's allosteric site is bound with a





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____ 99. Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis?

a. 0% b. 2% c. 10% d. 38% e. 100%

____ 100. In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis? a. CO2 and H2O

b. CO2 and pyruvate

c. NADH and pyruvate d. CO2 and NADH

e. H2O, FADH2, and citrate

____ 101. Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location? a. cytosol

b. mitochondrial outer membrane c. mitochondrial inner membrane d. mitochondrial intermembrane space e. mitochondrial matrix

____ 102. A major function of the mitochondrial inner membrane is the conversion of energy from electrons to the stored energy of the phosphate bond in ATP. To accomplish this function, the inner mitochondrial membrane must have all of the following features except

a. carrier proteins to accept electrons from NADH. b. integral, transverse ATP synthase.

c. proton pumps embedded in the membrane. d. the electron transport chain of proteins. e. high permeability to protons.

____ 103. The primary function of the mitochondrion is the production of ATP. To carry out this function, the mitochondrion must have all of the following except

a. the membrane-bound electron transport chain carrier molecules. b. proton pumps embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. c. enzymes for glycolysis.

d. enzymes for the citric acid cycle. e. mitochondrial ATP synthase.

____ 104. Which process could be compared to how rushing steam turns a water wheel? a. the citric acid cycle

b. ATP synthase activity

c. formation of NADH in glycolysis d. oxidative phosphorylation e. the electron transport system

____ 105. Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of two molecules of glucose (C6H12O6) in cellular respiration?


____ 106. In alcohol fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH during the a. reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol).

b. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA. c. reduction of pyruvate to form lactate. d. oxidation of NAD+ in the citric acid cycle. e. phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP.

____ 107. Phosphofructokinase is an important control enzyme in the regulation of cellular respiration. Which of the following statements concerning phosphofructokinase is not true?

a. It is activated by AMP (derived from ADP). b. It is inhibited by ATP.

c. It is activated by citrate, an intermediate of the citric acid cycle.

d. It specifically catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, an early step of glycolysis.

e. It is an allosteric enzyme.

____ 108. Phosphofructokinase is an allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of 6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, an early step of glycolysis. In the presence of oxygen, an increase in the amount ATP in a cell would be expected to

a. inhibit the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. b. activate the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. c. inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. d. activate the enzyme and increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.

e. inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rate of glycolysis and the concentration of citrate.

____ 109. The reaction-center chlorophyll of photosystem I is known as P700 because a. there are 700 chlorophyll molecules in the center.

b. this pigment is best at absorbing light with a wavelength of 700 nm. c. there are 700 photosystem I components to each chloroplast. d. it absorbs 700 photons per microsecond.

e. the plastoquinone reflects light with a wavelength of 700 nm.

____ 110. Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be

a. to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts. b. to test for liberation of O2 in the light.

c. to test for CO2 fixation in the dark.

d. to do experiments to generate an action spectrum. e. to test for production of either sucrose or starch. ____ 111. What are the products of noncyclic photophosphorylation?

a. heat and fluorescence b. ATP and P700 c. ATP and NADPH d. ADP and NADP e. P700 and P680

____ 112. Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes?

a. the splitting of water

b. the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

c. the flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I d. the synthesis of ATP


Refer to the choices to answer the following questions. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Indicate whether the following events occur during

A. photosynthesis B. respiration

C. both photosynthesis and respiration D. neither photosynthesis nor respiration

____ 113. reduction of oxygen which forms water a. A

b. B c. C d. D

____ 114. reduction of NADP+ a. A

b. B c. C d. D

For the following questions, compare the light reactions with the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis in plants. Use the following key:

A. light reactions alone B. the Calvin cycle alone

C. both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle

E. occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

____ 115. produces NADH a. A

b. B c. C d. D e. E

____ 116. Which of the following is (are) true of the enzyme ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase? a. It participates in the Calvin cycle.

b. It catalyzes a phosphorylation reaction. c. It has an affinity for both O2 and CO2.






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____ 128. Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle was the nucleus with 6 picograms of DNA?

a. G0

b. G1

c. S d. G2

e. M

____ 129. A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have ____ picograms at the end of the S phase and ____ picograms at the end of G2.

a. 8; 8 b. 8; 16 c. 16; 8 d. 16; 16 e. 12; 16

The following questions consist of five phrases or sentences related to the control of cell division. For each one, select the term below that is most closely related to it. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.


C. protein kinase

D. cyclin E. Cdk

____ 130. Fibroblasts have receptors for this substance on their plasma membranes. a. A

b. B c. C d. D e. E

____ 131. An enzyme that attaches a phosphate group to another molecule is called a a. phosphatase.

b. phosphorylase. c. kinase.

d. cyclase. e. ATPase.

____ 132. Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called


____ 133. A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

a. The cell would prematurely enter anaphase. b. The cell would never leave metaphase. c. The cell would never enter metaphase. d. The cell would never enter prophase.

e. The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.

____ 134. Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

a. They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture. b. When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle. c. They are not subject to cell cycle controls.

d. B and C only e. A, B, and C

____ 135. For a couple of decades, biologists knew the nucleus contained DNA and proteins. The prevailing opinion was that the genetic material was proteins, and not DNA. The reason for this belief was that proteins are more complex than DNA. This is because

a. proteins have a greater variety of three-dimensional forms than does DNA. b. proteins have two different levels of structural organization; DNA has four. c. proteins are made of 20 amino acids and DNA is made of four nucleotides. d. Only A and C are correct.

e. A, B, and C are correct.

____ 136. In his transformation experiments, Griffith observed that a. mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections.

b. mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.

c. mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.

d. infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.

e. mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.

____ 137. All of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA

except the

a. diameter of the helix. b. helical shape of DNA. c. sequence of nucleotides.

d. spacing of the nitrogenous bases along the helix. e. number of strands in a helix.

____ 138. Suppose one were provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine had been added. What would happen if a cell replicated once in the presence of this radioactive base?

a. One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA. b. Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive.

c. All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive.






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____ 143. Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are hypersensitive to sunlight because their cells have an impaired ability to

a. replicate DNA. b. undergo mitosis.

c. exchange DNA with other cells. d. repair thymine dimers.

e. recombine homologous chromosomes during meiosis. ____ 144. A eukaryotic cell lacking telomerase would

a. have a high probability of becoming cancerous. b. produce Okazaki fragments.

c. be unable to repair thymine dimers.

d. undergo a reduction in chromosome length. e. be highly sensitive to sunlight.

____ 145. Which of the following statements about telomeres is correct? a. They contain multiple copies of a short RNA sequence. b. They are present at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. c. They can be extended by an enzyme called telomerase. d. both A and B

e. both B and C

____ 146. Important abiotic factors in ecosystems include which of the following? a. temperature

b. water c. wind d. A and C only e. A, B, and C

____ 147. Landscape ecology is best described as the study of a. the array of interacting species within a community.

b. abiotic factors and the community of species that exist in a particular area. c. related arrays of ecosystems.

d. physiological and behavioral ways in which organisms meet the challenges of their environment.

e. the factors affecting the abundance of single species.

____ 148. Which of the following is not an abiotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities?

a. precipitation, wind b. nutrient availability, soil pH c. predation, competition d. temperature, water e. light intensity, seasonality

____ 149. Which of the following statements about light in aquatic environments is (are) correct?

a. Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light. b. Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light.

c. Light intensity is an important abiotic factor in limiting the distribution of photosynthetic organisms.

d. A and C only


____ 150. Westerly winds in temperate zones are the result of a. descending air masses flowing toward the poles. b. the rotation of Earth.

c. the unequal speed of land moving through space at the equator and the poles. d. A and B only

e. A, B, and C

____ 151. Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude or at different latitudes in the interior of continents. This supports the idea that

a. descending air masses tend to be dry. b. trade winds have a little moisture.

c. water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land. d. ascending air tends to be moist.

e. these locations get more than their share of sunlight.

____ 152. Thorough mixing of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall turnovers is made possible by which of the following?

a. warm water layered at the top b. cold water layered at the bottom

c. a pronounced thermocline under the surface d. changing water temperature profiles

e. currents generated by nektonic animals

____ 153. Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)? a. pelagic

b. abyssal c. neritic

d. continental shelf e. intertidal

____ 154. Within any given type of terrestrial biome a. species composition is typically uniform. b. there is little or no vertical stratification. c. periodic disturbance is rare.

d. A and B only

e. None of the above is true.

____ 155. You are observing a population of lizards when you notice that the number of adults has increased and is higher than previously observed. One explanation for such an observation would include






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____ 167. Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, in which population is employment likely to be plentiful or stable in the future?

a. I b. II c. III

d. No differences in the magnitude of future employment would be expected among these populations.

e. It is not possible to infer anything about future social conditions from age-structure diagrams.

____ 168. Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, which population is likely to experience zero population growth (ZPG)?

a. I b. II c. III d. I and II e. II and III

____ 169. Which of the following is not used in calculating an ecological footprint? a. arable land

b. pasture and forest lands c. fossil energy land

d. demographically transitional land e. built-up land

____ 170. All of the following have contributed to the growth of the human population except

a. environmental degradation. b. improved nutrition.

c. vaccines. d. pesticides.

e. improved sanitation.

____ 171. The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its a. habitat.

b. logistic growth. c. biotic potential. d. microclimax. e. ecological niche.

____ 172. A species of fish is found to require a certain water temperature, a particular oxygen content of the water, a particular depth, and a rocky substrate on the bottom to thrive. These requirements are part of its

a. dimensional profile. b. ecological niche. c. prime habitat. d. resource partition. e. home base.

____ 173. Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between a. sympatric populations of a predator and its prey.

b. sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.

c. sympatric populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect pollinator. d. allopatric populations of the same animal species.


____ 174. An insect that has evolved to resemble a plant twig will probably be able to avoid a. parasitism.

b. symbiosis. c. predation. d. competition. e. commensalism.

____ 175. All of the following represent ways that animals defend themselves against predators except

a. incorporating plant toxins into their tissues. b. cryptic coloration.

c. mobbing.

d. interspecific competition. e. hiding or fleeing.

____ 176. The species richness of a community refers to the a. number of food chains.

b. number of different species. c. energy content of all species.

d. relative numbers of individuals in each species. e. total number of all organisms.

____ 177. To measure species diversity in a community, you need to know a. the number of species.

b. the relative abundance of each species. c. the physical size of each species. d. both A and B

e. A, B, and C

____ 178. With a few exceptions, most of the food chains studied by ecologists have a maximum of how many links? a. 2

b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 e. 15

____ 179. When lichens grow on bare rock, they may eventually accumulate enough organic material around them to supply the foothold for later rooted vegetation. These early pioneering lichens can be said to do what to the later arrivals?

a. tolerate b. inhibit c. facilitate d. exclude e. concentrate

____ 180. In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field. By the second season, a single species dominated the field. A possible factor in this secondary succession was


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____ 185. Which of the following statements is most consistent with F.E. Clements' integrated hypothesis? a. Species are distributed independently of other species.

b. Communities lack discrete geographic boundaries. c. The community functions as an interactive unit.

d. The composition of plant species seems to change on a continuum. e. The community is a chance assemblage of species.

____ 186. What is the fundamental difference between matter and energy? a. Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not.

b. Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not.

c. Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy. d. Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted into matter. e. Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not

____ 187. Production, consumption, and decomposition are important ecosystem processes. Which of the following could be decomposers?

a. bacteria b. vertebrates c. invertebrates d. A and C only e. A, B, and C

____ 188. Aquatic ecosystems are unlikely to be limited by insufficient a. nitrogen.

b. carbon. c. phosphorus. d. iron.

e. sodium.

The following questions refer to the organisms in a grassland ecosystem listed below. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. hawks B. snakes C. shrews D. grasshoppers E. grass

____ 189. tertiary consumer a. A

b. B c. C d. D e. E

____ 190. probably contains the highest concentration of toxic pollutants (biological magnification) a. A

b. B c. C d. D e. E


____ 191. Which of the following most directly relates to the current biodiversity crisis? a. increased atmospheric carbon dioxide

b. ozone depletion

c. overexploitation of species d. habitat destruction e. zoned reserves

____ 192. How is habitat fragmentation related to extinction? a. Less carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants. b. More soil is subject to erosion.

c. Populations of organisms in fragments are smaller and, thus, more susceptible to extinction.

d. Animals are forced out of habitat fragments.

e. Fragments generate silt that negatively affects drainages.

____ 193. Which of the following is not an example of an introduced species? a. brown tree snakes in Guam

b. timber wolves in Minnesota c. zebra mussels in the Great Lakes

d. kudzu plants in the southern United States e. starlings in New York

____ 194. Introduced species

a. are a problem because they can prey on or outcompete native species. b. are sometimes present as a result of attempts at biological control. c. are sometimes accidentally transported to new environments. d. A and B only

e. A, B, and C

____ 195. According to the small-population approach, what would be the best strategy for saving a population that is in an extinction vortex?

a. determining the minimum viable population size by taking into account the effective population size

b. establishing a nature reserve to protect its habitat

c. introducing individuals from other populations to increase genetic variation d. determining and remedying the cause of its decline

e. reducing the population size of its predators and competitors

____ 196. One chief area of concern among biologists who use the small-population approach is a. intraspecific competition.

b. sexual selection. c. genetic diversity. d. runaway selection. e. both A and D

____ 197. If the sex ratio in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then which of the following will always be true?

a. The population will enter the extinction vortex.


figure beloww to answer th he following q
figure beloww to answer th he following q. View in document p.7
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figure below sshows the . View in document p.9



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