A320 QB

(1)

ATA06 DIMENSION AND AREAS

1. The A320/A321 aircraft is divided into zones as follows: (A, B1, B2) A. The major zones, the major sub-zones, the zones.

B. The zones and sub-zones.

C. The zones and the station.

D. The major zones, the major sub-zones

2. The station is for all structural measurement in the X axis is located in: (B1, B2)

A.

The rib 1 of the aircraft.

B.

254cm forward of aircraft nose.

C.

Aircraft nose.

3. Each major zone is identified by: (A, B1, B2)

A.

Three digit number and two letters

B.

Three digit number

C.

The first digit of three digit number

4. Access doors and panels are identified by: (A, B1, B2)

A.

The number of the zone in which the panel is located followed by a two-letter suffix.

B.

The number of the zone in which the panel is located followed by one letter suffix.

C.

a two-letter followed by the number of the zone in which the panel is located suffix.

5. There are how many major zones in the aircraft? (A, B1, B2)

A.

4

B.

6

C.

8

D.

10

6. The general fuselage section base number is: (B1, B2)

A.

10

B.

20

C.

30

D.

40

7. The general wing section base number is: (B1, B2)

A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40

ATA 07 - LIFTING & SHORING

8. What you do not have to do before you lift the aircraft with jacks? (B1,B2)

A. Make sure that the GND safety locks are in position on the landing gears B. Make sure that the aircraft is stable

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9. The Tail Safety stay is used to: (A,B1,B2)

A. Share load with the main jacks during jacking process

B. Keep the aircraft more stable during landing gear retraction/ extension tests C. Keep the aircraft stable on jacks

10. How many points on the structure are designated for the purpose of lifting the aircraft? (A,B1,B2)

A. 3

B. 4 C. 2

11. What is correct answer? (B1,B2)

A. You can not lift the aircraft with jacks when the tires and the shock absorbers are

deflated.

B. You can not lift the aircraft at the forward jacking point only, with the wheels of the main landing gear on the ground

C. You must not apply more than the safe load at each jacking point.

12. What is the configuration of the aircraft ready for jacking? (B1,B2)

A. Wheel chocks ON, Parking brake ON. B. Wheel chocks OFF, Parking brake OFF.

C. Wheel chocks ON, Parking brake OFF.

13. Distribution of load must be clearly indicated at? (B1)

A. Forward and wing jacking points.

B. Forward, wing and tail jacking points. C. Tail jacking point.

14. What is permissible during jacking for main LDG wheel change? (A,B1,B2)

A. Cargo, PAX loading. B. Gate docking.

C. Installation of the wheel chocks on the wheels of the other main LDG.

15. Application of flight configuration precaution is required when (B1,B2)

A. Lifting the aircraft on jacks.

B. Jacking a MLG for wheels change.

C. Lifting the aircraft at Forward Jacking Point, MLG Wheels on the Ground.

16. The purpose of shoring of the aircraft is to: (B1)

A. Give a support to the wing in order to release the loads on the structure. B. Keep the aircraft more stable on jacks.

C. Both of the above.

17. In which document you will find the detail instruction for shoring the aircraft? (B1)

A. SRM chapter 51. B. AMM chapter 51. C. AMM chapter 07.

ATA08 LEVELING AND WEIGHING

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A.

Calculate the position of the center of gravity

B.

Calculate of aircraft weight

C.

Know the aircraft weight for passenger loading

19. When weighing the aircraft to find the operating empty weight of the aircraft (B1, B2)

A.

All the fire extinguishers, oxygen masks and safety belts must be removed

B.

Engine, APU, IDG oil must refill to necessary level.

C.

Engine, APU, IDG oil must be empty

D.

Hydraulic fluid must be empty

20. Can you do the aircraft weighing and balancing to calculate the center of gravity with: (B1, B2)

A. All tools and protection devices on the aircraft B. The shock absorbers and the tires deflated

C. The doors of aft and forward cargo compartments are opened D. Slats and flaps in fully extended position.

21. Configuration for aircraft WEIGHING to find the operating empty weight: (B1, B2)

A. All the fire extinguishers, oxygen masks and safety belts must be removed B. All tools and protection devices on the aircraft must be removed

C. Empty all of Engine, APU, IDG oil. D. All above.

22. When Lifting the AIRCRAFT for leveling (A, B1, B2)

A. You must not lift the aircraft with the safety stay.

B. The weight of fuel is applied equally on the two side of the aircraft centerline C. Make sure that the aircraft is stable before you lift it with jacks

D. All above

23. When Lifting the aircraft (A, B1, B2)

A. All the doors must be closed and locked.

B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked but the cargo doors must be closed and locked.

C. The passenger/crew doors, the emergency exits and the cargo doors are closed and locked or fully open and locked.

D. No requirement.

24. You can weigh the aircraft with: (B1, B2)

A. The aircraft on jacks only B. The aircraft on its wheels only

C. The aircraft on landing gear jacks only

D. The aircraft on jacks or the aircraft on its wheels or the aircraft on landing gear jacks

25. When Weighing the aircraft on jacks (B1)

A. The aircraft must have a pitch attitude of zero deg.

B. You can do this procedure with load cells on each jack or with platform scales under each jack

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D. All Above

26. When leveling the aircraft you must: (B1)

A. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the D4 position B. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the E4 position C. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the D5 position D. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the E5 position

27. For aircraft Quick Leveling you can use (B1)

A. The ADIRU or the Attitude Monitor

B. A Spirit Level in the Passenger Compartment C. A Spirit Level in the FWD Cargo Compartment D. All above

ATA 09 – TOWING & TAXIING.

28. When the NLG dimension H is more than 300 mm (A,B1,B2)

A. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent damage to the centering cams.

B. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent tail to ground contact. C. Smooth and speed limited towing is possible.

29. If a engine is running (A, B1,B2)

A. You can tow the aircraft from the front only. B. You can push the aircraft only.

C. Either tow or push is possible.

30. Towing the aircraft is (A, B1,B2)

A. Allowed with one engine running above idle.

B. Allowed with both engines running up to idle. C. Allowed only with one engine running up to idle.

31. Towing can be carried out with (A,B1,B2)

A. Passenger/crew doors fully open and locked without restriction. B. Cargo doors open in vertical position with speed limited. C. Engine cowls open and hold open rods fully locked.

32. Towing can be carried out using (A,B1,B2)

A. Tow bar or towbarless tractor at NLG.

B. Tow bar or towbarless tractor at MLG(s) C. Tow bar at NLG only.

33. The maximum permitted steering-angle on each side of the aircraft centerline is (A,B1,B2)

A. 95 degrees. B. 75 degrees.

C. 74 degrees.

34. What is the correct sequence? (A,B1,B2)

A. Install the tow bar on the tow fitting then install the tow lever safety pin B. Install the tow lever safety pin then install the tow bar on the tow fitting. C. There is no specific sequence

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35. Communication system(s) to be used during towing is (are)? (A,B1,B2)

A. VHF and FLT INT.

B. VHF or HF with FLT INT. C. VHF only.

36. What indication on ECAM do you have to check prior to start towing? (A,B1,B2)

A. N WHEEL STEERG DISC B. N WHEEL STEERG INOP

C. N WHEEL STEERG OFF

37. From cockpit how can you know that the brake are release prior to towing the aircraft? (A,B1,B2)

A. Check Parking brake selector in OFF, brake pressure indication on ECAM is at 0

and confirm with GND personnel.

B. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; check all the 03 pointes are at green range and confirm with GND personnel.

C. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; brake pressure pointes at 0 and confirm

with GND personnel.

38. The maximum permitted steering angle on each side of the aircraft when use front fitting to push the aircraft rearwards with the engines at idle is: (B1, B2)

A.40 degrees. B.60 degrees. C.74 degrees. D.95 degrees.

39. Minimum separation from the nose wheels and the tractor while towing the aircraft is: (A, B1, B2)

A.2 m B.3 m. C.4 m.

40. In towing configurations the safety pin locks the control lever on the interphone box in: (A, B1, B2)

A. Disengaged position. B. Engaged position. C. Normal position.

41. When towing the aircraft: (A, B1, B2)

A. All the doors must be closed and locked.

B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked the cargo doors open in vertical position

C. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked but the cargo doors must be closed and locked

42. When one tire is deflated on one main gear (B1, B2).

A. The aircraft can be towed by the nose gear only. B. The aircraft can be towed by the main gear only.

C. The aircraft can be towed by the main gear or nose gear. D. The aircraft can not be towed

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43. When doing the aircraft parking not more than 15 days (B1, B2)

A.You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one time only B.You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one time

only

C.You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days several times

44. When doing the aircraft parking not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2)

A. You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one time only B. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one

time only

C. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks several times

45. Do you need to do periodic ground checks of aircraft During parking period of not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2)

A. Periodic ground check at 7-day intervals and periodic ground check at 15-day intervals and periodic ground check at 1-month intervals.

B. Periodic ground check at 8-day intervals. C. Periodic ground check at 1-month intervals.

D. Periodic ground check at 8-day intervals and periodic ground check at 1-month intervals

46. When doing periodic ground check at 7-day intervals for a parking period of not more than 15 days or of not more than 12 weeks (aircraft in flight-ready condition). (B1, B2)

A.You must do a check of the hydraulic reservoir level B.You must do the slat/flap extension and retraction C.You must do engine and IDG oil uplift

D.You must do engine cranking

47. When doing periodic ground check at 15-day intervals for a parking period of not more than 12 weeks (aircraft in flight-ready condition). (B1, B2)

A. You must do the engine monitoring only

B. You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle then do a thrust reverser full cycle

C. You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle only D. You must do the engines run-up at high power for 5 minute

48. When doing aircraft preservation steps for a storage period of not more than 6 months (B1, B2)

A. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up B. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down C. You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position

49. When mooring to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind conditions (B1)

A. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is between 50 and 70 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG

B. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is between 50 and 70 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG and MLG

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C. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is more than 70 Kts, moor the aircraft at the MLG.

50. When mooring is to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind conditions (B1)

A. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG B. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable

and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the MLG C. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable

and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG and the MLG

51. When mooring to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind conditions (B1)

A.You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up B.You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down C.You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position

52. When mooring the aircraft. (B1)

A. Attach the short in position on the towing lug of the nose landing gear with the NLG shackles then attach the ropes on the ground with the mooring points

B. Attach the ropes on the towing lug and the debogging lug of the MLG then attach the ropes on the ground with the mooring points.

C. A & B

ATA12 SERVICING

53. When you do the Aircraft Grounding for the Refuel/Defuel Operations (A, B1, B2)

A.

Connect the ground cable to parking ground point before you connect it to the aircraft

B.

Attach the cable to aircraft first then connect to parking ground point

C.

Grounding is not necessary

54. To electrostatically balance the aircraft for the refuel/defuel operations (A, B1, B2)

A.

Connect a ground cable to the aircraft grounding point on the landing gears

B.

Connect a bonding cable between the fuel tanker and a grounding point on one of the MLG Legs

C.

A is essential, B is recommended

D.

B is essential, A is recommended

55. Safety requirements for aircraft Refueling and refueling are: (A, B1, B2)

A.

Do not operate the cell phones or mobile phones inside distances for 6m from aircraft.

B.

Do not connect electrical equipment to a power source less than 15 m away from aircraft, unless the power source has spark-proof connectors

C.

Do not operate the fuel tanker/pump unit until you stop operation of the weather radar

(8)

56. During aircraft Refueling or refueling (A, B1, B2)

A.

APU starts or shutdowns are permitted.

B.

An APU start is not permitted during if the APU has failed to start or an automatic shutdown has occurred.

C.

A & B

57. During the refueling (A, B1, B2)

A.

The NLG tires roll aft

B.

The NLG tires roll fwd

C.

The NLG tires roll does not move

58. During the refueling you must (A, B1,B2)

A.

Move the aft NLG chocks away from the tires

B.

Make sure that the chocks do not touch the MLG tires

C.

A & B

59. When you do the Refueling and/or refueling in the Hangar (A,B1,B2)

A.

The hangar doors must be closed until you have completed the refuel/defuel procedure

B.

The hangar doors must not be closed until you have completed the refuel/defuel procedure

C.

There is no requirement for hangar door

60. When you do the aircraft pressure Automatic refueling with battery power (A,B1,B2)

A.

It is not always possible to refuel to full capacity. This is because the intercell transfer valve are not always in the correct position

B.

It is always possible to refuel to full capacity.

C.

You can not refuel in the outer cell.

62. The maximum safety pressure for refueling is: (A,B1,B2)

A.

45psi

B.

50psi

C.

55psi

D.

60psi

63. When you do the aircraft refueling with battery power (A,B1,B2)

A.

The HOT BUSS is energized for ten minutes only after you put the BATT POWER switch to the ON position.

B.

HOT BUSS is always energized after you put the BATT POWER switch to the ON position.

C.

You must put the BATT POWER switch to the ON position and hold it during refueling process

64. When you do the aircraft pressure refueling with manual control (A,B1,B2)

A.

Put the MODE SELECT switch to the REFUEL position

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B.

Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) for the applicable fuel tank(s) to the OPEN position and for the tank(s) which will not be refueled to the SHUT position.

C.

Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) of all the fuel tank(s) to the OPEN position

D.

A & B

65. When you do the aircraft pressure refueling without electrical power (B1,B2)

A.

The high-level protection system will not operate,

B.

Do not refuel through the two refuel/defuel coupling at the same time

C.

The handle of the refuel coupling cap must point aft when the cap is closed and locked.

D.

All above

66. The maximum water contents permitted by the manufacture in hydraulic fluids is: (B1)

A.

0,5%

B.

0,6%

C.

0,7%

D.

0,8%

67. Airbus recommends the maximum water contents permitted in hydraulic fluids is (B1)

A.

0,5%

B.

0,6%

C.

0,7%

D.

0,8%

68. The aircraft configuration requirements for filling the hydraulic fluid reservoir are: (A,B1,B2)

A.

The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors and the landing gear doors are closed

B.

The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors and the landing gear doors are opened

C.

The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors are closed and the landing gear doors are opened

D.

The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors are opened and the landing gear doors are closed

69. When doing the Hydraulic Fluid Reservoir Filling (A, B1, B2)

A.

The hydraulic system operating normally

B.

The reservoirs air pressurize system must be depressurized

C.

Do not depressurize the system reservoirs

D.

Green hydraulic system must be depressurized

70. What happen if you fill to much hydraulic fluid in the reservoir? (A, B1, B2)

A.

Hydraulic system can not operate

B.

A message "reservoir overfull" appear on ECAM

C.

You cannot pressurize it the reservoir sufficiently and may cause the message "RSVR LO AIR PR" on ECAM.

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71. After removal/installation of large hydraulic components. (B1,B2)

A.

You must fill in the related components with hydraulic fluid.

B.

You must do the related bleeding procedure to make sure that the quantity of the hydraulic fluid in the system is correct and refill if necessary.

C.

You must change the hydraulic fluid.

D.

You must do the hydraulic sampling.

72.When filling the hydraulic fluid Reservoir with a hydraulic service cart, the maximum supply pressure is: (A,B1, B2)

A.

3.5 +0.3 -0 bar (50.7631 +4.3511 -0.0000 psi)

B.

30 bar (435,1132 psi).

C.

45 bar (652,669 psi)

D.

50 bar (725,188 psi)

73. If you think there are fuel fumes when you remove the oil filter cap of the engine oil tank. (A,B1)

A.

You must let the oil tank pressure bleed off for a minimum of 5 minutes before you remove the tank filler cap for oil servicing.

B.

Add oil in the oil tank to full mark

C.

Replace the fuel/oil heat exchanger then flush the engine oil system

D.

Flush the oil tank and fill in with new oil.

74. When filling the hydraulic power accumulators with Nitrogen: (A,B1)

A.

All hydraulic systems must be depressurized

B.

The reservoirs air pressurize system must be depressurized

C.

Do not depressurize the hydraulic systems

D.

Green hydraulic system must be depressurized

ATA-20: STANDARD PRACTICES & DOCUMENTATION

75. Where can you find characteristics and complimentary information of the Part Number: (B1,B2)

A. IPC or AMM A. ASM or AMM B. IPC or ESPM C. ESPM

76. Where you can find procedure for installation of the Push Button switch: (B2)

A. AMM B. IPC C. ASM D. ESPM

77. In the AMM tasks, “WARNING” is meant: (A,B1,B2)

A. Calls attention to use of materials, processes, methods, procedures or limits which must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons

B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to equipment

C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or explanatory information

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78. In the AMM tasks, “CAUTION” is meant: (A,B1,B2)

79. In the AMM tasks, “NOTE” is meant: (A,B1,B2)

80. The Wiring Diagram Manual (WDM) content: (B1,B2)

A. ASM & AWM A. SRM & AWM B. ASM & AWL

C. ASM, AWM and AWL

81. You can access to the Aircraft Wiring List (AWL) by: (B2)

A. Function using the ALPHA-INDEX

B. Fin using the EQUIPMENT LIST or HOOK-UP LIST

C. Fin using the EQUIPMENT LIST or HOOK-UP LIST or by wire number using the MASTER WIRE LIST

D. Wire number using the MASTER WIRE LIST

82. ASM gives : (B1,B2)

A. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault isolation

B. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation

C. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual D. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring

83. TSM gives: (B1,B2)

A. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation

B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual C. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring

D. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault isolation

84. AWM gives: (B2)

A. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation

B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual

C. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault isolation

D. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring

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A. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual

C. The information required to service, repair, replace, adjust, inspect and check equipments and systems of the A/C normally performed on the ramp or in the maintenance hangar

D. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault isolation

ATA 21 - AIR CONDITIONING

86. When the cabin pressurization system in manual mode and with the MAN V/S CTL selection in UP position: (B1,B2)

A. The cabin pressure increases B. The cabin altitude increases

C. The outflow valve moves to the closed position D. The cabin altitude decreases

87. In case of duct overheat the HOT AIR FAULT light will extinguishes when: (B1,B2)

A. The HOT AIR p/b is reset B. The duct overheat goes off C. A and B

D. The pressure regulating valve re-opens

88. When the emergency ram air inlet is open and the delta P is less than 1 PSI : (B1)

A. The outflow valve closes

B. The outflow valve partially opens C. Both pack valves close

D. Both safety valves open

89. Which temperature sensor controls the pack temperature? (B1,B2)

A. Pack inlet temperature sensor B. Pack outlet temperature sensor

C. Compressor outlet temperature sensor D. Water extractor temperature sensor

90. With the zone controller failed completely, the pack outlet temperature is controlled by: (B1,B2)

A. The anti-ice valve B. The pack Controller C. The turbine by-pass valve D. The pressure regulating valve

91. How is the basic temperature regulation generated? (B1,B2)

a. It corresponds to the lowest zone temperature demand,.

b. It adjusts the temperature in the three zones.

c. It corresponds to the highest zone temperature demand.

92. What is the function of the trim air valve? (B1)

a. To optimize the zone temperature by adding cold air.

b. To optimize the zone temperature by adding hot air.

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93. What is the main purpose of the pack anti ice valve? (A,B1,B2)

A. To stop the ice formation across the primary heat exchanger. B. To stop the ice formation across the main heat exchanger. C. To stop the ice formation across pack condenser.

94. What is the purpose of pack bypass valve? (B1)

a. To reduce the air flow to the compressor stage.

b. To modulate the pack discharge temperature. c. To increase the air flow to the turbine stage.

95. What is the purpose of the pack RAM AIR flaps? (A,B1,B2)

a. To ensure cabin ventilation in case both packs fail.

b. To provide air to the pack compressor.

c. To modulate the main air flow through the heat exchangers.

96. What protects the packs from overheat condition? (B1,B2)

A. Electrical sensor in the mixer unit

B. An overheat pneumatic sensor, two electrical sensors at compressor outlet C. An electrical sensor at the water separator outlet

D. A differential pressure operated valve

97. What flow is delivered by pack with Pack Flow selector on LO and bleed air supplied by the APU? (A,B1,B2)

a. Low

b. Normal

c. High

98. The motor number 3 of the outflow valve is controlled from: (B1,b2)

A. CPC 1 or CPC 2

B. “ MAN ” part of the CPC in position 1 C. “ MAN ” part of the CPC in position 2 D. The “Cabin Press “ control panel.

99. On the cabin pressure panel, the FAULT light illuminates when: (B1,B2)

A. SYS 1 or SYS 2 fails B. SYS 1 and SYS 2 fail

C. No landing elevation from FMGS D. Manual mode is selected

100. The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid : (A,B1,B2)

A. Excessive positive pressure differential B. Excessive negative pressure differential C. Excessive cabin altitude.

D. A and B

101. When ditching is selected : (B1,B2)

A. The safety valves and outflow valve are confirmed closed, the pack valves stay open

B. The ventilation inlet and extract valves are opened and the pack valves close C. The outflow valve, the emergency ram air, the ventilation extract valve and pack

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D. The outflow valve, the emergency ram air, the ventilation extract valve and pack valves open

102. Where do you check the correct manual landing elevation setting? (B1,B2)

A. On ECAM “ CAB PRESS “ page B. On the scale of LDG ELEV selector C. On ECAM “ COND “ page

D. No need, because it is automatic ( From FMGC )

103. Where is the ventilation air expelled when both fans P/B are set to OVRD? (B1,B2)

A. To the skin heat exchanger B. Overboard

C. To the cargo under floor

104. When does the avionics ventilation air come from when any OVRD selected? (A,B1,B2)

A. From the avionics bay B. From outside the aircraft C. From the air conditioning duct

D. No ventilation. System is inoperative.

105. What is the purpose of the avionic ventilation skin heat exchanger? (A,B1,B2)

A. To cool the air coming from the avionics equipment when Isolation valve is open. B. To reheat air coming from avionics ventilation system

C. To cool air before it is ducted under the cargo compartment.

ATA-22: AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM 106. The FCU allows: (B2)

A. selection of radio-nav frequencies

B. modification of the flight plan of FM parts C. used control of the aircraft for long term D. used control of the aircraft for short term

107. With the aircraft on ground, it is impossible to: (B2)

A. have an AP active, engines on B. disengage an AP, engines on C. engage an AP, engines on D. engage an AP, engines off

108. The FAC computes rudder travel limit: (B2)

A. only when AP engaged B. only in case of ELAC failure C. only at a/c low speed

D. at any times

109. The Flight Director is engaged: (B2)

A. by pressing the FD p/b on the FCU B. by selecting a mode on the FCU C. automatically at system power rise D. by selecting the INT page on the MCDU

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110. With the AP engaged, the rudder is normally controlled during cruise by: (B2)

A. the FAC B. the ELAC C. the FMGC D. the SEC

111. The AFS computers are: (B2)

A. FMGC and FAC B. FAC and ELAC C. FMGC and SEC D. ELAC and SEC

112. The FMGC functions are: (B2)

A. flight guidance and flight envelope protection B. flight envelope protection and yaw axis control C. flight management and flight envelope protection D. flight management and flight guidance

113. The Flight Guidance are: (B2)

A. autopilot, flight director, autothrust B. flight management, autopilot, autothrust C. autopilot, flight plan, autothrust

D. autopilot, flight director, flight plan

114. The MCDUs allow: (B2)

A. used control of the aircraft for short term B. modification of FG parts

C. used control of the aircraft for long term D. make the flight plan and engage the autopilots

115. The main function of the FAC are: (B2)

A. yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation B. yaw damper, rudder trim, flight envelope protection

C. rudder trim, rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection

D. yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection

116. In flight AP can be engaged when: (B2)

A. aircraft in take off phase B. aircraft in climb phase

C. at least 5 seconds after lift-off D. aircraft in cruise phase

117. Rudder travel limitation is a function of: (B2)

A. FAC only

B. FAC in normal and ELAC in alternate C. ELAC only

D. ELAC in normal and FAC in alternate

118. The trim function of the FAC is: (B2)

A. A pitch trim B. A rudder trim C. An elevator trim

(16)

D. A rudder trim and a pitch trim

119.The trust limit is computed by: (B2)

A. The FMGC according to the AP/FD mode

B. The ECU (EEC) according to the thrust lever position C. The ECU (EEC) according to the AP/FD mode D. The FMGC according to the ECU (EEC) order

120. In Auto mode the trust target is computed by: (B2)

A. The FMGC according to the AP/FD mode

B.The ECU (EEC) according to the thrust lever position C. The ECU (EEC) according to the AP/FD mode D. The FMGC according to the ECU (EEC) order

121. The mandatory parameter used by FAC for Alpha Floor protection is: (B2)

A. A/C maximum speed B. A/C minimum speed C. A/C angle of attack

D. A/C minimum selected speed

122. Normally FAC 1 uses Vc input signal to computes RTL from: (B2)

A. ADIRU 1 and ADIRU 2 B. ADIRU 1 and ADIRU 3 C. ADIRU 2 and ADIRU 3

D. ADIRU 1,ADIRU 2 and ADIRU 3

123. The baro correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU from the: (B2)

A. FCU

B. Master FMGC C. RMPs

D. ADIRS CDU

124. In normal operation the ADIRU’S are aligned using information from the: (B2)

A. FCU

B. ADIRS CDU C. AIDS

D. FMGCs

125. In cruise, lateral AP orders are executed by: (B2)

A. Ailerons and rudder B. Aileron and spoilers C. Spoilers and rudder

D. Spoilers, ailerons and rudder

126. With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR activated, the A/THR mode: (B2)

A. Depends on the AP vertical mode B. Depends on the AP lateral mode C. Can be set by the pilot via FCU D. Can be set by the pilot via MCDUs

(17)

A. AFS computers test on ground B. Land cat 3 capability test on ground C. AFS fault detection on ground D. Complementary tests during landing

128. In case of FMGC 2 failure, FMGC 1 auto tunes: (B2)

A. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 2 B. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 1 C. Side 2 radio nav receivers directly

D. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 3

129. The fuel and time prediction functions are performed by: (B2)

A. FG part of the FMGCs B. FM part of the FMGCs C. The FAC

D. The DMC

130.On the FMA, in the fifth column: (B2)

A. A/THR can be in green only

B. A/THR in cyan indicates A/THR is active C. A/THR can be in green or cyan only D. A/THR in white indicates A/THR is active

131. In flight, you can engage the second AP during: (B2)

A. Cruise phase B. Descend phase

C. Approach phase and ILS armed D. A/C on ground

132. With AP 1 engaged: (B2)

A. FMGC 1 supply both FMAs

B. FMGC 1 supply FMA on CAPT PFD ,FMGC 2 supply FMA on F/O PFD C. FMGC 1 supply FMA on F/O PFD ,FMGC 2 supply FMA on CAPT PFD D. FMGC 2 supply both FMAs

ATA-23: COMMUNICATION

133.The main task of the Decoder encoder unit is to: (B2)

A. interface between directors and aircraft systems B. interface between directors and cabin systems C. control the various cabin systems

D. enable cabin configuration to be changed and system test to be performed

134.The SELCAL function: (B2)

A. performed by an independent unit connected to the AMU B. integrated in the AMU

C. performed inside each transceiver D. performed inside each ACP

135.If the FWD attendant calls the cockpit: (B2)

(18)

B. CALL light comes on on the attendant indication panel and a buzzer is generated by the CIDS

C. ATT light comes on on the capt’s ACP and buzzer is generated by FWC D. ATT light comes on on the forward attendant panel and a high low chime is

generated by the CIDS

136.Aircraft on ground, in order to communicate from the cockpit to the APU position , you must: (A,B1,B2)

A. Select the INT on the audio control panel, and press the “SERV INT” pushbutton B. press “CAB” transmission key

C. press the “SERV INT” pushbutton D. press “CAB” receiving knob

137.The ACPs reset key is used to: (B2)

A. Extinguish all the lights B. Extinguish all the lighted calls C. Cancel all previous selections D. Extinguish all ACPs lights

138.Which is the quickest way to make a passenger address announcement from the cockpit? (B2)

A. Using the handset B. Using the handmike C. Using the boomset

D. Using the oxygenmask microphone

139.Which is the main unit if the CIDS? (B2)

A. The CAM B. The DEUs C. The directors D. The FAP

140.VOR 2 tuning frequencies can be controlled by the: (B2)

A. RMP 1 or FMGC B. RMP 2 only

C. Either RMP 1,RMP 2 or RMP 3 D. RMP 2 or FMGC

141.When selecting VHF 2 on RMP 1 the “SEL” light: (B2)

A. does not illuminate

B. illuminates on RMP 1 and RMP 2 C. illuminates on RMP 1 only D. illuminates on RMP 2 only

142.“MECH” legend flashing amber on an ACP means: (A,B1,B2)

A. An internal ACP failure has been detected

B. The ground mechanic request a communication with the crew C. The cabin attendant requests a communication with the crew

D. The ground mechanic request a communication with the cabin attendant

143.The cabin loudspeakers are connected to the (B2)

(19)

B. Directors C. Deu B

D. Area call panel

144.If the Director 1 fails, what happens? (B2)

A. director 2 take over and provides the PA function only

B. You must energize the emergency mode by pressing the EMER pushbutton on FAP C. The DEU A are disconnected, due to the TOP CUT OFF relay

D. Director 2 provides automatically all the CIDS functions

145.Which unit provides the amplification function for the cabin loudspeaker? (B2)

A. The AMU B. The directors C. The CAM D. The DEU A

146.Three green bars illuminated on the ACP’S VHF 2 key means: (B2)

A. VHF 2 operation is correct B. A selcal is received on VHF 2 C. VHF 2 is selected in transmission D. VHF 2 is selected in reception

147.VHF used for: (B2)

A. Short range communication B. Long range communication

C. Communication between A/C and ground station D. Communication between A/C and other A/C

148.HF used for: (B2)

A. Short range communication B. Long range communication

C. Communication between A/C and ground station D. Communication between A/C and other A/C

149.When one engine is running, the audio level of cabin loudspeakers is increased, which unit controls this function? (B2)

A. The DEUs B. The directors C. The CAM

D. The programming and test panel

150.The loudspeaker volume knobs allow: (A,B1,B2)

A. Controls the loudness of aural alerts and voice messages B. Controls the loudness of voice messages only

C. Adjusts the volume of the loudspeaker for radio communication

D. Adjusts the volume of the loudspeaker for radio communication , aural alerts and voice messages

151.When aircraft is on jacks, in order to communicate from cockpit to APU compartment, the first you must: (B1,B2)

A. Press “CAB” transmission key on ACP B. Press “INT” transmission key on ACP

(20)

C. Select the INT/RAD switch to INT position

D. Press “SVCE INT OVRD” pushbutton switch on overhead panel

152.The ACARS allows: (B1,B2)

A. Interface between system and other system of the aircraft B. Interface between aircraft and other aircraft

C. Interface between aircraft and any ground stations

D. Direct exchange of data between aircraft and airline computer through VHF 3

153.What does the illumination of the “CALL” light on the VHF or HF transmission keys indicate? (B2)

A. The SELCAL system detects a call B. The tower call the aircraft

C. The call from cabin attendant D. The call from ground mechanic

154.Whih RPM is powered in the emergency electrical configuration? (B2)

A. RMP 1 and RMP 2 B. RMP 1

C. RMP 2

D. RMP 1 ,RMP 2 and RMP 3

155.When ACP 1 fails: (B2)

A. ACP 3 take over by selecting the selector on audio switching panel to F/O 3 position

B. ACP 3 take over automatically C. The audio control functions are lost

D. ACP 3 take over by selecting the selector on audio switching panel to CAPT 3 position

156.Escape slide and door pressure sensors are connected to: (B2)

A. DEU A B. DEU B C. Directors

D. Programming and test panel

157.How are the communications radios controlled? (B2)

A. From any one of the 3 RMP’s B. From any one of the 3 ACP’s C. From any one of the 2 MCDU’s

D. From any one of the 3 RMP’s and one of the 3 ACP’s

ATA-24: ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

158.DC BAT BUS can be supplied by the: (B1,B2)

A. DC BUS 1 or batteries B. DC BUS 2 or batteries

C. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or batteries D. Only DC BUS 1

159.How is the RAT extension system controlled? (B1,B2)

(21)

B. By mean of three solenoids C. By mean of two solenoids D. By mean of one solenoid only

160.The supply priorities for FOR AC BUS 1 (2) are: (B1,B2)

A. The related IDG, then the other IDG, then External Power, then the APU Generator

B. External Power, then the APU Generator, then the related IDG, then the other IDG C. External Power, then the related IDG, then the other IDG, then the APU

Generator

D. The related IDG, then External Power, then the APU Generator, then the other IDG

161.The AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by: (B1,B2)

A. AC BUS 2 . B. AC BUS 1 C. Static Inverter

D. Emergency Generator

162.What is the DC ESS BUS supplied by if TR2 has failed: (B1,B2)

A. TR 1 B. ESS TR C. BAT 2 D. AC 1

163.The Static Inverter operates (B1,B2)

A. Only in flight B. Permanently C. When on batteries

D. When one engine generator fails

164.On ground, aircraft is not electrically supplied, the activation of <MAN ON> switch P/B causes: (B1,B2)

A. Reset of CSM/G control unit B. RAT extension

C. Nothing to happen

D. Test of RAT and EMERGEN fault light

165.The emergency generator is located (B1,B2)

A. In APU compartment B. In the Main Wheel Well

C. In the Avionics Compartment above batteries D. Alongside the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)

166.In “COLD” aircraft configuration, where the batteries’ voltage can be checked? (A,B1,B2)

A. There is NO INDICATION B. On the SCAM ELEC page

C. On the ELEC-OVERHEAD panel D. On the EMR.ELEC.POWER panel

(22)

A. Emergency generator takes over essential buses, only if both AC BUS 1 and 2 are off

B. Nothing happens if generator 1 and 2 supply their own networks C. Emergency generator takes over essential buses

D. And a generator fails, the emergency generator takes over the corresponding networks .

168.When the SMOKE push button released out: (B1,B2)

A. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply direct from AC BUS1 B. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply direct from GEN 2 C. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply, direct from GEN. 1 D. Fuel pump 2 on the left and right supply direct from GEN 1

169.What is the DC ESS BUS SHED supply if TR 1 has failed (B1,B2)

A. TR 1 B. BAT 2 C. ESS TR D. BAT 1

170.Can you reset IDG 1 in the flight? (B1,B2)

A. Yes B. No

171.What is the configuration if BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 closed (B1,B2)

A. EXT PWR "supplies AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 supplies AC BUS 2 B. APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2

C. APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS2 D. GEN 1 supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2

172.Following an IDG 1 over temperature, IDG 1 is: (B1,B2)

A. Automatically de-energized and re-energized as soon as the Temperature returns to Normal

B. Manually de-energized by pressing GEN 1 Pushbutton

C. Automatically disconnected and reconnected as soon as the Temperature returns to Normal

D. Disconnected by pressing the guarded IDG 1 Pushbutton

173.Maintenance buses only are supplied when: (A, B1,B2)

A. External power is connected and blue ON light on EXT PWR pushbutton illuminated; MAIN BUS switch in ON position

B. External power is connected and the green AVAIL light on EXT PWR pushbutton illuminated; MAIN BUS switch is ON position

C. Any generator is coupled to the network; MAIN BUS switch is in ON position, D. The APU generator or external power is connected.; EXT PWR pushbutton

illuminated; MAIN BUS switch in ON position

174.Both light “AVAIL” and “NOT IN USE” in the external power receptacle are illuminated when: (A,B1,B2)

A. An External Power Source is supplying the Aircraft Network B. An External Power Source is supplying the Maintenance Bus Bars

C. At least one External Power Parameter is not correct, the External Power Contactor (EPC) stays Open

(23)

D. All External Power Parameters are correct but the EPC is Open

175.If a high APU generator oil temperature detection occurs: (A, B1,B2)

A. An immediate APU shut down is commanded and the APU Generator is denergized B. The APU Generator is disconnected only

C. The APU Generator Fault Light illuminates only D. A Warning Message is displayed on ECAM only

176.What does the AC ESS FEED PB white “ALT” light indicates? (B1, B2)

A. AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 1 B. AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2 C. AC ESS BUS is supplied by EMER GEN

D. AC ESS BUS is supplied by STATIC INVERTER

177.How is the DC BAT BUS normally powered by? (B1, B2)

A. BATTERIES

B. DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor C. DC BUS 2

D. DC ESS BUS

178.What does the EXT PWR PB “AVAIL” light illuminated on EXT PWR panel means?

(A, B1, B2)

A. External power is plugged in,and all parameters are normal B. All external power parameters are normal but not plugged in C. External power is plugged in

D. External power is plugged in and supplied to A/C network

179.If both main AC BUSES lose electrical power with airspeed above kts, what will happen? (B1,B2)

A. Nothing

B. The RAT deploys

C. The EMER GEN supply power to the A/C network

D. The RAT automatically deploys and pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system,which drives the hydraulic driven EMER GEN

180.What is the output of the emergency generator? (B1,B2)

A. 90 KVA B. 10 KVA C. 5 KVA D. 1 KVA

181.What is the purpose of the static inverter? (B1,B2)

A. To provide AC power to the AC ESS bus from the BAT when operating in the EMER ELEC configuration

B. To provide DC power to the DC ESS bus

C. To provide AC power to the AC BUS 1 from the BAT when operating in the EMER ELEC configuration

D. To provide AC power to the AC STATIC INV bus from the BAT when operating in the EMER ELEC configuration

(24)

A. 90 KVA B. 50 KVA C. 5 KVA D. 1 KVA

ATA25: FURNISHING

183.Smoke hoods are supplied for the cabin attendants to: (A,B1,B2)

A.

Supply oxygen for passengers.

B.

Fight a fire or against emission of smoke or noxious gases.

C.

Breathe oxygen.

184. Where are the cabin depressurization doors mounted? (B1)

A.

On the upper sidewall panels

B.

On the ceiling panels

C.

On the lower sidewall panels

185. From where the escape slide inflation cylinder is checked? (B1)

A.

From the cargo compartment only.

B.

From the PTP only.

C.

From the cargo compartment or from the PTP.

186. Which device has to be unlocked before closing the slide window? (A,B1,B2)

A.

A locking pin on the sliding window frame.

B.

The sliding window operating handle.

C.

None.

187. Which cabin panels are removable? (A,B1)

A.

Lower sidewall panels only.

B.

All the panels.

C.

Upper sidewall panels only.

188.Where are passenger oxygen masks stored? (A,B1,B2)

A.

In the passenger service unit

B.

In the seat arm rest

C.

In the overhead stowage compartment

189. Where are the A320 aircraft inflation reservoirs of the escape slide of emergency exit door located? (B1,B2)

A.

in the container at the bottom of the door

B.

In the overhead stowage compartment over the door

C.

In the aft cargo compartment

190. When you check the pax door escape/slide inflation cylinder, where must the pressure indication be? (B1,B2)

A.

In the green GO band

B.

In the red band

(25)

191. In the cargo compartment where are the rapid decompression panels installed? (B1)

A.

In the cut out of the ceiling panels

B.

In the fixed partition walls

C.

In the cut out of the ceiling panels and lateral right side wall linings

192. The cargo loading control box being supplied, which latch insures the energization of the PDUs? (B1,B2)

A.

The door sill latch

B.

The ZX-single latch 32.

C.

The fixed YZ latch.

193. Captain and First Officer Seats are: (A,B1,B2)

A.

Symmetrical and have the same function

B.

Asymmetrical and have the same function

C.

Have the same function and interchangeable.

D.

Folding type and has no adjustment

194. Captain and First Officer Seats electrical control system permits (A,B1,B2)

A.

Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction

B.

Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the backrest

C.

Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the lumbar rest

D.

All above

195. The rapid-decompression safety-system is installed in the aircraft (B1,B2)

A.

Prevents structural damage to the fuselage and damage to the equipment and furnishings

B.

Provides quick escape facility of the aircraft

C.

Provides quick access to aircraft area.

D.

Prevents overpressure to aircraft area

196. Where is the inflation cylinder of the passenger door escape slide located? (B1)

A.

In a container at the bottom of the door.

B.

In the overhead stowage compartment over the door.

C.

In the aft cargo compartment.

D.

In the fwd cargo compartment.

197. The A320 aircraft is fitted with emergency evacuation slide at: (A,B1,B2)

A.

The 4 entry doors.

B.

The overwing exits

C.

The 4 entry doors and the overwing exits

198.The sidestick armrest of Captain and First Officer seats (B1,B2)

A.

Possible to lift it vertically and stow it behind the backrest

B.

Located on the inboard side of the seat

(26)

D.

Can not fold back to a vertical position

199.Third Occupant seat in the cockpit (A,B1,B2)

A.

Can slide along the Y-axis to take up a position on the aircraft centerline

B.

Have longitudinal adjustment

C.

Can moves longitudinally and vertically

D.

Attached to the left rear panel in the cockpit

200.The passenger seats (A,B1,B2)

A.

Seat pans are upholstered and not foldable or adjustable

B.

Can fold the inner armrests between the backrests

C.

Upholstered backrest assembly of each seat may be adjusted

D.

All above

201.The Passenger Service/Information Units (PSIUs) (A,B1,B2)

A.

Has two primary units: Passenger Service Unit (PSU) and Passenger Information Unit (PIU)

B.

The Passenger Service Unit (PSU), installed above each seat row

C.

The Passenger Information Unit (PIU), installed above each second seat row

D.

All above

202. The aircraft galley has two optional configurations: wet galley and dry galley (B1,B2)

A.

Wet galley has electrical equipment, a potable water supply and waste water equipment.

B.

Wet galley has a potable water supply only

C.

Wet galley has no system supplies

D.

Wet galley has electrical supply

ATA 26 - FIRE PROTECTION

203. Where are the Engine fire detectors located? (A,B1,B2)

A. On the Fan and the Turbine and Pylon B. On the Pylon, the Fan and the Core C. On the Core, Gearbox and the Nozzle

204. Is the extinguishing system controlled by the FDU: (A,B1,b2)

A. Yes, continuously

B. Yes, whenever engine fire is detected C. No

205. How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished: (A,B1,B2)

A. From APU fire panel. B. From APU compartment C. Automatically.

D. From external power panel.

206. You press the APU shut off push button at 108VU panel to? (A,B1,B2)

(27)

B. Initiate the emergency shut down of APU without cooling down sequence. C. Initiate the emergency shut down of APU and discharge the APU fire bottle.

207. How many fire detectors does the APU fire detection system comprise of? (B1,B2)

A. One B. Two C. Three

208.To test the APU auto extinguishing function, you must : (A,B1,B2)

A. Select APU master switch ON.

B. Press the APU fire TEST push button.

C. Select APU master switch ON and press the APU fire TEST push button.

209. When the Engine fire pushbutton is released out what aircraft system are isolated: (B1,b2)

A. Fuel, Air, Electricity, Hydraulic. B. Fuel, Air, Oil, Hydraulic.

C. Fuel, Air, Hydraulic.

D. Fuel, Electricity, Hydraulic.

210. What additional external warning is/ are activated in case of APU fire on GROUND? (A,B1,B2)

A. APU fire light & external horn warning. B. A fire bell warning.

C. An external horn warning only.

D. An external horn warning & Red disk indicator disappears.

211. The agent push button is active when: (B1,B2)

A. The corresponding “ Disch ” light is on. B. Engine fire push button illuminates.

C. Engine fire pushbutton is pressed and released. D. It is pressed.

212. What does the Engine fire TEST push button verify? (B1,B2)

A. Only the fire detection loop A and B, FDU, indication and warnings. B. Only the squib circuit of AGENT 1 and 2.

C. Both simultaneously.

213. When the Engine fire P/B is released out, which corresponding fire valve are closed (B1,B2)

A. Fuel cross feed valve.

B. LP fuel and hydraulic fire shut off valve. C. HP fuel shut off valve.

214.When the Engine fire P/B is released out (B1,B2)

A. Pack valve & Bleed valve closed B. Only engine bleed valve closed C. None of them closed.

215.When the Engine fire P/B is released out, what happens to the electrical generation? (B1,B2)

(28)

A. IDG de-energised. B. IDG disconnected. C. IDG energised.

216.Lavatory fire extinguishing is performed by? (A,B1,B2)

A. Portable extinguishers. B. Fire bottles.

C. Waste bin fire extinguishers.

217.How can the avionic compartment smoke detector be tested? (B1,B2)

A. Permanently by AEVC.

B. By the dedicated test push button. C. By a manual test from CFDS.

218.Which warning lights are triggered in case smoke detected in avionic compartment? (B1,B2)

A. BLOWER FAULT and EXTRACT FAULT. B. GEN1 LINE SMOKE.

219.What happens if the SDCU is faulty? (B1,B2)

A. The LAV smoke detection is INOP. B. The Cargo smoke detection is INOP.

C. Both LAV and Cargo smoke detection system are INOP.

220.If smoke is detected in AFT cargo compartment, what happens? (B1,B2)

A. AFT cargo ventilation system automatically closed.

B. Fire extinguishing bottle will be discharged automatically in to AFT cargo compartment.

221.How many fire extinguishing bottle(s) is(are) provided for the cargo compartments? (A,B1,B2)

A. There’s one for FWD and one for AFT cargo compartment. B. There’s one for both FWD and AFT cargo compartments. C. None.

222.What is the design principle of the engine fire loop? (B1,B2)

A. Resistance. B. Pressure. C. Capacitor.

ATA27 FLIGHT CONTROL:

223.In normal condition, what are the active protections in flare mode? (B1,B2)

A.

Bank angle and stall protections

B.

Bank angle and high speed protections

C.

Stall protection only

224.Which modes exist for an elevator servo control actuator? (B1)

A.

Only the re-centering mode

(29)

B.

Active, damping and centering mode

C.

Active and damping mode

D.

Active, damping and locking mode

225.With complete EFCS (ELECTRIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM) failure the rudder and THS are: (B1,B2)

A.

Lost

B.

Controlled by mechanical channels

C.

Only usable during land/recovery

D.

Operated electrically

226.If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed: (B1,B2)

A.

Pitch control is provided by the FAC's

B.

Pitch control can only be achieved from the trim wheels

C.

Pitch control is controlled by SEC 2 or 1

D.

Pitch control is controlled by the FCDC's

227.Which modes exist for an aileron elevator servo control actuator? (B1)

A.

Only the re-centering mode

B.

Active, damping and centering mode

C.

Active and damping mode

D.

Active, damping and locking mode

228.What effect on the slat and flap system will failure of SFCC 2 cause? (B1,B2)

A.

Slat system operates at half speed

B.

Flap system operates at half speed

C.

Slat and flap systems operate at half speed

D.

Slat and flap systems are locked

229.Slat retraction from 18° to fully retracted is inhibited if : (B1,B2)

A.

 > 8.5° or CAS < 148 Kts

B.

 < 7.1° or CAS > 171 Kts

C.

 > 8.5° or CAS > 148 Kts

D.

 > 8.5° or CAS < 171 Kts

230.Which surfaces are used for the load alleviation function? (B1,B2)

A.

Ailerons and spoilers 1 and 2

B.

Ailerons and spoilers 4 and 5

C.

Only spoilers

D.

Ailerons and spoilers 1 to 4

231.How many servo control actuators power the rudder surface? (B1,B2)

A.

One

B.

Two

C.

Three

(30)

232.When both side sticks are moved in the same or opposition direction: (B1,B2)

A.

The surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflection of both

side sticks

B.

The surface movement is proportional to the last stick deflection

C.

The surface movement follows the captain's side stick deflection

D.

The surface movement follows the co-pilot's side stick deflection

233.If one hydraulic system fails: (B1,B2)

A.

Only the roll and pitch axes are available

B.

All the three axes are available with some roll spoiler retraction

C.

Manual pitch trim and rudder are available

D.

All servo control actuators are supplied through the PTU 89.

234.What signals cause the rudder pedal movement? (B1,B2)

A.

Yaw damping signals.

B.

Rudder trim signals

C.

Turn coordination signal

D.

Nothing

235.With one flap PCU motor inoperative, the flap system: (B1,B2)

A.

Operates at half speed

B.

Operates normally

C.

Is locked by the pressure off brakes on both wings

D.

Is locked by the wing tip brakes

236.FAC 1 controls and monitors one yaw damper, one electrical rudder trim motor and: (B1,B2)

A.

One electrical motor for the rudder travel limitation unit

B.

One servo actuator on each elevator

C.

Both THS trim motors

D.

The mechanical linkage from rudder pedals

237.In normal conditions, what are the active protections in flare mode? (B1,B2)

A.

Bank angle and stall protections

B.

Bank angle and high speed protections

C.

Stall protection only

238.What are the active protections in direct law (B1,B2)

A.

Stall protection

B.

No protection

C.

High speed protection

239.What happens if an electric trim motor fails (B1,B2)

A.

THS electric trim is lost

B.

THS trims at half speed

(31)

240.Which signals cause rudder pedal movements (B1,B2)

A.

Yaw damping signals

B.

Rudder trim signals

C.

Turn coordination signals

241.What happens when slat/flap config is 1+F and CAS (Calibrated air speed) reaches 210 knots? (B1,B2)

A.

Flaps retract automatically to 0 and the new Slat/Flap config is 1

B.

Flaps extend automatically because the speed too high

C.

The alpha lock function is engaged because the speed too high

242.When is the half speed monitor active? (B1,B2)

A.

As soon as the directional valve energized

B.

When the control valve is in full speed position

C.

Always

243.SFCC 1 flap channel has failed. What are the consequences for the flap system? (B1,B2)

A.

The flap system is locked by WTB.

B.

The flap system is not affected

C.

The flap system operates at half speed

244.Where are the Wing Tib Brakes located? (B1,B2)

A.

At the wing tib, outboard of the APPU

B.

Between tract 11 and 12, in each wing.

C.

Between tract 7 and 8, in each wing.

245.Where are the torque limiters located? (B1,B2)

A.

On the torque sharps

B.

On the actuators

C.

On the PCU output sharps

ATA 28 – FUEL SYSTEM

246.The fuel suction (gravity feed) valves are: (B1)

A. Always open regardless of pumps status B. Normally closed by pumps pressure C. Normally closed by spring force

D. Open automatically when fuel cross feed is selected on.

247.When does the FADEC close the fuel return valve? (B1)

A. With a signal from the FLSCU B. With a signal from the FQIs C. If the IDG oil is too hot D. With an outer cell overfilling

248.What happens if you extend the slats, with fuel in the center tank, all pumps are running, center tank pumps are on “AUTO” mode? (B1,B2)

(32)

B. Center tank pumps start C. Wing tank pumps start

D. Pumps operation is not affected

249.A pressure switch for each pump monitors a: (A,B1,B2)

A. Pressure differential B. Feed pipe pressurization C. Pressure increase

D. Loss of pressure

250.What happen if a high level is detected? (A,B1,B2)

A. A warning is triggered: too much fuel B. Booster pumps are not operating correctly C. The corresponding REFUEL valve closes D. All the refueling operating is stopped

251.Are wing pumps running while center tank is supplying? (A,B1,B2)

A. Yes, wing tank pumps run continuously B. No, only when center tank is empty C. No, because of center tank pump priority D. One of the two pumps is running in stand-by

252.When the center tank is empty, in auto mode, center tank pumps: (A,B1,B2)

A. Must be manually switched OFF

B. Stop and wing tank pumps start running C. Stop automatically

D. Run for 2 minutes

253.Refuel valves may be controlled: (A,B1,B2)

A. By refuel pressure B. Electrically only C. Manually only

D. Electrically or manually

254.The APU fuel feed is assured by: (A,B1,B2)

A. Fuel booster pumps only B. APU fuel pump only C. All pumps together D. A or B

255.What is the maximum total fuel capacity for VNA’s A320 aircraft? (A,B1,B2)

A. 12 470 KG B. 15 588 KG C. 18 932 KG D. 20 829 KG

256.What does the fuel mode SEL pushbutton control? (B1,B2)

A. Center and wing tank pumps B. Center tank pumps only C. Wing tank pumps only D. Pumps and valves operation

(33)

257.In normal operation, each engine is supplied by: (A,B1,B2)

A. One wing tank pump and/ or one center tank pump B. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or one center tank pump

C. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or two center tank pumps

D. One wing tank pump and/ or two center tank pumps

258.During refueling, the wing tank fills in the following order: (A,B1,B2)

A. The Outer cell and Inner cell at the same time B. The Inner cell first, then the Outer cell

D. The Outer cell first, then the Inner cell

259.The inner cell is refueled only when? (A,B1,B2)

A. Center tank is full. B. Outer cell is full.

C. Outer cell is empty.

260.The maximum refuel pressure is? (A,B1,B2)

A. 11 psi B. 45 psi C. 50 psi

261.The END light in the refuel/defuel panel illuninate, means? (A,B1,B2)

A. Pre-selected fuel is equal to actual fuel.

B. All fuel tanks are full, refuel process stopped automatically.

C. Any high level sensor detected fuel.

262.When performing the refuel, defuel, Ground transfer, the R/D electrical circuit is enable by? (A,B1,B2)

A. Power from the aircraft electrical net work only. B. Carrying out HI LVL test.

C. Contact R/D panel door switch.

263.What happens when low level is detected in the inner cell? (B1,B2)

A. Inner cell transfer valves open.

B. Inner cell transfer valves close to isolate the inner cells C. Pumps restart to suck fuel from outer cells.

264.In which cell are the full level sensors fitted? (B1,B2)

A. Inner cells only. B. Outer cells only.

C. Inner and outer cells.

265.To which tank does the re-circulated fuel returns? (B1,B2)

A. Inner cells.

B. Outer cells. C. Center tanks.

ATA-29 HYDRAULIC:

266.In flight, if the blue electric pump fails the blue system: (A,B1,B2)

A.

Is lost.

(34)

C.

Can be recovered by the PTU.

D.

Both B and C.

267.Which component(s) send a Warning and Fault signals on the blue hydraulic system? (B1,B2)

A.

Only the low air pressure switch

B.

Only the low level detector

C.

The high level detector

D.

Overheat sensor, low air pressure switch and low level detector

268.In flight, the blue hydraulic system can be supplied by: (B1,B2)

A.

The RAT and the electrical pump.

B.

The engine driven pump.

C.

The PTU (Power Transfer Unit).

D.

It can not be supplied.

269.The RAT is automatically extended in case of: (B1,B2)

A.

Loss of AC bus1 and bus2 and speed above 100 Knots.

B.

Blue hydraulic pump failure

C.

Can only be extended manually.

D.

Blue pump delivery pressure dropping below 1750 PSI.

270.During first engine start the PTU is: (A,B1,B2)

A.

Automatically running.

B.

Tested.

C.

Inhibited.

271.During second engine start the PTU is: (B1, B2)

A.

Automatically running.

B.

Tested.

C.

Inhibited.

272.What happens if the hydraulic pressure drops, in the Yellow hydraulic systems? (B1)

A.

The priority valve close automatically, cuts the pressure to the primary flight controls, in order to supply the flaps

B.

The priority valve opens, and supply only the primary flight controls

C.

The priority valve closes cut off hydraulic power to the flaps, in order to supply the other users

D.

The priority valve modulates the pressure to the flaps.

273.When is engine fire Shut Off valve of a hydraulic system closed? (B1,B2)

A.

Automatically when the engine is shut down

B.

If the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton is released out.

C.

Automatically as soon as engine fire is detected

274.To which system(s) will the Ram Air Turbine provide hydraulic power? (A,B1,B2)

A.

The blue system