Pharmacology

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MCU-FDTMF MCU-FDTMF COLLOGE OF MEDICINE COLLOGE OF MEDICINE DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACOLOGY DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACOLOGY Board Questions Board Questions

1. A patient came in because of severe headache. Before giving a drug, the physician must know what the drug will do to the body. This is known as:

A. Pharmacodynamic C. Drug development

B. Pharmacokinetic D. Adverse drug reaction

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp. 31}

2. Distribution of drugs to tissue:

A. Is independent on blood flow to the organ

B. Is independent of the solubility of the drug to the tissue

C. Depend on the unbound drug concentration gradient between blood and the tissue

D. Is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins MPL = 0.5

GG 10th_{Ed pp.20}

3. Giving a second drug in order to enhance the action of a primary drug is a kind of drug interaction known as:

A. potentiation C. additive

B. synergism D. antagonism

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 72}

4. Two drugs have said to have this property when they reached the same plasma concentration at the same rate after oral administration:

A. Potency C. Bioavailability

B. Efficacy D. Bioequivalence

MPL= 0.5

GG 10th_{Ed pp 8}

5. When the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration it is:

A. Zero order kinetic C. Maechelis Menten kinetics

B. First order kinetics D. none of the above MPL= 0.33

Katzung 8th_{Ed pp 35}

6. Entero-hepatic recycling of drugs is:

A. Volume of distribution C. First pass effect

B. Half-life D. First order kinetics

MPL= 0.5

7. Which of the following reactions is most effective for Phase II elimination of hydrophobic drugs?

A. glucoronidation C. oxidation

B. hydrolysis D. reduction

MPL= 0.33

(2)

A. Cytochrome p450 enzymes C. Esterases

B. NADH or NADPH cofactors D. Molecular oxygen

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp12}

9. Jovita after recurrent seizure became comatose. Blood gas analysis showed severe metabolic acidosis. The antidote for Jovita is:

A. Endophonium C. Pyridoxine

B. Atropine sulfate D. Thiamine

MPL= 0.5

GG 8th_{Ed. Pp76}

10.A 14 year old was rushed to the E.R. because of poisoning. P.E. showed increased sweating and salivation with constricted pupils. The most likely substance ingested is:

A. Salicylates C.Opioids

B. Anticholinesterase drugs D.Antidepressants MP= 0.5

GG 8th_{Ed. pp184}

11.Which of the following will produce the most rapid induction of anesthesia?

A. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane

B. Nitrous oxide D. Isoflurane

MPL= 0.25

GG 8th_Ed.pp

12.Of the following drugs, this tranquilizer has muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant properties:

A. Diazepam C. Ethanol

B. Sodium Luminal D. Meprobamate

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 409}

13.An anticonvulsant which is metabolized to Phenobarbital, hence, their clinical effects are very similar:

A. Carbamazepine C. Diazepam

B. Primidone D. Oxazepam MPL= 0.5

GG 10th_{Ed pp 532}

14.The first synthetic local anesthetics widely used for infiltration anesthesia: A. Procaine C. Etidocaine

B. Bupivacaine D. Benzocaine

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 376}

(3)

A. Isoflurane C. Nitrous oxide

B. Halothane D. Enflurane MPL= 0.33

GG 10th_{Ed pp 351-352}

16.Which of the following inhalation anesthetics is most likely to produce diffusional hypoxia?

A. Cyclopropane C. Nitrous oxide

B. Halothane D. Methoxyflurane

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 355}

17.Secobarbital and ethanol when given together show:

A. Additive sedative action

B. Reduced sedative action C. Competitive antagonism D. Chemical antagonism

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 418}

18. Nitrous oxide has a:

A. potent action on the medullary center B. significant effect on renal function

C. reliable surgical anesthesia only under hyperbaric condition

D. potent relaxation effect

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 355-356}

19.Of the Phenothiazines, which is the most popularly used as an antipsychotic drug?

A. Chlorpromazine C. Chlordiazepoxide

B. Meprobamate D. Diphenhydramine

MPL= 1

20.Extrapyramidal adverse effect is commonly seen with the use of this anti-psychotic agent:

A. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine

B. Thioridazine D. Fluoxetine

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 488}

21.An agent that is used in the treatment of organo-phosphate poisoning:

A. Atropine C. Physostigmine

B. Neostigmine D. Naloxone

MPL= 1

(4)

22.The major action involve in the antiseizure activity of Phenytoin is:

A. Block of sodium ion channel

B. Block of calcium ion channel

C. Facilitation of GABA action on chloride ion D. Inhibition of GABA transaminase

MPL= 0.5

GG 10th_{Ed pp 529}

23.A 3 years old was brought to the ER because of recurrent attacks of blank stares lasting for few minutes. This child is best manage with this anti-seizure agent:

A. Phenobarbital C. Lamotrigine

B. Ethosuximide D. Vigabantrine MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 535}

24.Prolonged treatment with this anti-seizure agent is associated with gingival hyperplasia :

A. Ethosuximide C. Valproate

B. Phenobarbital D. Phenytoin

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed 530}

25.This is an inhibitory neurotransmitter:

A. Acetylcholine C. Glycine

B. Glutamic acid D. GABA

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 304}

26.The best treatment for Parkinson’s disease is:

A. Levodopa C. Amantadine

B. Selegiline D. Pergolide

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 555}

27.This drug competitively inhibits the binding of aldosterone to mineralocorticoid receptors:

A. amiloride C. spirinolactone

B. triamterene D. hydrochlorothiazide

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 779}

28.This drug potentiates the ototoxic effect of loop diuretics:

A. coumadin C. digitalis

B. lithium D. streptomycin

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 773}

29.A diuretic agent that inhibit NaCl symport:

A. spirinolactone C. triamterene

B. ethacrynic acid D. hydrochlorothiazide

(5)

30.A symphatomimetic agent that also acts as beta adrenergic agonist:

A. dopamine C. isoproterenol

B. dobutamine D. norepinephrine MPL= 0.5

GG 10th_{Ed pp 228}

31.This drug acts by inhibiting renal systemic and tissue generation of angiotensin II:

A. losartan C. amrinone

B. captopril D. hydralazine MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed. Pp910}

32.Dopamine is used in the treatment of advanced left heart failure because it: A. causes vasoconstriction

B. produces positive inotropic effect

C. reduces left ventricular afterload D. decreases cardiac output

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 925}

33.The following are effects of cardiac glycosides except: A. inhibits NaKATPase

B. decreased calcium entry to myocardium

C. reduced reuptake of norepinephrine from nerve terminals D. direct inotropic effects on cardiac muscle

MPL= 0.33

GG 10th_{Ed pp 916}

34.Of the vasodilators listed below, the drug of choice for the treatment of acute anginal attack is:

A. Nitroglycerin C. Nifedipine

B. Hydralazine D. Propranolol

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 911}

35.This angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) is a prodrug and must be hydrolyzed by the esterases in the liver:

A. captoril C. lisinopril

B. enalapril D. trondolapril MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 822}

36.A contraindication to the use of beta blockers

A. Bronchial asthma C. Thyrotoxicosis

B. Hypertension D. Congestive heart failure

MPL=1

(6)

37.An acute attack of re-entrant supraventricular tachycardia will respond to:

A. Digitalis C. Magnesium sulfate

B. Verapamil D. Quinidine

MPL= 0.5

GG 10th_{Ed pp 965}

38.A 60 years old female patient complained of nystagmus after taking this antiarrythmic drug. The drug could be:

A. Disopyramide C. Procainamide

B. Lidocaine D. Quinidine MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 961}

39.The mechanism of action of gembfibrozil is: A. Increase excretion of bile acid salts

B. Increase expression of high affinity LDL- receptor

C. Increase hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase

D. Inhibition of secretion of VLDL by the liver

MPL= 0.33

GG 10th_{Ed 993}

40.This antihyperlipidemic agents reduces circulating cholesterol levels by binding to cholesterol in the GIT?

A. niacin C. clofibrate

B. cholestyramine D. gemfibrozil MPL= 0.33

GG = 10th_{Ed 989}

41.Which of the following drugs is used as an emergency agent for hypertensive crisis?

A. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine

B. Diltiazem D. Nitroprusside

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 890}

42.A Second generation Sulfonylurea that can inhibit peripheral deiodination of thyroid hormone

A. Tolbutamide C. Glyburide

B. Chlorpropamide D. Glimepiride

MPL=0.5

GG 10th_{Ed pp1702}

43.A member of the newer oral hypoglycemic agents classified as insulin sensitizers

A. Rosiglitazone C. Glimepiride

B. Voglibose D. Repaglinide

MPL= 0.33

GG 10th_{Ed pp 1706}

44.A thionamide that can block peripheral deiodination of thyroid hormone

A. Propranolol C. Prophylthiouracil

B. Carbimazole D. Methimazole

MPL = 0.5

(7)

45.Which among these antithombotic drugs inhibit the synthesis of thomboxane by irreversible acetylation of the enzyme cyclooxygenase?

A. Abciximab C. Integrilin

B. Aspirin D. Ticlodipine MPL= 0.5

46.An isoxazole derivative of ethinyltestosterone that is used to suppress ovarian function:

A. Danazol C. Raloxifene

B. Clomiphene D. Mifepristone

MPL= 0.33

47.A gnRH analog which produces gonadal suppression:

A. Flutamide C. Finasteride

B. Leuprolide D. Spironolactone MPL= 0.25

48.A principal regulator of bone mineral homeostasis which needs to be metabolized to gain biologic activity:

A. Vitamin D C. Glucocorticoids

B. Parathyroid hormone D. Adrenal androgens

MPL=1

49.Which among the following is a long-acting glucocorticoids? A. Betamethasone C. Prednisone

B. Cortisone D. Triamcinolone

MPL= 1

50.Antineoplastic agent usually cause the following side effects EXCEPT:

A. loss of hair C. nausea and vomiting

B. liver damage D. bone marrow suppression MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{ed pp 1388}

51.Busulfan, a useful drug in chronic myelocytic leukemia is:

A. An antimetabolite C. an alkylating agent

B. An antibiotic D. a hormonal agent

MPL= 0.5

GG 10-th Ed pp 1383 52.An immunopotentiating agent with an antihelminthic property:

A. Herceptin C. Interferon

(8)

53.The most effective drug to use during acute attacks of gouty arthritis is:

A. Allopurinol C. Colchicine

B. Probenecid D. Phenylbutazone

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 719}

54.One approach in the treatment of bronchial asthma is the use of mediator release inhibitors which would include:

A. Cromolyn sodium C. Terbutaline

B. Theophylline D. Ketotifen

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp 742}

55.Which anti-asthmatic would be your choice if you want one with a less cardiac activity?

A. Epinephrine C. Terbutaline

B. Ephedrine D. Isoproterenol

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{ed pp 736}

56. A long acting Beta-2 selective agonist used for asthma prophylaxis:

A. Cromolyn C. Metaproterenol

B. Ipatropium D. Salmeterol

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{ed pp 737}

57. The H2 antagonist with the highest bioavailability:

A. Cimetidine C. Ranitidine

B. Famotidine D. Nizatidine

MPL= 0.25

58.An irreversible proton pump inhibitor:

A. Lanzoprazole C. Omeprazole

B. Pantoprazole D. Famotidine

MPL= 0.75

GG 10th_{Ed 1007}

59.This drug is used in the treatment of PUD as a mucosal protective agent A. Sucralfate C. magnesium OH

B. metronidazole D. ocreotide

MPL= 0.5

60.Ethambutol is administered concurrently with other antituberculous drugs in the treatment of TB inorder to:

A. Reduce the pain of injection B. Facilitate penetration of the BBB

C. Retard the development of organism resistance

D. Delay excretion of other anti TB drugs by the kidney MPL= 0.25

(9)

61.The mainstay drug in the treatment of all types of leprosy is:

A. Clofazimine C. Isoniazid

B. Dapsone D. Rifampicin MPL= 1

62.Vestibular and auditory dysfunction can follow the administration of:

A. Tetracycline C. Clindamycin

B. Amikacin D. Carbenicillin MPL= 0.75

GG 10th_{ed 1227-1228}

63.A beta-lactamase inhibitor:

A. Cefotaxime C. Sulbactam

B. Amoxicillin D. Ticarcillin

MPL= 0.5

64.A drug of choice in Rickettsial infections:

A. Chloramphenicol C. Sulfonamide

B. Tetracycline D. Polymyxin B MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed 1240}

65.An antimicrobial agent which inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis:

A. Neomycin C. Erythromycin

B. Cephalexin D. Trimethoprim MPL= 1

66.Gray baby syndrome, a form of cardio-respiratory collapse, is an age specific toxicity of which antimicrobial in the newborn?

A. Sulfonamides C. Chloramphenicol

B. Nalidixic acid D. Nitrofurantoin

MPL= 1

67.Exerts a synergistic effect with Sulfonamide:

A. Trimethoprim C. Atropine

B. Prostaglandin D. Metronidazole

MPL= 1

68.An anti-malarial agent which also exerts an amebicidal effect:

A. Chloroquine C. Primaquine

(10)

69.Antimicrobial agent with greatest CSF penetration:

A. Chloramphenicol C. Tetracycline

B. Penicillin D. Erythromycin

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed 1247}

70.The most absorbable of all the oral erythromycin salt is:

A. Lactobromate C. Estolate

B. Succinate D. Stearate

MPL= 0. 75

71.This drug, with less side effects, is effective against ascaris and hookworms

A. Mebendazole C. Pyrantel pamoate

B. Piperazine D. Niclosamide

MPL= 0.5

72.An effective amebicidal agent and at the same time displays antibacterial activity against anaerobes:

A. Metronidazole C. Paromomycin

B. Quinacrine D. Chloroquine

MPL=

73.The drug of choice for monilial infections of skin and mucous membrane:

A. Griseofulvin C. Amphotericin B

B. Nystatin D. Selenium sulfide MPL=

GG 10th_{Ed pp1307}

74.Antiviral drug which is effective on the treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis is:

A. Idoxuridine C. Acyclovir

B. Vidarabine D. Amantadine MPL= 0,75

75.Primaquine should be used with caution in G6PD deficient individuals because of the possibility of production of:

A. Aplastic anemia C. Granulocytopenia

B. Hemolytic anemia D. Megaloblastic anemia MPL= 0.25

76.Imipenem is combined with this drug:

A. Clindamycin C. Cephalosporin

B. Cilastatin D. Carbenicillin MPL=0.75

(11)

77.Which of the chemical structure of Beta-lactams is the site of action of Penicillinase?

A. Beta-lactam ring C. R-side chain

B. Thiazolidine ring D. Dihydrothiazine ring

MPL= 1 GG 1190 78.The Penicillin with the longest half life (24-28 days ) is:

A. Phenoxymethylpenicillin C. Benzathine penicillin

B. Procaine penicillin D. Benzyl penicillin

MPL= 0.75 GG 1197

79.Antibiotic that is NOT recommended for use in children or during pregnancy because of its potential to cause arthropathy:

A. Sulfonamides C. Aminoglycosides

B. Macrolides D. Quinolones

MPL= 1

GG 10th_{Ed pp1182}

80.Most nephrotoxic of the aminoglycosides:

A. Streptomycin C. Gentamicin

B. Neomycin D. Amikacin MPL= 0.25

81.The ratio of sulfamethoxazole to Trimethoprim for it to be effective is:

A. 40:1 C. 200:1

B. 20:1 D. 10:1

MPL=1

82.Doxycycline is an appropriate therapy in infection caused by:

A. Rickettsiae C. Schistosomiasis

B. Plasmodium vivax D. Histoplasma capsulatum

MPL= 0.25

83.The drug recommended for most heavy metal intoxications is:

A. CaNa2EDTA C. Dimercaprol

B. Penicillamine D. Deferoxamine

MPL= 0.5

84. A 24 year old man working in a company that manufacture “semiconductors”. Following accident at the plant he manifested with nausea and vomiting, headache, hypotension and chills. Laboratory showed hemoglobinuria and a plasma hemoglobin of 1,4g/dl. This individual is probably exposed to:

A. Arsine C. Mercury vapor

(12)

85.Serotonin antagonist not derived from a fungus that is useful for the treatment of migraine headache is:

A.Sumapitran C. Bromocriptine

B.Ergotamine D. Ketanserin

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 278}

86.Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrum of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of Clarithromycin is that:

A. Eradicate mycoplasmal infection in a single dose

B. Active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin

C. More active against Mycobacterium avium complex

D. Acts on methicillin resistant staphylococci

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{ave.pp 1250}

87.The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram positive organism to macrolide antibiotics is:

A. Methylation of binding site on the 50S ribosomal subunits

B. Formation of esterases that hydrolyzed the lactone ring C. Formation of drug- inactivating acetyltransferase

D. Decrease drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane MPL= 0.25

GG 10TH_{ED PP1250}

88.Weeping lesion is best treated with:

A, Wet dressing C. Ointment

B. Gels D. Aerosol

MPL= 1

GG 10TH_{Ed pp1796}

89.Host factors affecting the use of antimicrobial agents is/are:

A. Age of patient C. Genetic factor

B. Site of infection D. All of the above

MPL= 1 GG 1144 90.The mechanism of action of miconazole is best described as:

A. Binding to 80 S ribosomes B. Inhibition of sterol synthesis

C. Blockade of tetrahydrofolate reductase D. DNA intercalation

MPL= 0.75

GG 10th_{Ed pp1301}

91.Leukoverin rescue is used to reverse toxicity of which of the following anti-cancer agents?

A. Vinblastine C. Adriamycin

B. Cyclophosphamide D. Methotrexate

MPL= 1

(13)

A. Verapamil C. Lidocaine

B. Amiodarone D. Metoprolol

MPL=025

GG 10th_{Ed pp 948}

93.Antiarrythmic drug that predominantly block potassium channels and prolongs repolarization:

A. Class I C. Class II

B. Class III D. Class IV

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 949}

94.Recommended drug therapy for angina in patients with hyperthyroidism: A. Dihydroperidine Calcium Channel blockers

B. Beta-Adrinergic Receptor Blocker

C. Non-Dihydroperidine Calcium Channel blockers D. Organic Nitrates

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 860}

95.Anti anginal drug which should be avoided in patients with Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:

A. Metoprolol C. Isosorbide-5-mono nitrate

B. Diltiazem D. Verapamil

MPL= 0.25

GG 10th_{Ed pp 851}

96.The least antigenic source of Insulin is

A. Beef C. Pork

B. Human D. Horse

MPL= 1

97.Preparation of choice for replacement and suppression therapy of the thyroid hormone

A. levothyroxine C. liothyronine

B. triiodothyronine D. tyrosine

MPL=0.75

98.Anemia with neurologic abnormalities occur most often in deficiencies of: A. vitamin B12 C. iron

B. folic acid D. biotin

MPL= 1

(14)

A. Ferrous gluconate C. Ferrous fumarate

B. Hydrated ferrous sulfate D. Desiccated ferrous sulfate

MPL= 0.25

100. A direct acting cholinomimetic that is lipid soluble and often used in the treatment of glaucoma?

A. Acetycholine C. Pilocarpine

B. Bethanecol D. Physostigmine

MPL= 1