Objective Type Questions(800)Document (2)(1)

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Objective Type Questions

Q 1 First hijacking reported in the history of civil aviation in the world

(a)B N Kirpal Singh committee (b) B D Pandey committee (c) R P Singh Committee (d) Arun mishra committee Q 4. Deployment of CISF is a result of ………

a) IC814 hijack b) Kaniska incident

c) First hijack d) none of these

Q 5. Deployment of Sky marshals is a result of ………

a) IC814 hijack b) Kaniska incident

c) First hijack d) none of these

Q 6 Ramamrithan committee formed at …..

a) 1979 b)1980

c) 1981 d)1982

Q 7 When was CISF inducted at airports?

a) 3 Feb’2000 b) 31 Dec’1999

c) 10 March 2000 d) 3 Feb’2001

Q 8 To provide Training on aviation security is the responsibility of ?

a) CASO b) BCAS

c) APD d) AAI

Q 9 Appropriate authority on Safety in India?

a) ICAO b) Commander of concerned airports

c) BCAS d) DGCA

Q 10 Which action is not related after Kandhar hijacking…? a) Deployment of sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF

c) PEC d) SLPC

Q 11 In which year the first convention formed?

a) 1937 b) 1944

c) 1947 d) 1934

Q12 How many conventions are there ?

a) One b) Four c) Five d) Eight

Q 13 Which one is the Standard Practice?

a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d) SSLC

Q14. Which one is the Recommended Practice?

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Q 15. The explosion at Chennai airport took place in the year

a) 2 Aug 1984 b) 2 Aug 1982

c) 24 Dec 1999 d) 11 Sep 2001

Q 16 Allocation of bays is the duties of? a) Apron control b) CISF

c) Airline d) None of these

Q 17 Which does not include in "the Act of Unlawful Interference"?

a) Hijacking b) Sabotage

c) Disruption of communication facility d) pilferage

Q 18 A Corridor above/below ground level to connect aircraft stands to the passenger building is

a) Pier b) Ramp

c) Rampage area d) Airside waiting area

Q 19 The large no. of aircraft hijacking took place in the year………..at………? a) 1969, Canada b) 1973, London

c) 1931, Lobonan d) 1969, Cuba

Q20 The area between any pax inspection or screening control point and aircraft in which access is controlled

a) Airside b) Land side

c) Security hold area d) Sterile area Q21 How many hijackings reported yet in India

a) 15 b) 13 c) 14 d) 12

Q22. Second hijacking reported in India in the year of

a) 1976 b) 1931 c) 1971 d) 1944 Q23 Aircraft Rule was framed in India in the year of

a) 1934 b) 1937 c) 1963 d) 1944 Q24. Which airline was connected in Kanishka incident

a) Air India b) Indian Airlines c) Jet Airways d) Kingfisher Airlines Q25. Hijacking of IC 814 was related with which incident

a) Kanishka Incident b) Kandhar incident c) Lokerbie Incident d) None of the above Q26. 11 September 2001 is related with which incident

a) Demolition of twin tower b) Kanishka Incident c) Kandhar incident d) Lokerbie Incident Q27. An area used for landing/takeoff the aircraft is

a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Movement Area d) Apron Q28 An area used for taxing the aircraft is

a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Movement Area d) Apron Q29 The Definition of Hijacking is defined in

a) Article 3 of hijacking act 1982 b) Indian Penal Code

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Q30 The duties of Pilot in command is defined in

a) Rule 90 b) rule 156 c) Rule 141 d) Rule 24 Q31 The term Aircraft in Service is defined in

a) Chicago Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) Montreal Convention d) All of the above Q32. The Anti Hijacking act 1982 gives legal back up to a) Chicago Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) Hague Convention d) All of the above

Q33 The section of aircraft act 1934 related to Empowers the COSCA to issue direction for security of aircraft operation.

a) Section 5 b) Section 5A c) Section 8 d) None of the above Q34 The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Security check of persons boarding aircraft.

a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 24 d) None of the above Q35 The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Entry into public aerodromes

a) Rule 8 b) Rule 90 c) Rule 24 A d) None of the above Q36 The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Duties of pilot in command

a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 141 d) None of the above Q37. Entry in to the public aerodrome is defined in

a) Rule 78 of aircraft act 1937 b) Rule 90 of aircraft rule 1937 c) Rule 24 c of aircraft rule 1937

Q38. CASO stands for

a) Chief Airport Security Officer b) Chief Aviation Security Officer c) Commissioner of Airport Security Officer d) None of the above

Q39. Tokyo convention was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963

Q40. Hague convention was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963 Q41 Montreal convention was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963

Q42. Montreal protocol was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1988 d) 1963

Q43 Tokyo convention related with a) Establishment of ICAO

b) Pilot in command is the law enforcement agency on board aircraft c) Define what is hijacking

d) None of the above

Q44. Hague convention related with a) Establishment of ICAO

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Q45. Montreal convention related with a) Establishment of ICAO

d) Suppression of unlawful act against safety of civil aviation

Q46. Cancellation, suspension or endorsement of licences and certificates of aircraft comes under which aircraft Rule.

a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78 Q47. Prohibition of intoxicated persons entering aircraft comes under which rule a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78 Q48. Carriage of persons suffering from mental disorders comes under which rule a) 24A b) 25 c) 19 d) 78 Q49. Entry into public aerodrome

a) 24 b) 90 c) 19 d) 78 Q50. COSCA stands for:

a) Commissioner Of Security Civil Aviation b) Committee On Security Civil Aviation c) Both a & b

d) None of these Q51. ASG stands for:

a) Anti Sabotage Group b) Aviation Security Group c) Anti Sabotage Gadget d) None of these

Q52 ICAO came into existence in which of the following year:

a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1944 d) 1963

Q53. Which of the following Lights used for safe landing of the aircraft :

a) PAPI b) PAPA AGNIS c) PAPPI d) None of these

Q54 PTI in aviation security stands for :

a) Positive Target Identification b) Positive Trainee Identification

c) Press Trust of India d) All the above

Q55. PETN stands for :

a) Penta Erithrotol Tetra Nitrate b) Poly Ethyle Tri Nitrate

c) Both a& b d) None of these

Q56. A status of alert, put in place by _________________to activate an intervention plan intended to counter the possible consequences arising from a communicated threat, anonymous or otherwise, or arising from the discovery of a suspect device or other suspect item on an aircraft, at an airport or in any civil aviation facilities.

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c) Appropriate Authority d) BCAS

Q57 B D Pandey committee was constituted after which incident:

a) Second hijacking in India b) First hijacking in India c) After Kaniska Incident d) After IC 814 hijacking Q58 DCAS in India was formed in

a) 1979 b) 1978 c) 1980 d) None of these

Q59 Air India aircraft Kanishka was sabotaged in the year:

a) 1985 b) 1988 c) 1986 d) 198

Q60 Which Committee recommended for dummy checks and exempted category list a) Ramamitran committee b) B N Kirpal committee

c) Pandey committee d) None of these

Q61 Annex -17 came into existence on which of the following dates

a) 22.03.1974 b) 22.03.1975

c) 03.03.1974 d) None of these

Q62 Anti hijacking Act 1982 was amended in the year

a) 1994 b) 1993 c) 1992 d) 1990

Q63 Which of the following are legal back up for Civil Aviation in India a) Tokyo Convention Act 1975

b) Anti – Hijacking Act 1982 as amended in 1994

c) Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation Act 1982 as amended in 1994 d) All the above

Q64 Which Annexure contains the SARP on Aviation Security

a) Annexure 15 b) Annexure 16

c) Annexure 17 d) Annexure 18

Q65 Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP

a) CASO b) ICAO c) COSCA d) IATA

Q66 Which Convention included offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft a) Tokyo Convention b) The Hague Convention

c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol

Q67 Which Convention addressed the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft a) Tokyo Convention b) Chicago Convention

c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Convention

Q68 Which convention has reference to Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation

a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol

Q69 Which Convention introduced new concept of Aircraft-in-Service a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention

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Q70 “Appropriate Authority is responsible for development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP” comes under the subject head of which of the following

a) Recommended Practice b) standard Practice

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

Q71 What is the need of Marking of Plastic Explosives by every contracting state of ICAO a) For the Purpose of Detection b) For the Purpose of Marketing

c) For the Purpose of Supplying d) For purpose of knowing the make of the explosive. Q72 Which Convention for the first time defined the act of unlawful seizure of aircraft as an

Offence.

a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol

Q73 Which Convention mentioned that the Pilot is Law Enforcement Officer in the Flight a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention

c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol Q74 Appropriate Authority in India is responsible for

a) Development of NCASP b) Implementation of NCASP c) Maintenance of NCASP d) All the above

Q75 In which section of Aircraft Act 1934, COSCA has been empowered to Issue Directions on Civil Aviation security matters in India

a)Section 5 A of Aircraft Act 1934 b)Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934 c)Section 9 A of Aircraft Act 1934 d) Section 8 A of Aircraft Act 1934 Q76 Section 8 C of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

a) Prohibition of Smoking in the Aircraft b) Inspection of the Aircraft c) Security and Safety of unclaimed baggage d) None of the above Q77 Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

a) Penalty for failure to comply with Direction issued under Section 5 A b) Power to Issue Directions

c) Central Government can make Rules under this Act d) Penal Provisions

Q78 Rule 8 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Operators to have access b) Aerodrome Manual

c) Carriage of Arms, Explosives & Dangerous Goods d) Passenger Service Fees Q79 Rule 24 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft

b) Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft c) Prohibition of intoxicated person entering aircraft

d) Cancellation, Suspension of Certificate of Carriers Q80 Rule 24 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Provision for Carriage of person suffering from mental disorder b) Provision for Carriage of Prisoners in Aircraft

c) Prohibition of intoxicated person entering aircraft d) None of the above

Q81 Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rule 1937. a) Rule 24 A b) Rule 24 c) Rule 24 B d) Rule 24 C

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Q82 Rule 77 C of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Power of Enquiry Officer b) Passenger service fees c) Investigation of an Incident d) Notification of Incidents Q83 Rule 78 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Entry into public Aerodromes b) User deployment fees

c) Aerodrome manual d) Passenger Service fees

Q84 Prohibition on slaughtering of animals in the vicinity of Airport is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937

a) Rule 156 b) Rule 77 D c) Rule 91 d) Rule 155 A Q85 Inspection of Aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937

a) Rule 156 b) Rule 161 c) Rule 78 A d) Rule 135 A Q86 Terminal building comes under

a) Landside b) Airside c) Operational area d) Both (a) & (b). Q87 Annexure 17 deals with

a) Aviation safety b) Aviation security c) Airport manual d) Aircraft manual Q88 NCASQCP deals with

a) Civil aviation security b) Safety c) PAX d) Aircraft Q89 First recorded hijacking took place at

a) Delhi b) Peru c) Viet nam d) Chicago

Q90. Aircraft act come into …….. in the year

a) 1932 b) 1933 c) 1934 d) 1935

Q91 Aircraft Rule came into existence in the year.

a) 1934 b) 1935 c) 1936 d) 1937

Q92 Which section of Aircraft Act empowers DGCA to frame rule.

a) Sec – 5 b) Sec – 5(a) c) Sec – 5(b) d) Sec – 5(c)

Q93. Safety & security of unclaimed baggage is described in which security of Aircraft Act 1934.

a) Sec – 05 b) Sec -6 c) Sec -8(C) d) Sec -9 Q94 Provision of carriage of prohibited items is described in which rule.

a) Rule – 8 b) Rule – 8a c) Rule – 8b d) Rule – 8c

Q95 In what quantity ammunition with pistol is permitted in hand baggage SPG personnel. a) 50 rounds b) 60 rounds c) 100 rounds d) 120 rounds

Q96. Entry into domestic airdrome is mentioned in which aircraft rule a) Rule- 78 b) Rule- 81 c) Rule – 85 d) Rule – 90

Q97 Guarding of deportee /inadmissible pax at refusal room is responsibility of a) ASG b) Airlines c) Airport operator d) Local police Q98. Provision of carriage of bird & reptiles into aircraft is given in

a) Rule – 24 b) Rule – 24a c) Rule – 24b d) Rule – 24c Q99. Provision of carriage of prisoner in the aircraft is mentioned in

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a) Rule 24 b) Rule 24(A) c) Rule 24 (B) d) Rule 24(C) Q100 Airport is mainly divided

into-a) Landside b) Airside c) Landside and airside d) Public place Q101 Airport include

a) Movement area b) Maneuvering area c) None of the above d)Both (a) & (b) Q102 What is movement area

a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Apron d) All of the above Q103. What is maneuvering area

a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Apron d) Both (a) & (b) Q104 BMA is located in which part of the airport

a) Landside b) Airside c) Departure side of T.B d) Arrival side

Q105 Combination of measures, human and material resources, intended to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference is

(a) Security (b) Safety (c) Screening (d) Profiling

Q106 Categorizing pax into threathing & non-threating category by way of systematic observation is (a) Screening (b) Security (c) Profiling (d) Safety

Q107 When a pax checks-in and collects the boarding pass but does not board the aircraft is (a) Gate no show pax (b) Off-loaded pax (c) Tansit pax (d) Tansfer pax Q108. Hijacking is –

(a) Hostage taking on aircraft (b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight (c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground (d) Hostage taking at airport

Q109 In an airport, Apron area is within

(a) T.B (b) Airside (c) ATS (d) Fuel Storage

Q110 The area of an airport and building to which both traveling pax and the non-traveling public have unrestricted access is known as …….

(a) Apron (b) Airside (c) T.B. (d) Landside

Q111 The main aim of aviation security is .

(a) Safeguarding civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference (b) Detect crime

(c) Check drug trafficking (d) To maintain law & order .

Q112 First Hijacking in India took place?

a) 30th January 1971 b) 24th February 1951 c) 30th January 1931 d) Not yet

Q113 Which step is not taken after Kandhar Hijacking a) Locked cockpit door

b) Deployment of sky marshal

c) Revised contingency plan d) Security of BMA

Q114 Which is not Emerging threat to civil aviation

a) Use of an aircraft as a missile for mass destruction b) Cyber attack

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c) Hijacking

d) Biological and chemical war

Q115 What are the major threats to civil aviation a) Hijacking

b) Sabotage at airport

c) Sabotage at air navigation facilities d) All of the above

Q116 How many Standard and Recommended Practices are in Annexure – 17, at present ? a. 95 Standard and 25 Recommended Practices

b. 90 Standard and 35 Recommended Practices c. 66 Standard and 18 Recommended Practices d. 85 Standard and 15 Recommended Practices Q117 Head Quarters of ICAO is located at

a) Geneva, Switzerland b) New Delhi, India

c) Montreal, Canada d) Chicago, USA Q118 The Anti Hijacking Act came into existence in the year?

a)1982 b)1987

c) 1944 d)1999

Q119 Which Section of Aircraft Act 1934 empowers Central Government to make Rules under this Act.

a)Section 5

b)Section 5 A c)Section 10 d)Section 18

Q120 Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the ________________________and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions

a) Passengers

b) Aircraft d) Ec) Airportnvironment

Q121 Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft is referred in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937

a)Rule 24 C b)Rule 24 A

c)Rule 24 B d)Rule 24 Q122 Who is the president of ICAO

a) Wan ki Moon b) Barrack Obama

c) Mr Roberto Kobeh González d) John Maccem.

Q123 According to which convention the pilot has been given power of law enforcement officer ? a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Hauge convention 1970

c) Tokyo convention 1963 d) a & c Q124 Baggage Reconciliation is the duty of ?

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a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airlines

Q125 What is the color of the sticker for cooling off cargo?

a) Red b) Orange

c) Purple d) green

Q126 What is the color of the sticker for X-BIS screening of cargo?

a) Red b) Orange

c) Purple d) green

Q127 Security of Cargo is related to?

a) Airport Operator b) Airlines & Regulated agent

c) APSU d) All

Q128 AEP are issued by ……..

a) BCAS b) AAI

c) APSU d) NONE OF THESE

Q129 SLPC is practice ?

a) Recommended practice b) Standard Practice

c) a & b c) None of these

Q130 Apron guarding is a duty of ….

a) ASG b) AIRLINE

c) BCAS d) AAI

Q131 Guarding is being done for ……

a) Psychological deterrent b) is to protect the vulnerable points c) physical deterrent d) all

Q132 Which one is not the aim of terrorists?

a) Publicity b) Discredit the govt.

c) Broaden the base d) to pose as a VIP at airport Q133 Security of Parked Aircraft is done by.

a) CISF b) AIRLINE

c) BCAS d) AAI

Q134. What was the main result of Chicago Convention? a) Formation of ICAO b) Formation of IATA c) Formation of IAEA d) a & b

Q135 The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline

a) CISF b) immigration

c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI

Q136 Vehicle should be searched for

a) Narcotics b) Contraband items

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Q137 Explain BIPPS

a) Barometric integrated passenger permit system b) Biometric integrated passenger profiling system c) Bomb intelligence pick & parcel squad

d) Biometric integrated passenger permit system Q138 What do you mean by STP

a) Satellite test programme b) Standardise training package c) Screeners test package d) Security training programme Q139. IGI Airport falls under which category?

a) Sensitive b) Normal

c) Hypersensitive d) Red alert airport Q140 Which is not the duty of Airline Security?

a) Hand baggage screening b) Registered screening c) Surveillance at BMA d) Reconciliation

Q141 Access point should contain?

a) RT set & communication facility b) Radio for entertainment c) Magazine to read & relax d) News papers for latest news Q142 Which is not a duty of BCAS?

a) Planning b) Monitoring

c) Guiding d) Training

Q143 J & K Airport falls under which category?

a) Sensitive b) Normal

c) Hypersensitive d) Red alert airport

Q144 Operational control on ASG is the duty of..

a) Airport operator b) BCAS

c) Local Police d) CISF

Q145 Protection of employees & airport is the responsibility of?

a) ASG b) NSG

c) CISF d) Local Police

Q146 Hijacking mock drill is done by………..?

a) QRT b) ASG

c) NSG d) All the above

Q147 The duty of QRT is ?

a) To avoid the take off of hijacked flight b) To prevent intrusion c) Quick response at the time of crisis d) All the above

Q148 The transponder code for Hijacking?

a) 7500 b) 7000

c) 1500 d) 2000

Q149 Airport entry permit does not contain ?

a) Photo b) Name of Pass holder

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Q150 Who give 3 degree angle for landing of flight?

a) ILS b) Localizer

c) Glide path d) Outer marker

Q151 Which color ADP is required to drive the vehicle in all area?

a) Red b) Green

c) Blue d) None of these

Q152 What do you mean by APSU

a) Airport Security Unit b) Airport Sterile Unit c) Airport Security Union d) Airport Safety Unit Q153 Head of ASG at a particular Airport?

a) CASO b) BCAS

c) COSCA d) APD

Q154 While receiving bomb threat call what will be the first action? a) Asking technical question b) intimating to supervisor c) Intimating to APD d) intimating to CASO

Q155 Check-in passenger not reported to board means that person is? a) Cancelled passenger b) Deportee

c) Gate no show d) Transit passenger

Q156 Aircraft security is concerned with?

a) APSU b) APD

c) CASO d) Airline security

Q157 To cross the runway at non-operational time?

a) Require permission from ATC b) permission not required c) Permission from CASO d) a & c

Q158 CTX stands for?

a) Complex topographic X-Ray b) Crystal trace X-Ray

c) Computerized tomography X-Ray d) Computerized telescopic X-Ray Q159 What do you mean by BCAS

a) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Security b) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Safety c) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security d) Bureau of Central aviation Security Q160 Which color pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports?

a) orange & orange C b) purple c) green d) blue

Q161 Which rule belongs to power of pre-embarkation check.

a) Rule 8B of Aircraft Rule 1937 b) Rule 8A of Aircraft Rule 1937 b) Section 8B Aircraft Rule 1937 d) Section 10A Aircraft Rule 1937 Q162 Blue color pass holder can enter in ?

a) All area except SHA b) All areas

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Q163 The baggage not carried on the same aircraft the pax travels is called a) Unclaimed baggage b) Unidentified baggage

c) Transfer baggage d) Unaccompanied baggage Q164 When you should man access control points

a) Only manned during daylight b) Only manned at night c) Manned at all times d) Whenever required Q165 Access Control point should contain?

a) Barrier and Gates b) Only Barriers

c) Only Gates d) Nothing

Q166 Every vehicle, which is running in operational area a) Need to have light or flag b) no need of light c) Need not to have ADP d) none of these Q167 To drive a vehicle in operational area, one needs?

a) ADP b) Driving License

c) Oral permission by AAI d) Recommendation by APD Q168 How many gates are required for better access control?

a) As less as possible b) More gates are required

c) 10 d) 8

Q169 What is common at every duty post?

a) Barrier b) DFMD

c) Standing order d) HHMD

Q170 Mock exercises are done for?

a) Check the preparedness for contingency b) To show more people in uniform at airport c) It's a duty

d) To keep busy force personnel

Q171 The airport are categorized as per their sensitivity

a) Normal b) Sensitive c) Hyper Sensitive d) All of the above Q172 What are the features are to be checked in PIC

a) Access Gates b) Tally the Photograph c) Area of operation d) none of the above Q173 What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit

a) Access Gates b) Signature of issuing authority c) Tally the Photograph d) None of the above

Q174 Categories of people requiring legitimate access

a) Airlines Employee b) Airport Employee c) Custom Employee d) All of the above Q175 Security of unattended aircraft is the responsibility of

a) ASG

b) Airport operator c) Airline operator d) None of the above

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Q176 Airport employees are authorized to by-pass access control point a) Whenever they require, after disclosing their agency.

b) They don’t need to show any authority while on duty. c) They need to display PIC/Temporary pass

Q177 Access control to the airport is the responsibility of

a) Airport operator b) Airlines c) APSU/ ASG d) BCAS Q178 Access control to the Aircraft is the responsibility of

a) ASG/APSU b) Concerned Airlines c) Airport Operator d)None of these Q179. Light green (C) passes are issued to the

a) Crew members b) Courier service c) Concessionaries employees Q180 Airline employees are need not to show their ID card at access control points: a) whenever they are in uniform b)whenever they are on duty

c) not ever d) on emergency

Q181 Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is

a) one related to ICAO and another is with MCA b)Both are same c)One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety d)Totally different Q182 No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security

programme is approved by

a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCA Q183 The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft

a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without passing through security controls.

c) Both the above d) None of above Q184 Probable places of concealment of prohibited items are

a) In a vehicle, on the person or in clothing b)In carry on baggage or checked in baggage c)None of above d) both a & b

Q185 Regulated Agent has not involved in the following function

a) Ticketing of the passenger b)Provides security control for Cargo c)Conducts business with the aircraft operator for freight forwarding d)approved by COSCA Q186 Passenger profiling is

a)Checking of passenger, baggage and documents b)Both of above

c)Observation of passenger, baggage and documents d) None of the above.

Q187 The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and building or portions thereof , access to which is ______ is called

(a)Restricted b)control c) Prohibited d) Controlled

Q188 An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for _________services such as Ariculture,construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and escue, and aerial advertisement

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Q189 A parked aircraft which is under _________ sufficient to detect unauthorized access a) observation b) surveillance c) recommendation d) notice

Q190 A communicated threat, _________or otherwise, which suggests, or infers, whether true or false that the safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, or any airport or civil aviation facility or any person may be in danger from an explosive or other item or device.

a) conveyed b) informed c) intimated d) anonymous

Q191 Food, beverages, other dry stores and associated ___________ used on board an aircraft.

a) instruments b) personnel c) equipments d) items

Q192 The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for _____________ on a particular flight. a) loading b) acceptance c) boarding d) entry

Q193 A passenger who fails to respect the rules of conduct at an airport or on board an aircraft or to follow the ___________ of the airport staff or crew members and thereby disturbs the good order and discipline at an airport or on board the aircraft. Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator is called

(a) Instructions (b) guidelines (c) issuance (d) statements Q194 The landside of an airport is defined as

a) the area in front of the passenger terminal where passenger get off an aircraft. b) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has free access. c) that part of runway where an aircraft lands.

d) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has controlled access.

Q195 Access control points are located

a) terminal building b) only at the cargo complex c) only at vulnerable points d)within a building, such as a terminal and on the perimeter of airport boundary

Q196 Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft is that of the following

a) airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) airport security screening staff c) trained airline security and engineering staff. d) Trained Crew members

Q197 Main Components of an IED are

a) weapon, explosive, dangerous article and dangerous substance b) explosive, detonator, mechanism and battery/power source.

c) ignition, incendiary material and mechanism d) None of above Q198 ASG Personnel are authorized to check/frisk

a) Employees while entering the operational area b) Airport employees while leaving the Tarmac area

c) Employees while entering SHA d) All of above

Q199 Baggage of passengers______ to transfer from the aircraft of one operator to the aircraft of another operator in the course of the passenger’s journey.

a) required b) subject c) mentioned d)permitted

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Q200 Ultimate authority for airport entry passes are

a) APSU/ASG b) BCAS c) DGCA d) Airport operator Q201 On the basis of color, passes can be divided in to

a) six b) five c) seven d) Eight Q202 Color code of the PIC’s indicate

a) Organization of the holder b) Area of validity c) Rank of the holder d) None of these Q203. A passenger can access to the airport from the

a) Vehicle gate of the airport b) Entrance to the terminal c) From any entrance to the airport d) None of these

Q204 Who has Authority to access departure & arrival Hall of the terminal by ID card issued by Parliament secretariat

a) Employees of the parliament b) Honorable Member of parliament c) Security staff of the parliament d) Embassy personnel

Q205 Temporary pass (paper pass) without photograph issued for the period of a) Not more than a month b) For one day

c) Not more than three days d) For three Month Q206 PIC’s are issued by BCAS only after

a)Recommendation of the airport operator b) Background checks of the applicant c) On individual’s request d) Recommendation of ASG

Q207. Features of an AEP’ doesn’t include

a) Holder’s name b) Name of the organization c) Father’s name of the holder d) Designation of holder Q208 As per BCAS guidelines honorable Member of Parliament

a) Can have access up to arrival and departure hall of terminal on their ID card. b) Can have access up to boarding gate of the terminal on their ID card.

c) Can have access up to the entry gate of the aircraft on their ID card. d) None of the above

Q209 Orange (C) passes are issued to the

a) Concessionaries b) Crew members

c) Courier service d) Cargo employees

Q210 As per latest circular of BCAS contractors’ labor can have access at airport with the Authority of

a) Metal Token only b) Bar coded Labor photo pass . c) Entry ticket only. D) Paper pass only

Q211. Vehicle permits for operational/emergency/Maintenance purposes is normally issued by a) DGCA b) BCAS

c) Airport operator d) None of these Q212 At an airport, Airside vehicle access control point are manned by a) Airport operator b) ASG/APSU

d) Immigration/Custom d) Local police

(17)

Q213 Secondary ladder point check is the responsibility of the a) ASG/APSU b) Concerned airlines

c) Regulated agent d) Airport operator

Q214 Large area required to be secured for the screening concept a) Holding area plan b) Concourse plan

c) Boarding gate plan c) Security hold Area plan

Q215. Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is a) one related to ICAO and another is with MCA

b) Both are same

c) One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety d) None of the above

Q216 As per the national civil aviation policy the functions of all civil airports ATC’s under the jurisdiction of

a) BCAS b) Airline operator

c) Airport authority of India d) Indian Airforce

Q217 No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security programme is approved by

a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCA

Q218 Authority to drive a vehicle in the operational area (Airside) is a) Airport entry permit b) Vehicle permit

c) Airside Driving Permit d) Driving license

Q219 AEP’s for Airport employees are issued for the purposes of a) whenever they wants to visit b) for official duty

c) none of above d) Both a & b Q220. Security of the Aircraft is the responsibility of the

a) Airport operator b) BCAS c) Aicraft operator d) ASG

Q221. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft

a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without passing through security controls.

c) Both the above d) None of the above Q222 Passenger profiling is

a) Observation of passenger, baggage and documents. b) Checking of passenger, baggage and documents. c) None of the above.

d) Both a & b

Q223 The designated area of an airport used to takeoff/landing of an aircraft is

a) Land side b) Airside c) Runway d) Taxiway Q224 Connecting way between runway and apron is called

(18)

Q225 Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator

a) Baggage b) Airside c) Apron d) Taxiway

Q226 Which is not the responsibility of BCAS

a) Planning b) Evaluation c) Training d) Anti hijacking duties Q227. Which is not the responsibility of ASG

a) Anti hijacking duties b) Anti sabotage duties c) patrolling and guarding d) Advisory

Q228 Which is not the responsibility of Airline Operator?

a) Security of catering supplies b) security of cargo

c) Security of registered baggage d) Communication facilities Q229. Which is not the responsibility of Airport Operator?

a) Provide infrastructure b) Administration of the airport c) Passenger facilitation d) Security of BMA

Q230 All the ground space and facilities provided for aircraft maintenance is known as: a) AMA (Aircraft Maintenance Area) b) Aircraft Stand

c) Both a & b d) None of these

Q231 Which of the following is not an ingredient of Hijacking: a) Hijacker should be on board in aircraft

b) Lawfully exercises the control of the aircraft

c) Use of force, threat of force and aims other form of intimidation

d) Unlawfully taking the command of the aircraft from the Pilot-in- command

Q232 Baggage which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same aircraft with the person to whom it belongs.

a) Transfer baggage b) Unidentified baggage c) Unclaimed baggae d) unaccompanied baggage Q233 Which one is not a component of ASG

a) Anti Hijacking Group b) Support Group

c) Protection Group d) Anti Sabotage Group

Q234 Which of the following is not an essential component of vehicle permit

a) Name of the agency b) Approved airside safety status

c) Permit serial number d) Photo of the vehicle

Q235 Which of the following is an essential component of an AEP

a) Photo of the holder b) Identification mark of the holder c) Permanent address of the holder d) None of these

Q236 Which of the following is an airside land side boundary

a) Access gates b) Terminal building

(19)

Q237 The main aim of access control points are:

a) To control the movement of people from land side to airside b) To control the movement of vehicle from land side to airside c) Both a & b

d) None of these

Q238 Which of the following should not be practiced by a security person: a) Being too familiar with staff b) Effective permit control

c) Both a & b d) None of these

Q239 The airside of an airport is defined as

a) The part where traveling and non traveling public have unrestricted access

b) Movement area of an aerodrome, adjacent terrain, building and portion thereof access to which is controlled

c) Both a and b d) None of these

Q240 Which of the following is an appropriate answer for access control points a) Manned during daylight time only b) Manned only at night

c) Manned all the time d) None of these

Q241 For operational reasons who can move from land side to airside without security check

a) APD b) COSCA c) Local Police d) None of these

Q242 What are the points which should be maintained in access control point log a) Status of the equipment b) Records of the incident

c) Both a and b d) Contact number of other agencies

Q243 An aircraft approaching the airport is or is suspected to in such trouble that there is danger of an accident is known as

a) Aircraft accident b) Full emergency

c) Local stand by d) VVIP stand by

Q244 A white color AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport

a) Only at SHA b) Only in operational area

c) All area of a particular airport d) None of these

Q245 Blue color AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport

a) In operational area only b) All area of mentioned airport except SHA

Q246 Which of the following does not have Orange AEP

a) COSCA b) DG/CISF c) ADG/APS d) DC/Airport

Q247 What are the important points that need to be checked when a catering hi-lift vehicle is entering airside

a) Seals and tags should be intact b) Escorted by airline security

Q248 The main function of localizer is

a) To give mid path of the runway to the aircraft landing b) To give guidelines to the pilot

(20)

Q249 What is ARP

a) It is a reference point of the airport b) It is a brand

Q250 Which of the following is not a part of the ILS

a) LLZ b) Glide path c) Both a and b d) Marshaling

Q251 What is the prescribed position of the lights used at perimeter a) Focusing out b) Focused at duty points

c) Very dim d) None of these

Q252 What is the punishment for hijacking as per the Anti hijacking Act 1982 a) Life imprisonment and fine b) Death sentence

c) Only fine d) Both a and b

Q253 Which of the following is not a part of act of unlawful interference

a) Disrupting communication facilities b) Communication of false information c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground d) Flight having technical problem

Q254 Who is responsible to check whether checklist of aeroplane search procedure is followed a) Airport operator b) Security agency

c) Airline operator d) All the above

Q255 All civil aviation operations other than scheduled air services and nonscheduled air transport is known as

a) Military aviation b) General aviation

Q256 In interline baggage transfer, baggage of passenger is transferred from a) Aircraft of one operator to another operator

b) Between two aircraft of same operator c) No change of aircraft

Q257 In transfer baggage, baggage of passenger is transferred from a) Aircraft of one operator to another operator

b) Between two aircraft of same operator c) No change of aircraft

Q258 Activity where systematic observation is done for categorization of passenger into threatening and non-threatening category is

a) Personating b) Profiling c) Counseling d) None of these Q259 Measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against act of unlawful

interference is

a) Security b) Security Audit

c) Safety Control procedures d) Safety Management System Q260 Which of the following is not a suspicious sign of a passenger

a) Frequent visit to loo b) Person sitting in isolation c) Avoiding eye contact d) None of these

(21)

Q261 What will be the course of action when you notice suspicious sign on a passenger during profiling:

a) Notify supervisor b) Deep observation c) Both a and b d) Arrest the passenger Q262 Why courteous behavior is required at airports

a) High strata of people travel through the airports

b) Passengers expect for good behavior because they have paid a good amount c) Both a and b

d) No need of courteous behavior

Q263 Which of the following is not a responsibility of CASO a) Deployment of security staff b) Convening APSC

c) Both a and b d) He will be the chair person of the BTAC Q264 SLPC is carried out by

a) Airport operator b) ASG c) Airline security d) IATA

Q265 What are the additional security measures adopted by airline security after Registered Baggage has been X-Ray screened:

a) Sealing b) Safeguarding c) Escorting up to Aircraft d) All the above Q266 What are the essential components of Incendairy Device

a) Fuzzy match box b) Incendiary chemicals c) Both a and b d) None of these Q267 BCAS is a

a) Regulatory authority for Security b) Competent authority of safety c) Administrative authority d) None of these

Q268 Access control system can be

a) Automatic b) Manual c) Automatic and manual d) None of the above Q269 Typical external control point will contain

a) Control equipment b) Communication system c) Search equipment d) All of the above

Q270 States of equipments and records of incidents will be maintained in a) Access control point log b) Beat book

c) Personal diary d) None of the above

Q271 Airport workers are required to use control points

a) Whenever they enter restricted area b) Only when they are off duty c) Only if they do not have a permit d) None of the above

Q272 Airline employees are authorized to by-pass access control points a) whenever they are in uniform b) whenever they are on duty c) whenever they are willing to do so d) Never

Q273 Access control points are located in

a) Within building b) At cargo complex c) At vulnerable points d) All of the above Q274 Airport Rules for vehicle apply to security staff

a) At all times b) At all times except when they are on patrol c) At all time except on emergency d) None of the above

(22)

Q275 When moving airside in a vehicle, it is necessary to use the hazards warning lights a) Only at poor visibility b) When crossing runway

c) Only at night d) At all the times

Q276 Name the documents on basis of which a person is allowed to access in terminal Building a) PIC b) Visitor ticket c) Valid travel documents d) All of the above. Q277 What points to be checked in AEP for people

a) Photograph & name b) Airport & expiry date c) Signature of issuing authority & holder d) All of the above features Q278. Name the areas of vehicle to be checked for prohibited items

a) Interior & chassis of vehicle b) Engine compartment

c) Trunk or boot d) All of the above

Q279 Vehicle can be searched by

a) Trolley mirror b) Physical checking

c) Explosive detector d) All of the above Q280 What will you check is vehicle pass

a) Vehicle registration number b) Name of organization c) Valid area & gate to be used d) All of the above

Q281 Searching of vehicle entering into airside is done for

a) Weapon & explosive b) Drugs & contrabands

c) Excess cash d) None of the above

Q282 Fire to structure & building at an airport is the example of emergency a) Involving aircraft b) Not involving aircraft

c) Natural calamity d) Medical emergency

Q283 Is it necessary to take permission from ATC while crossing runway

a) Sometimes b) Never

c) Necessary when flight is in operation d) Necessary at all the time Q284 It is necessary to check Pass of all the staff entering terminal building

a)Sometime b)All the time c)When not on duty d)None of these Q285. A person has to go to security hold area, which type of pass is permitted

a)Navy blue b)Purple c)Brown d)White

Q286 Colour of transferable pass(PIC) is

a) Orange b) Blue c) Brown d) White

Q287 Passes for people are issued by

a) ASG b) Airport Operator c) BCAS d) DGCA

Q288 Vehicle permit are issued by

a) Local police b) BCAS c) DGCA d) Airport Operator

Q289 Temporary vehicle permit is valid

upto-a) 5 yes b) 3 yrs c) 2 yrs d) 1 yrs

(23)

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Q291 A person having Green PIC will gain access to

a) Departure of T.B. b) In T.B.

c) In all area d) Departure check-in and arrival area upto segregation of T.B Q292 Vulnerable Point at airport includes

a) All area of airport b) Parking c) Service road d) ATC Q293 Hijacking is –

(a)Hostage taking on aircraft (b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight (c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground (d) Hostage taking at airport

Q294 Typical permit wouldn't contain

a) Address of the holder b) Validity of period c) Photograph of the holder d) name of the holder Q295. Who are not authorized to enter into operational area?

a) AAI Employees with valid pass b) Brown and Green Colour Pass holder c) Permanent visitor with valid pass d) White color pass holder

Q296 AEP stands for airport Entry Pass

a) Aviation Examination Procedure c) Airport Entry Pass b) Aircraft Entrance Procedure d) None of these Q297 ADP stands for :

a)Airfield Driving Permit c) Anti Doping Procedure b)Airside Driving Plan d) Advance Departure Program Q298 BMA stands for :

a) Baggage Makeup Area c) Baggage Maintenance Area b) Baggage monitoring Area d) All the above

Q299 LTPE stands for :

a) Low Temperature Plastic Explosive b) Linear Type Plastic Explosive

c) Long Term Plastic Explosive d) None of these

Q300 Who of the following is authorized to issue AEPs a) DGCA c) AAI c) BCAS d) ASG Q301 What are LAGs

a) Liquids Aerosols and Gels c) Both a and b b) Liquids Acids and Gels d) None of the above Q302 What are STEBs

a) Security Tamper Evident Baggage b) Security Training Establishment Board c) Security Trial Evident Baggage

d) None of these

Q303 What is the latest aircraft launched by Air Bus Company?

(24)

Q304 Which is not the components of APSU?

a) Supporting Unit b) Anti-Hijacking Unit c) Inter surveillance Unit d) Anti-Sabotage Unit Q305 Baggage Identification is the duty of ?

a) CASO b) Airlines c) APSU d) APD

Q306 How many categories of airports in India?

a) One b) Three c) Four d) Seven

Q307 Flight IC 814 was hijack from a) Delhi c) Kathmandu b) Kandhar d) Amritsar

Q308 Which agency is responsible for secondary ladder point checking

a) ASG c) Airlines

b) Police d) BCAS

Q309 Which of the following AVSEC function is not performed by Airlines security a) Catering security

b) Escorting of security cleared cargo baggage c) Pre-embarkation security check

d) Screening of hold baggage Q310 Who can carry loaded gun in flight a) PSO of VVIP

b) Sky Marshal

c) SPG Personnel when accompanying SPG Protectee d) Bonafide passenger holding valid license

Q311 Which is not the feature of vehicle entry permit

a) Registration number of vehicle matches with the vehicle permit b) Name of organization/agency.

c) Area of validity. d) tally the photograph Q312 An access control point have

a) Controlling equipment c) Controlling equipment b) Communication systems d) All of the above

Q313 Profiling is a systematic observation to

a) to identify the person c) to recognize the person b) to categorize the person d) None of the above Q314 ASG took over the charge of Jaipur airport on

a) 04-04-2003 b) 03-02-2000 c) 01-04-2000

c) None of the above

Q315 Which is Hyper sensitive airport a) Dimapur c) Lucknow b) Shilong d) Agartala

(25)

Q316 Which is Sensitive airport

a) Delhi c) Ahmedabad

b) Varanasi d) Hyderabad

Q317 When did India become a contracting state of ICAO

a) On 1st_{March 1947} _c)_{On 7}th_{December 1944}

b) On 10th_{May 1984} _{d) On 4}th_{April 1947}

Q318 COE stands for :

c) Controller Of Electronics c) Chief Of Explosive d) None of these d) Controller Of Explosive Q319 EOD stands for :

a)Entry Of Drivers c) Explosive Ordinance Demand b)Explosive Ordinance Disposal d) All the above

Q320 LED stands for:

e) Lead Entering Door c) Light Emitting Device f) All the above d) Light Emitting Diode Q321 What is the significance of 24 July 2001 in civil aviation

a) Attack on Colombo airport c) Kandhar incidnet b) on Chennai airport d) None of the abobe

Q322 Which organization carries Security Audit of Airports Internationally

a) BCAS c) ACI

b) ICAO d) IATA

Q323 Doc 9691 of ICAO refers to

a) Manual on Volcanic Ash, Radio Active Material and Toxic Chemical Clouds b) Manual on Airport Security

c) Manual on Aircraft Security d) None of these

Q324 What are total no. of ICAO Annexes

a)15 b)16 c)17 d)18

Q325 “Principles which apply to equipment design, certification, training and operations and which seek optimum interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration to human performance” are called

a) Human Factor Principles b) Equipments Design Principles c) Security Training Principles d) Human Performance Principles Q326 What are MRTDs

a ) Machine Readable Travel Documents b) Memory Readable Text Documents c) Memory Reset Text Device

d) None of these

Q327 Select weapons in the given items? a) Grenade b) Scissors

(26)

Q328 In what color explosive will be seen in X-BIS image ?

a) Green b) White

c) Orange d) Opaque

Q329 On how many things, the profiling is done?

a) One b) Three

c) Six d) Seven

Q330 PEC is the practice.

a) Recommended practice b) Standard Practice

c) a & b c) None of these

Q331 Boeing Company belongs to which country? a) America b) Britain

c) Germany d) Russia

Q332 You should not do, when you find a suspicious person? a) Keep under observation b) Inform the supervisor c) Alarming the passenger d) Documents profiling Q333 What is Blue Dart ?

a) Travel Agency b) Cargo Company

c) cargo flight operator d) All the above Q334 Components of APSU?

a) One b) Three

c) Four d) Seven

Q335 Which is not suspicious sign of a person?

a) Feeling fear b) Posing as VIP

c) Deep observation of security personnel d) Following procedures Q336 Gelatin is in form of . . .

a) Slurry b) Liquid

c) Stick d) Paste

Q337 Safety fuse comes under which category?

a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances

c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives Q338 Chisels come under which category?

c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives Q339 Security staff on duty may cross a runway:

a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care. b) only when the runway is clear.

c) only after clearance from ground control or the Air Traffic Control Tower. d) Above all

Q340 Passenger can carry liquor in aircraft?

a) From Duty free shops at airport b) Purchase from anywhere

(27)

Q341 What this word BLR denotes to?

a) PORT BLARE b) BANGLORE

c) BOMBAY d) CAN'T say

Q342 Which comes in the category of prohibited articles (a) Starter pistol (b) Mobile

(c) Lap top (d) Folding umbrella

Q343 Which is electronic gadget is used for surveillance ?

a) Radio Set b) CCTV

c) Biometric Devices d) Passive Infrared Q344 Which is not a suspicious sign of passenger?

a) Nervous behavior b) luring others c) First & last passenger d) Reporting in time

Q345 The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline

a) CISF b) immigration

c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI

Q346 Which is not the way to conceal the prohibited item?

a) Disguise b) Dismantle

c) Camouflage d) In Suitcase

Q347 Vehicle should be searched for

a) Narcotics b) Contraband items

c) Prohibited items d) All above Q348 Nitroglycerine is ……….explosive?

a) Liquid b) Plastic

c) Solid d) Not an explosive

Q349. What is physical form of CORDTEX?

a) Slurry b) Liquid

c) Cord d) Paste

Q350 Types of explosives?

a) One b) Two

c) Three d) Four

Q351 What is the Natural color of RDX?

a) White b) Pale yellow

c) Green d) white/black

Q352 If a person is denying to be frisked - What is the course of action? a) Let him go for board b) No search No fly

c) Use force d) Frisk as a formality

Q353 What will be the course of action when you get an unattended baggage? a) Deposit it to APM b) don't touch

c) Lift and Screen it d) Open and look inside for dangerous articles Q354 The alert status put on place at the time of crisis?

(28)

c) Bomb Alert d) Non of these

Q355 What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening? a) Ask the passenger, why he carrying that b) Allow passenger to board

c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor d) Remove the article and leave the passenger

Q356 Match box comes under

a) Explosive b) Incendiary

c) Dangerous substances d) Weapon Q357 How many types of detonator available?

a) One b) Two

c) Three d) Four

Q358 Prohibited items are classified/divided into

a) 4 categories b) 3 categories

c) 6 categories d) 9 categories

Q359 Weapons are designed primarily to -

a) Kill b) Injure

c) Incapacitate & Immobilize d) All of the above. Q360 The phonetic value of 5 is

a) FIVE b) FIVE

c) FIF d) FIFE

Q361 The phonetic value of 9 is

a) NI-NE b) NINET c) NIN d) NIN-er Q362 PTD switch is comes in which category

a) Remote control b) Time delay c) Ambient condition d) Anti-handling

Q363 Which is the appropriate word stands for I in RT communication? a) Intelligent b) Indigo

c) Infinite d) India

Q364 Ketone comes under which category of prohibited item ?

c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives Q365 Which is the component of an IED

a) Generator b) Detonator c) Cross Piece d) CTP Q366 A passenger can carry any liquid item not more than

a) 10 Mltrs b) 100 Mltrs c) 1000 Mltrs d) 10000 Mltrs Q367 Size of Kirpan is

a) 6” b) 3” c) 9” d) 8”

Q368 An item a passenger can carry in his hand baggage

a) Knife b) Lighter c) Book d) Blade

Q369. An item a passenger can not carry in his hand baggage

(29)

Q370 The switch mechanism are classified into

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1 Q371 Pyro technique is a switch mechanism of

a) Anti handling switch b) Delay Mechanism

c) Command d) Ambient

Q372 Which comes in the category of prohibited articles?

a) Starter pistol b) Mobile c) Lap top d) Folding umbrella Q373 Kirpan of 6 inches blade is permitted to a Sikh passenger to be carried in a) Any flight operated from India b) Any registered aircraft in India c) In fully domestic flight in India. d) None of these

Q374 Prohibited items are

a) Not permitted to be carried while entering an airport. b) Not permitted to be used while aircraft in flight c) Not permitted to be carried on board an aircraft.

d) all of the above

Q375 Most important measures to prevent weapons, explosives and other dangerous devices from being introduced in an aircraft

a) Background checks of the employees working at airport b) Documents checking of the passengers.

c) Screening of passengers and carry on baggage d) By profiling of passenger

Q376. Immediate Action which is not required on detection of prohibited item during physical inspection

a) remain calm and do not panic b ) allow the passenger to board the aircraft c) Notify the supervisor d) none of these

Q377 Probable places of concealment of prohibited items are a) In a vehicle, on the pers0on or in clothing

b) In carry on baggage or checked in baggage c) Both the above

Q378 Starter Pistol is an example of :

a) Dangerous Article b) Weapon

c) Dangerous Substance d) None of these

Q379 Realistic replica of a gun carried by a child will be treated as

a) Weapon b) Dangerous Substance

c) None of these d) Dangerous Article

Q380 What is the Natural color of PETN?

a) White b) Pale yellow

c) Green d) white/black

Q381 Nuckles falls under which category of prohibited item

(30)

c) Dangerous Substance d) Explosive Q382 Category of people who need to be escorted

a) Prisoner b) Airport users c) Employee d)None of the above

Q383 Which one is not a primary effect of a high explosive explosion: a) Blast effect b) Fragmentation

c) Translation d) Water soak

Q384 Which one is not a method of concealment of an explosive: a) Trafficking b) Disguised

c) Dismantled d) Camouflaged

Q385 Articles which can be used to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize the target but it is not primarily design to do so, known as:

a) Weapon b) Dangerous articles

c) Dangerous substances d) None of these

Q386 An article looking like a knife but it is made of wood, what will be the course of action when you detect such item:

a) Will be removed b) Local police should be informed c) Supervisor should be informed d) Both a & c

Q387 To use electrical detonators which of the following is essential

a) Match box b) Friction

c) Power source d) None of these

Q388 Detonators are used in which kind of explosives

a) Pyrotechnic b) Low explosive

c) High explosive d) Both a & c

Q389 Which of the following is not used to detect explosives

a) EVD b) ETD

c) Thermal imager d) None of these

Q390 PEK stands for :

a). Plastic Explosive Kirkie b) Power Electrode Kirkie

Q391 Light sensitive switch is a kind of

a) Remote control switch b) Ambient condition switch c) Anti handling switch d) None of these

Q392 Which among the following is the principle on which the explosive detectors function a) Specificity b) Sensitivity c) Selectivity d) All the above

Q393 Which among the following, is the sensitivity of the EVD

a) Min 5 gms b) Min 10 gms c) Min 15 gms d) Min 2.5 gms

Q394 How much time EVD will take for analysis of a sample

a) 3 sec b) 2 sec c) 2.5 sec d) 5 sec

Q395 To detect the explosive through ETD, the sample collection will be made from a) Surface wipe for trace particle b) Box of explosives

(31)

Q396 Explosive are –

(a) Chemicals c) Liquid Chemicals (b) Solid chemicals d) All above

Q397 A pax is trying to carry weapons in hand baggage by making it in small parts-the method is known as

a) Disguised b) Dismenteled c) Camoflauged d) Improvised Q398 IED stands for.

a) Improvised Explosive Device b) Incendiary Exp. Device c) Improvised Explosive Detonator d) Improvised Electric Device Q399 Sound sensitive type of mechanism is a type of

a) Delay mechanism c) Remote Control b) Anti handling d) Ambient Switch Q400 Clock is used as switch in which type of mechanism

a) Anti handling c) Ambient

b) Remote control d) Delay Mechanism Q401 In detonator which type of explosive is used

a) High c) Incendiary

b) Low d) Both Low and High explosive Q402 Sound sensitive switch is a type of

a) Ambient c) Delay

b) Remote d) Anti-handling Q403. What is physical form of TNT?

a) Crystalline b) Paste

c) Jelly d) Block

Q404 Original color of TNT?

a) White b) Pale yellow c) Green d) white/black

Q405 Light sensor is related to which switch mechanism a) Anti handling c) Ambient

b) Remote d) Delay Q406 Which is not the effect of explosion

c) Blast pressure effect c) Translation Effect d) Thermal effect d) Lightening Effect

Q407 A Toy gun carried by an adult will be treated as

a)Dangerous Article c) Dangerous Substance b)Weapon d ) None of these

Q408 An item is controlled by clapping it comes under which kind of the mechanism a)Remote control c) Delay Mechanism

(32)

Q409 What is the color RDX on visual inspection a)White c) Green

b)Pale orange d) None of these

Q410 What amount of high explosive can be sustained by Simulation Chamber a) 10 Kgs of RDX c) Both a & b

b) 5 Kgs of TNT d) Cannot with stand the blast Q411. What is the identification no. of electric detonator

a) No. 28 c) No. 32 b) No.30 d) No. 33 Q412. The qualities of high explosive are

a) Non-hygroscopic b) Safe to handle

c) To be detonated with detonating waves d) All of the above

Q413. Actual flight condition are made in –

a) Cooling pit c) Cock-pit of aircraft b) Simulation chamber d) Bomb blanket Q414. TATP is an example of

a) Weapon c) Liquid explosive

b) Dangerous article d) Dangerous Substance Q415 Nun-chacks falls under which category?

c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives Q416. PTD switch is comes in which category

a) Remote control b) Time delay

c) Ambient condition d) Anti-handling Q417 In PEK the word K stands for ……….?

a) Knife b) kirkie

c) Keton d) None of these

Q418 Which one of the following is an example of explosive

a) Detonator c) Rifles

b) Tear Gas d) Acids Q419 An IED can be conceal

a) In hand baggage c) On person

b) In registered baggage d) All the above Q420 Which is not the advantage of an EVD

a) Quick result c) Detect all kinds of explosive b) Light weight easy to carry d) Convenience for pax

Q421 Which is not the advantage of an ETD a) Quick result

b) Detects explosives up to nano gram c) Detects all kind of explosive

(33)

d) Scan the object easily

Q422 Types of switches/mechanism that can be used to blast an IED g) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

Q423 All acids fall under which category of prohibited item a)Weapon c) Dangerous article b)Explosive d) Dangerous Substance

Q424 Color of SEMTEX is

a)Pale orange c) Black

b)Red d) All the above

Q425 Crackers falls under which category of prohibited item a) Weapons c) Dangerous article b) Explosives d) Dangerous Substance

Q426 DMNB is a compound used for

a) Marking of explosives c) Searching of explosive b) Detecting of explosives d) All the above

Q427 Chamber which creates equal pressure and real journey situation of the flight? a) Personnel chamber b) Sterile chamber

c) Simulation chamber d) a & b Q428 How many rings of protection are there?

a) One b) Three

c) Four d) Seven

Q429 What is the outer ring of protection?

a) Perimeter b) Windows of terminal Building

c) Apron d) None of these

Q430 Which is not a medical emergency in aviation?

a) Collapsed person b) Injured in Tsunami c) Delivery of new born d) Communicable disease Q431. The main aim to search the SHA is………..?

a) To sterile the area b) Look for left out baggage c) to find Narcotics d) To check cleanliness Q432 The emergency, which is involved with aircraft?

a) New born b) Sabotage

c) Fire on TB d) None of these

Q433 Which is not a medical emergency?

a) Sudden death b) Collapsed person

c) New Born d) Illness

Q434. Emergencies involving aircraft

a) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while in flight b) Sabotage on aircraft c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground d) All of the above Q435. Emergencies not involving aircraft

(34)

c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground d) Fire in structure Q436. Which is not related with medical emergencies

a) Delivery of new born b) Communicable diseases c) Food poisoning d) terrorist attack

Q437 Which of the following is an emergency not involving the aircraft

a) Hijacking b) Technical problem in nose wheel

c) Terrorist attack at airport d) None of these

Q438 Which of the following is an emergency involving aircraft

a) Hijacking c) Technical problem in nose wheel

b) Terrorist attack at airport d) Both a and b

Q439 Delivery of a new born is a/an

a) Emergency involving aircraft b) Emergency not involving aircraft

c) Medical emergency d) All the above

Q440 .Which is the example of medical emergency

a) Sudden death b) Natural disaster

c) Bomb threat d) None of the above

Q441. Airside/landside boundary will comes under a) Outer ring b) Middle ring c) Inner ring d) Inner middle ring Q442 .Which is in depth security ring of protection

a) Layer of protection b) Centre of protection c) Rings of protection d) None of the above Q443. The main aim of patrolling is

a) to check the effective ness of perimeter wall b) To detect the attacks c) to help in apprehension d) None of the above Q444 .The main aim of guarding is

a) to check the effective ness of perimeter wall b) to guard the vital installations c) to help in apprehension d) None of the above

Q445 .How many types of patrolling are there

a) Foot patrolling b) Vehicle patrolling c) Both a and b d) None of these

Q446 .Security staff on duty may cross runway :

a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care b) Only when the runway is clear

c) Only after clearance from ground control or the ATC tower d) None of these

Q447 .The main aim of airport protection system is : a) To protect airport and aircraft from any attack b) To give employment to unemployed people c) To get remuneration

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Q448.The main purpose of boundary fencing is :

a) To mark the boundary between restricted and non restricted area b) To keep cattle and livestock of the runway

c) To prevent people looking at aircraft d) All the above

Q449 .Enumerate the principles on which the protection system at airports is based a) Controlling movement of people and vehicles

b) Dividing airport into non-restricted and restricted areas c) Protecting airport with physical barriers

d) All the above

Q450 .What is the main objective of security patrolling at the airports a) Ensure effectiveness of physical barriers

b) Respond quickly to attacks and attempted attacks c) Deter and prevent unauthorized access

d) All the above

Q451 .Which one of the following is one of the objective of security guarding at the airports a) Protect vulnerable areas/vital airport facilities

b) Security of Registered Baggage c) Second ladder point checks

d) Pre-flight, Anti – sabotage check of the aircraft

Q452 What security measures must be taken for guarding unattended aircraft in flight a) Aircraft parked in a well – lit area

b) All external doors are locked

c) Stairs and steps in the vicinity of aircraft are moved away and immobilized d) All the above

Q453 To provide extra protection to a building, doors have to be locked. Name two other parts of a building above ground that need to be locked or fixed in a closed position

a) Windows b) Roof sky lights c) Ventilation openings d) All of the above

Q454 How can Non-restricted and Restricted Areas separation be achieved a) Provision of physical barriers such as fences

b) Use of buildings and natural obstacles

c) Limiting authorized access to controlled gates and designated access points d) All the above

Q455 What are designated areas to be patrolled

a) Apron and the baggage make up area b) Cargo complex

c) Airport boundary and outlying vulnerable points d) All the above

Q456 Which among the following procedures is/are for parked aircraft for normal conditions a) Security person guarding the aircraft ensure only authorized people, are allowed on

board

b) Intercept unauthorized people attempting to board aircraft or in the vicinity c) Both a and b

Q457 The operation and protection of an aircraft is generally accepted responsibility to be which of the following agencies?