Ain Shams MCQ

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GYNECOLOGY

ANATOMY AND EMBRYOLOGY

Directions: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by answers or by completions of the statement. Select the ONE lettered answer or completion that is BEST in each case.

1- The following about the round ligament of the uterus is (are) correct EXCEPT:

a)

b) Passes into the inguinal canal.

c) d) Is derived from the gubernaculum.

e) Is continuous with the ovarian ligament at the cornu of the uterus.

2- The body of the uterus drains to the following nodes EXCEPT:

a) Sacral.

b) Superficial inguinal. c) Obturator.

d) Femoral. e) External iliac.

3- The lymphatic drainage of the cervix is to the following lymph nodes EXCEPT:

a) The femoral lymph nodes. b) The internal iliac lymph nodes. c) The para-cervical lymph nodes. d) The pre-sacral lymph nodes. e) The Obturator lymph nodes.

4- The following is correct about the ovarian ligaments:

a) Contain ureters.

b) Contain ovarian arteries.

c) Are attached laterally to pelvic wall. d) Lie anterior to the broad ligament.

e) Are homologous to part of the gubernaculums testis in the male.

5-

6- AH the following are correct about the pelvic ligaments and fascia EXCEPT:

a) The cardinal ligaments arise from the inferior pubic rami. b) Peritoneum covers the superior portion of the post vaginal wall.

c) The suspensory ligament of the ovary is superior to the round ligament. d) The round ligament contains lymphatic vessels.

e) The ureter penetrates the cardinal ligament.

7- In the development of the ovaries, all are correct EXCEPT:

a) The structures in the ovaries have different origins. b) Involve migration of the germ cells.

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c) Involve migration of the ovaries.

d) The homologous structure in the male is the testis. e) Develop at the Gubernaculum.

8- The presence of a uterus in a phenotypically normal male is due to:

a) Lack of mullerian inhibiting factor. b) Lack of testosterone.

c) Increased levels of estrogens. d) 46, XX karyotype.

e) Presence of ovarian tissue early in embryonic development.

9- Pregnancy complications that can occur due to bicornuate uterus include the following EXCEPT: a) Abortion. b) Malpresentation. c) Operative delivery. d) Twin pregnancy. e) Premature labor.

10-Possible clinical consequences of congenital malformations of the female genital system include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Habitual abortion.

b) Congenital fetal malformations. c) Ectopic pregnancy.

d) Oblique lie of the fetus.

e) Expulsion of intrauterine devices.

11-Imperforate hymen might present with the following EXCEPT: :

a) Primary amenorrhea. b) Cyclic menstrual molimina. c) Acute retention of urine. d) pelvi-abdominal mass. e) Hypomenorrhea.

12-The clinical findings of imperforate hymen include the following EXCEPT:

a) Hirsutism. b) Cryptomenorrhea. c) Hematometra d) Pelvi-abdominal swelling. e) Retention of urine.

13-14-Ambiguous genitalia at birth may be associated with the following EXCEPT:

a) congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

b) maternal ingestion of danazol during pregnancy. c) complete androgen insensitivity.

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e) karyotype of 46 XX.

15-Bicornuate uterus might predispose to:

a) Recurrent preterm labor. b) Primary amenorrhea. c) Recurrent oblique lie.

d) Retention of the placenta after delivery. e) Menorrhagia.

16-The following is derived from gubernaculum in female:

a) Ovarian ligament.

b) Mesovarium and ovarian ligament. c) Ovarian ligament and broad ligament. d) Round ligament and broad ligament.

e) Mackenrodt's ligament and ovarian ligament

17-All are vestigial remnants EXCEPT:

a) Kobelt's tubules. b) Epoophoron. c) Tubal fimbria. d) Paraoophrorn. e) Gartner duct.

18-19-Urogenital sinus gives the following:

a) Urinary bladder. b) Skene's ducts.

c) Lower part of the vagina. d) The ureteric bud.

e) Bartholin's glands

20-Barr body may be found in the following EXCEPT:

a) Klinefilter's syndrome. b) Turner's syndrome. c) Down's syndrome. d) Adrenogenital syndrome. e)

21-Congenital absence of the vagina is most commonly associated with:

a) Absent secondary sexual characteristics. b) Absent uterus.

c) Exposure to diethyl stilbosterol in utero. d) Turner's syndrome.

e) Imperforate anus.

Directions (Questions 22 through 46) ach set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of 5 to 8 lettered options followed by several numbered items. For each item,

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select the ONE best lettered option that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered heading may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.

Questions 22-26

For each of the following epithelium, select the organ that is lining it:

a) Stratified squamous b) Pseudo-stratified c) Transitional d) Columnar

22-Dome of the urinary bladder 23-External urethral meatus 24-Endocervix

25-Adult vagina 26-Endometrium

Questions 32-36

MCQ

Match the homologous corresponding structures in both sexes

a) Testis

b) Ventral aspect of the penis c) Penis d) Scrotum e) Gubernaculum testis f) Cremasteric muscle g) Glans penis 32-Ovarian ligament 33-Labia majora 34-Labia minora 35-Clitoris 36-Ovary Questions 37-41

Match the origin of the organ with the organ given

a) Mesonephric duct b) Genital tubercle c) Gubernaculum d) Urogenital fold e) Paramesonephric duct f) Urogenital sinus 37-Fallopian tube 38-Ovarian ligament 39-Labium minus 40-Clitoris

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41-Uterus Questions 42-46

Directions: Each of the following numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by numbered items that in certain combination leads to the BEST lettered combined answer or/and completion. According to the following directions, choose the BEST lettered answer:

If

1,2,3 are correct, choose A 1. 3 are correct, choose B 2. 4 are correct, choose C 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct, choose D All are correct, choose E 47-In the female genitalia:

1. The anterior and posterior walls of the empty vagina lie in apposition. 2. The urethra opens in the vestibule.

3. Bartholin's gland lies deep to the vestibular bulb. 4. Secretions arise from vaginal epithelial glands.

5. The labia minora have hair follicles.

48-The nerve supply of the vulva and perineum is derived from the following nerves:

1. Pudendal. 2. Genito-femoral.

3. Posterior cutaneous of thigh. 4. Obturator.

5. Anterior cutaneous of thigh.

49-The vulval blood supply is via the:

1. Internal pudendal artery. 2. Vaginal artery.

3. External pudendal artery. 4. Superior vesical artery. 5. Middle rectal artery.

50-The major supports of uterus are:

1. The transverse cervical (cardinal) ligaments. 2. The uterosacral ligaments.

3. The pubo-cervical ligaments. 4. The infundibulo-pelvic ligaments. 5. The round ligaments.

51-The lymphatic drainage from the uterine cervix is through the following lymph nodes:

1. External iliac. 2. Obturator. 3. Pre-sacral.

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5. Superficial inguinal.

52- 53-

54-Directions: In the following questions, each item has 5 lettered options each of which could be a true or a false statement. Tick each of these options according to whether they are false or true

55-The vagina:

a) Contains mucus secreting glands.

b) Relates posteriorly to the rectum in its middle third. c) Relates anteriorly to the bladder base in its lowest third. d) Is supplied in part by the uterine artery.

e) Is entirely derived from the MULLERIAN duct.

56-The ovary:

a) Is derived from THE GENITAL TUBERCLE

b) Is attached to the uterine cornu by the infundibulo-pelvic ligament. c) Lies posteriorly to the board ligament.

d)

e) Is attached to the distal portion of the fallopian tube.

57-a)

58-The cervix:

a) b)

c) Has columnar epithelium lining the canal. d) Produces a thick scanty discharge at ovulation.

e) Has the same proportion of muscle in its wall as the corpus uteri.

59-Imperforate hymen:

a) May lead to hematocolpos. b)

c) Is frequently associated with renal abnormalities. d)

e)

60-The Following statements about the lower part of the uterus are correct:

a)

b) The uterine artery passes inferior to the ureter. c) A parous external os is slit-shaped.

d) Peritoneum passes to cover the upper part of vagina posteriorly. e)

61-In the female pelvis, the peritoneum covers:

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b) The whole of the posterior wall of the uterus. c) The fallopian tube partially.

d) The ovary fully.

e) The upper half of the posterior wall of the vagina.

62-The Fallopian Tube:

a) Possesses a ciliated lining. b) Is actively motile.

c) Is easily palpable on bimanual examination. d) Is covered totally by peritoneum.

e) Has a thick muscle layer in ampulla.

63-The ovary:

a) Lies posterior to the broad ligament. b) Is covered by peritoneum.

c) Receives blood supply from a branch from the internal iliac artery. d) Right ovarian vein drains directly into inferior vena cava.

e) Has lymphatic drainage to the para-aortic lymph nodes.

64-The uterus:

a) The uterine index in adult uterus is 1.

b) Anteflexion is maintained mainly by the tone of the uterosacral ligament. c) The round ligament is attached to the anterior surface just below the cornu.

d) The uterine artery passes below the ureter (in the ureteric canal) to reach the uterus. e) The uterus receives blood supply from the ovarian artery.

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REPRODUCTIVE ENDOCRINOLOGY, INFERTILITY AND

MENSTRUAL DISORDERS

65-The functions of mid-cycle LH surge include the following EXCEPT:

a) Enhances thecal cell androgen production. b) Luteinizes granulosa cells.

c) Initiates resumption of meiosis. d) Facilitates oocyte expulsion. e) Produces luteolysis.

66-Follicle-stimulating hormone is elaborated by:

a) Chromophobe cells of the adenohypophysis. b) Basophilic cells of the adenohypophysis. c) Acidophilic cells of the adenohypophysis. d) Follicular granulosa.

e

67-The following is a normal finding on the twenty-third day of a normal twenty-eight day menstrual cycle provide strong evidence that ovulation has occurred:

a) Cervical mucus with positive arborization if dried on a glass slide. b) Subnuclear vacuolation apparent on endometrium biopsy.

c) High cornification index in vaginal cytology preparations.

d) High level of total estrogens in a twenty-four hour specimen of urine. e) Presence of an apparently healthy corpus luteum in an ovary.

68-The average blood loss resulting from menstruation is:

a) 10 to 15ml. b) 25 to 50 ml. c) 75 to 100ml. d) 101 to 125ml. e) 130 to 150ml.

69-All the following about precocious puberty is true EXCEPT;

a) It may involve menarche before the age of 8 years. b)

c) Constitutional factor is rare. d) It may be due to serious tumors.

e) It may be associated with contra-sexual development.

70-All the following about precocious puberty is true EXCEPT:

a) It is usually constitutional.

b) It may be associated with long bone fractures. c) Pubic hair is first sign.

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d) It can be delayed by GnRH analogues. e) It results in adult short stature.

71-Menopause could be diagnosed by:

a) History of absent menstruation. b) High FSH in young age group.

c) Absent menstruation for 1 year at the age of 52 year. d) Hot flushes & lack of sleep.

e) Flushes lack.

72-Premature menopause is associated with the following EXCEPT:

a)

c) Radio therapy. d

73-Facts about clomiphene citrate include the following EXCEPT:

a) has antiestrogenic properties.

b) may be started with a 50-mg dose daily. c) is useful in primary ovarian failure. d) may cause cervical mucus hostility.

e) may result in multiple pregnancy is a side effect of its use.

74-Complications that could be attributed to post-menopausal hormonal changes include the following EXCEPT:

a) Procidentia.

b) Coronary heart diseases. c) Cancer breast.

d) Stress urinary incontinence. e) Depression.

76-In Hirsutism, the following is true EXCEPT:

a) It may be treated by dexamethasone when there is an adrenal cause. b) Cyproterone acetate results in reduction of libido.

c) d) 99% of circulating testosterone is protein bound. e) Raised

77-In severe ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS):

a) Pleural effusion may occur.

b) Intravascular clotting can be a complication. c) Hypoproteinemia may develop.

d) Bilateral oophorectomy is indicated. e) Paracentesis may be of benefit.

78-Hyperprolactinemia may be associated with the following EXCEPT:

a) Chronic renal failure. b) Galactorrhea.

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d) Methyl dopa therapy. e) Adrenogenital syndrome.

79-Galactorrhea (non-gestational lactation) may result from the following EXCEPT:

a) Pituitary adenoma. b) Hypothyroidism. c) Renal failure.

d) Intrapartum hemorrhage. e) Bronchogenic carcinoma.

80-Thc following is true about gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) analogues:

a) They are given continuously in vitro fertilization cycles (IVF) to stimulate follicular growth.

b) They may cause endometrial hyperplasia. c) They can be given intramuscular.

d) Their long term use increases bone density.

e) Progesterone back-up is better used with its chronic use.

81-The following is true about danazol EXCEPT:

a) It is a synthetic compound. b) It has an androgenic properties. c) It has an anabolic effects.

d) It has an antigonadotrophic effects.

e) The main indication is in the treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

82-The following is true about female sexual dysfunction EXCEPT:

a) Females have no refractory phase (unlike males). b) Dyspareunia is mainly introital.

c) Fear of pregnancy and sexual transmitted diseases can be a cause of dyspareunia. d) Urine loss at orgasm suggests stress incontinence.

e) Pregnancy may cause situational anorgasmia.

83-In vitro fertilization (1VF):

a) Down regulation of the pituitary gland is achieved by the use of human menopausal gonadotrophins (HMG).

b) IVF is indicated for treatment of luteal phase defect in infertility. c) IVF is indicated for treatment of unexplained infertility.

d) Oocyte retrieval is performed 28 hours after human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) injection.

e) Success rates are increased with increasing age.

84-Accepted parameters for a normal semen analysis are:

a) A sperm count of 10-20 million per ml. b) A volume of 1 ml.

c) 60% motility.

d) 60% abnormal forms.

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85-The general incidence of infertility is: a) 5%. b) 10-15%. c) 25%. d) 30%. e) 35%

86-According to WHO (world health organization), the percentage of normal morphology of normal semen analysis is:

a) > 30%. b) < 30%. c) >50%. d) > 70%. e) > 90%

87-The following are advantages of laparoscopy in the diagnosis of infertility EXCEPT:

a) Good evaluation of tubal factor. b) Diagnosis of endometriosis.

c) Diagnosis of Asherman's syndrome. d) Good visualization of pelvic adhesions. e) Direct visualization of corpus luteum.

88-The following statements are true as regards serum progesterone measurement in diagnosis of infertility EXCEPT:

a) The normal level is 5 ng/ml.

b) Measurement is usually done at day 21 of the cycle. c) Can be used for assessment of the luteal phase defect. d) The normal level is variable between individuals. e) Used in diagnosis of anovulation

89-The character of normal cervical mucus at the time of ovulation is:

a) Highly viscous and turbid.

b) Spinnbarkeit test is less than 6 cm.

c) Contains low amount of crystals of sodium and potassium chloride. d) Positive ferning test.

e) Acellular

90-Polycystic ovarian disease characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Increase LH level.

b) Increase in androgen levels. c) Decrease in estrogen levels. d) Oligomenorrhea.

e) Android obesity

91-Hysteroscopy is important for diagnosis of the following factors in infertility EXCEPT:

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b) Submucous fibroids. c) Peritubal adhesions. d) Cornual block. e) Septate uterus

92-Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is frequently associated with:

a) Endometrial polyps. b) Anovulation. c) Cervicitis.

d) Systemic lupus erythematosus. e) Von Willebrand's disease.

93-Treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding include the following EXCEPT:

a) Progestin therapy. b) Estrogen therapy. c) Danazol.

d) Endometrial ablation. e) Bromocriptine

94-True statements concerning anorexia nervosa include the following EXCEPT:

a) It is seen predominantly in females, rarely in males.

b) Most affected patients have an obsessive -compulsive personality. c) Mean 24-hour concentration of cortisol is twice normal.

d) Thyroid hormones are in the normal range. e) Occasionally fatal

95-Amenorrhea could be due to which of the following EXCEPT:

a) Combined oral contraceptive.

b) Depot medroxy progesterone acetate. c) GnRH analogues.

d) Danazol. e) Bromocriptine.

96-Which of the following conditions is suitable for clomiphene citrate stimulation?

a) Gonadal dysgenesis b) Asherman's syndrome c) Resistant ovary syndrome d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome e) Kallmann's syndrome

97-Cryptomenorrhea may present with the following EXCEPT:

a) Acute urinary retention. b) Hematocolpos

c) Lower abdominal pain. d) Premenstrual spotting. e) Cyclic pain

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consists of a list of 5 to 6 lettered options followed by several numbered items. For each item, select the ONE best lettered option that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered heading may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.

Questions 103-107

Link the following syndromes to their corresponding presentations

a) Laurence Moon Biedl. b) Kallmann syndrome. c) Sheehan syndrome. d) Savage syndrome e) Asherman syndrome. f) Swyer syndrome 103- Failure of lactation.

104- Post curettage amenorrhea. 105- Amenorrhea & anosmia. 106- Retinitis pigmentosa 107- Resistant ovary syndrome

true/false

111- As regards luteinizing hormone, the following is (are) true

1) Its plasma levels are increased throughout pregnancy. 2) Its plasma level is increased in postmenopausal women. 3) It is bound to plasma protein.

4) It stimulates the synthesis of testosterone in the male. 5) Its release is stimulated by thyrotropin releasing hormone. 1) It stimulates androgen production.

2) Its plasma concentration is increased in pregnancy. 3) Its plasma concentrations are increased in ovarian failure. 4) It is a steroid hormone.

5) It is released at a constant rate throughout the menstrual cycle.

113- As regards follicle stimulating hormone, the following is (are) true:

1) It stimulates spermatogenesis.

2) Its plasma concentration is high in Klinefelter syndrome. 3) It stimulates ovarian estrogen production.

4) It is produced in the hypothalamus.

5) It prevents regression of the corpus luteum.

Pituitary follicle stimulating hormone is:

1 ) A glycoprotein.

2) Excreted in increased amount at menopause. 3) Excreted by the male.

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5) Identical with human chorionic gonadotrophin.

114- As regards ovulation in the human the following is (are) true:

1) Is associated with a surge of luteinizing hormone.

2) Is characteristically followed by the development of secretory endometrium. 3) Is associated with an increase in motility of the fallopian tube.

4) Is associated with a sustained fall in basal body temperature. 5) Is followed by a rise in urinary pregnanetriol.

115- As regards estrogen, the following is (are) true:

1) Cannot be detected in the blood of postmenopausal women. 2) Is produced in the corpus luteum.

3) Is mainly secreted by the ovary as estrone. 4) Is the dominant gonadal hormone at puberty.

5) Is responsible for secretory changes in the endometrium.

116- The anterior pituitary:

1) 2) Produces vasopressin.

3) Is controlled by releasing factors produced in the hypothalamus. 4) 5) Lies above the optic chiasma.

117- In a normal human menstrual cycle the corpus luteum:

1) Remains active for 3-4 weeks. 2) Secretes progesterone.

3) Is maintained by human chorionic gonadotrophin. 4) Secretes estrogen.

5) Secretes pregnanediol.

118-

119- In the first half of a normal menstrual cycle:

1) Mitotic figures are seen in the endometrium. 2) Serum progesterone levels are high.

3) Some ovarian follicles degenerate. 4) The endometrium is rich in glycogen. 5) The corpus luteum begins to degenerate.

120- In normal puberty, the following features are characteristics:

1) Pubic hair growth is the first sign.

2) The first menstrual cycles are anovulatory.

3) Axillary hair growth occurs after the first menstrual period. 4) Changes in the vaginal epithelium.

5) Cessation of growth.

121- The following hormonal changes occur after menopause:

1) Estrogen levels decrease dramatically.

2) There is a relative increase in the testosterone level.

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4) Estradiol accounts for most of circulating estrogen which results mainly from peripheral conversion of androstenedione.

5) Gonadotrophins levels show no changes.

122- The following are hormonal changes associated with menopause:

2) Increased FSH.

3) Increased androstenedione. 4) Increased SHBG.

5) Increased LH.

123- Unopposed estrogen therapy for the postmenopausal woman:

1) Improves the urethral syndrome. 2) Decreases urinary calcium excretion.

3) Causes increased incidence of endometrial carcinoma. 4) Causes decreased incidence of myocardial infraction. 5) Causes hypertension.

124- Premature menopause in genotypically female could be due to:

1) Turner's syndrome. 2) Use of OCs for long time. 3) Excess exposure to radiation. 4) Klinefelter syndrome.

5) Testicular feminization syndrome.

125- The following statements about osteoporosis are correct:

1) There is increased osteoclastic activity resulted in fragile bone. 2) Is prevented by estrogens.

3) Bisphosphonates are the most effective bone building drugs. 4) Diagnosed mainly by determination of serum calcium. 5) Occurs more commonly in patients with Turner's syndrome.

126- Risk factors for development of osteoporosis include the following:

1) Cigarette smoking.

2) Long term glucocorticoid therapy. 3) Premature ovarian failure.

4) Is more common in black than white women. 5) Obese women.

127- Absolute contraindication for HRT:

1) Active liver disease. 2) Hypertension.

3) Recent history of thrombo-embolic attack. 4) Gall bladder disease.

5) Diabetes mellitus.

128- Hirsutism:

1) Adrenal enzyme deficiency can present in adult women. 2) The oral contraceptive pill can be used to treat hirsutism.

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4) Dexamethasone is an alternative anti-androgen.

5) Circulating testosterone is always elevated in hirsute women.

129- Suggestions of anovulation include:

1)

2) Disturbed menstrual cycles. 3) Serial ultrasound scans.

4) Secretory changes detected at histological examination of the endometrium. 5) Biphasic basal body temperature chart.

130- Clomiphene citrate:

1) Has antiestrogenic effects.

2) Side effects include multiple pregnancy. 3) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is rare. 4) Is a steroidal agent.

5) Is a natural product. 1) Causes breast carcinoma.

2) Is associated with ovarian cyst formation. 3) Increases the risk of fetal malformations. 4) Causes vasomotor symptoms as a side effect.

5) Is prescribed in a starting dose of 500 mg daily for five days/month.

132- Drugs of antiestrogenic effects include:

1) Tamoxifen. 2) LHRH analogues. 3) Clomiphene citrate. 4) Mifepristone. 5) Bromocriptine. 133- In PCOD:

1) PCOD is the commonest cause of anovulatory infertility.

2) Pregnant women with PCOD have an increased risk of gestational diabetes. 3) Anovulatory women with PCOD are at increased risk of endometrial cancer. 4) Hyperlipidemia is a cause of PCOD.

5) The majority of anovulatory women with PCOD are estrogen deficient.

134- Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is associated with:

1) Metropathia hemorrhagica.

2) Abnormal hormone profiles in more than 50% of patients. 3) Increased levels of PGE2 in the endometrium.

4) Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease.

5) Estrogens inhibiting the arachidonic acid cascade.

135- A woman presenting with cyclical menorrhagia at the age of 46 years:

1) Is likely to be cured by an oral progestogen.

2) Is likely to be cured by hormone replacement therapy (HRT). 3) may require hysterectomy if medical treatment fails.

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4) Should be treated by dilatation and curettage. 5) Has an 80% chance of having anovulatory cycles.

136- Patients with testicular feminization characteristically:

1) Are 46, XY.

2) Have a hypoplastic uterus. 3) Have fairly developed breasts. 4) Are chromatin positive. 5) Have secondary amenorrhea.

137- In abnormal uterine bleeding in adolescents:

1) In girls with severe menorrhagia coagulation disorder should be excluded. 2) Ovulatory dysfunction is a rare cause.

3) Pregnancy complications should be excluded.

4) The commonest hematological disorder is von Willebrand's disease. 5) Evaluation of the patient must include a pelvic examination.

138- Turner's syndrome:

1) Is associated with neonatal edema of the feet.

2) Is the commonest chromosomal abnormality in aborted fetuses. 3) Babies display neonatal sneezing.

4) Has ventricular septal defect as the commonest cardiac abnormality. 5) Is autosomal dominant.

139- Bromocriptine:

1) Is a dopamine agonist. 2) Inhibits prolactin secretion. 3) Can be administered vaginally.

4) Is more potent than lisuride drug in treatment of hyperprolactinemia. 5) Can cause hypertension.

140- Prolactin:

a)

b) Bromocriptine is the drug of choice in hyperprolactinemia. c) Is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland.

d) Approximately one -third of patients with a micro-adenoma undergo spontaneous resolution.

e) Bromocriptine must be stopped when pregnant.

141- In luteinized unruptured follicle:

a) Progesterone is secreted normally. b) Menstrual cycles are usually regular.

c) Antiprostaglandins are needed for rupture of ovarian follicles. d) Induction of ovulation is a useful modality for treatment.

e) Patient can benefit from human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) injections given in high doses at mid-luteal phase.

142- Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH):

a) Is used for induction of ovulation in patients with hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism. b) Is indicated in treatment of infertility associated with Kallmann's syndrome.

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c) Must be delivered continuously for 5-6 days to reach follicular maturity. d) Has a similar incidence of multiple pregnancy rate as with human menopausal

gonadotrophin therapy (HMG).

e) Risk of ovarian hyperstimulation is absent.

143- Human menopausal gonadotrophin (HMG):

a) Are extracted from postmenopausal blood. b) Can be given intramuscular or intravenous. c) May result in ovarian hyperstimulation.

d) Requires human chorionic gonadotrophins (hCG) to be given after its use to induce ovulation.

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GYNECOLOGICAL DIAGNOSIS

If

1,23 are correct, choose A 1,3 are correct, choose B

2,4 are correct, choose C

4 is correct, choose D All are correct, choose E

144- Rectal examination in the gynecological practice:

1) Is useful in the diagnosis of enterocele. 2) Is useful in suspected pelvic abscess.

3) Is indicated in the assessment of carcinoma of the cervix. 4) Is to be preformed as a routine in the gynecological practice. 5) Is useful in assessment of ectopic pregnancy.

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GENITAL DISPLACEMENT

145- As regards cystocele the following is true EXCEPT:

a) Is a prolapse of the bladder in upper part of anterior vaginal wall. b) Is common after the menopause.

c) Is the cause of stress incontinence of urine. d) May lead to urinary infection.

e) Is very uncommon in nulliparous women.

146- Genital prolapse is associated with the following EXCEPT:

a) Multiparity.

b) Prolonged second stage of labor. c) Unrepaired hidden perineal tear. d) Improperly applied forceps delivery. e) Negroes' race.

147- Factors important in the development of genital prolapse include the following EXCEPT::

a) Poor tissue strength.

b) c) Chronic straining at bowel movements. d) Menopause.

e) Childbirth trauma.

148- 149-

150- As regards enterocele, the following is correct:

a) It is a prolapse of the rectum.

b) It may occur following colposuspension. c) Sigmoidoscopy is used for diagnosis d) It may resolve spontaneously.

e) It is a common cause of stress incontinence. a) It is not a true hernia.

b) It is a herniation of the bladder floor into the vagina,

c) It is a prolapse of the uterus and vaginal wall outside the body.

d) It is a protrusion of the pelvic peritoneal sac and vaginal wall into the vagina. e) It is a herniation of the rectal and vaginal wall into the vagina.

152- As regards anterior colporrhaphy the following is true EXCEPT:

a) May cause temporary retention of urine.

b) Is the treatment of midline defect of anterior vaginal wall prolapse c) Is frequently combined with vaginal hysterectomy.

d) Better avoided in patients with urge incontinence.

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Directions (Questions 153 through 157): Each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of 6 lettered options followed by several numbered items. For each item, select the ONE best lettered option that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered heading may be selected once, more than once, or not at all. Match the most suitable operation with the disease entity encountered

a) Sacrospinous colpopexy b) Anterior colporrhaphy c) Burch colposuspension d) Le Forte's operation e) Fothergill's operation f) Sacral cervicopexy

153- Second degree uterine descent in 32-year-old woman wants to preserve her potential fertility

154- Second degree uterine descent in 75-year-old-woman 155- Stress (urodynamic) incontinence

156-Vault prolapse

157- Cystocele with midline defect

If

1,2,3 are correct, choose A 1,3 are correct, choose B 2,4 are correct, choose C 4 is correct, choose D AH are correct, choose E 158- Uterovaginal prolapse:

1) The condition is worse in the erect position.

2) May cause intestinal obstruction if there is a large rectocele. 3) The cervix is often elongated.

4)

159- Retroversion of the uterus:

1) Is a common cause of infertility. 2)

3) May be corrected by a fothergill operation. 4) Occurs in 20% of normal women.

5) Is caused by heavy lifting.

160- Genital prolapse-etiological factors include:

1) Multiparity.

2) Failed postnatal exercises. 3) Crede's maneuver.

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4) First degree tears. 5)

161- Second degree uterine prolapse:

1) is diagnosed when the cervix protrudes through the vulval orifice. 2) Is also known as complete procidentia.

3)

162- Structures which prevent prolapse of the uterus and vagina include:

1) Levator ani muscle. 2) Uterosacral ligaments. 3) Cardinal ligaments. 4) Round ligaments. 5) Broad ligaments.

163- Factors predisposing to the development of uterovaginal prolapse include:

1) Congenital weakness of the supporting ligaments. 2) Postmenopausal atrophy.

3) Injury during childbirth. 4) Endometrial polyps. 5) Ovarian tumors.

164- The Manchester repair includes:

1) Amputation of the cervix. 2) Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy. 3) Anterior colporrhaphy.

4) Vaginal hysterectomy. 5)

Directions: In the following questions, each item has 5 lettered options each of which could be a true or a false statement. Tick each of these options according to whether they are false or true

165- An enterocele:

a) Usually contains rectum. b) In lined by peritoneum.

c) Frequently contains small bowel.

d) May be a long-term complication of vaginal hysterectomy. e)

166- A cystocele:

a) Is usually associated with stress incontinence. b) Contains bladder.

c) May present as urinary retention. d) Is treated by Fothergill’s operation.

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e) Is best treated with a ring pessary.

167- Backache due to gynecological causes:

a) May be caused by a mobile retroverted uterus. b) Is usually felt in the lumbar area.

c) May be caused by endometriosis. d) May be due to uterine prolapse.

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GENITAL TRACT INFECTIONS

168- The following about Mycoplasma are correct EXCEPT:

a) Causes male infertility. b) Is gram-negative.

c) Can be successfully treated with penicillin. d) Causes neonatal pneumonia.

e) Causes pelvic inflammatory disease.

169- The natural defense of the vagina to infection include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) The vaginal pH.

b) The presence of Doderlein's bacilli.

c) The physical apposition of the pudendal cleft and the vaginal walls. d) The bacteriostatic secretions of vaginal glands.

e) The vaginal stratified squamous epithelium.

170- As regards Gardnerella vaginalis vaginitis all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

a) It is usually asymptomatic.

b) It may present with a foul smell discharge.

e) It may progress to acute pelvic inflammatory disease. d) Its discharge may increase after intercourse.

e) It can be diagnosed by clue cells on Gram staining of vaginal discharge.

171- The following about Chlamydia trachomatis are correct EXCEPT::

a) Can be cultured from vaginal discharge. b) Is a common cause of vaginal discharge.

c) May be treated with either erythromycin or aminoglycosides. d) Can cause neonatal pneumonia.

e) Can cause sterile pyuria.

172- The single-dose parenteral drug of choice used in uncomplicated gonorrhea is: a) Ceftriaxone 250 mg

b) Cefixime 400 mg c) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg d) Ofloxacin 400 mg e) Spectinomycin 500 mg

173- The following about human papilloma virus (HPV) infection are correct EXCEPT:

a) It is the most common viral STDs. b) It may lead to CIN and cervical cancer. c) It is due to RNA virus

d) Infection may be warty or flat condyloma. e) Infection is usually associated with others STDs.

174- The commonest site to be affected by genital tuberculosis is:

a) The ovaries

b) The fallopian tubes c) The uterus

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e) The vagina

175- The following about bacterial vaginosis are correct EXCEPT:

a) It is the commonest vaginal infection. b) Vaginal PH is usually < 4.5.

c) The discharge cause considerable itching. d) Cure may be achieved by oral metronidazole. e) The organism is a bacterium.

176- The following about Candida! infection are correct EXCEPT:

a) The infection is common with pregnancy b) Vaginal PH is usually alkaline.

c) Vulval itching may occur.

d) Vaginal isoconazole or miconazole are effective. e) The organism is yeast-like.

177- The following about Trichomonas vaginalis (T.V.) are correct EXCEPT:

a) T.V may be a sexually transmitted disease b) Most patients having TV have symptoms. c) The disease may cause itching.

d) Unlike bacterial vaginosis, metronidazole is ineffective therapy. e) It may cause a flea-bitten appearance of the cervix

178- Regarding syphilis, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

a) The organism is diagnosed by dark field illumination. b) The classic finding in primary syphilis is a hard chancre.

c) Secondary syphilis is associated with a rash over the hands and feet. d) Gummas are found in late syphilis.

e) Syphilis is produced by a spirochete.

Directions (Questions 179 through 199): Each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of 2 to 8 lettered options followed by several numbered items. For each item, select the ONE best lettered option that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered heading may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.

Match each condition to the appropriate pH

a) Generally acidic b) Generally alkaline 179- Cervical secretions 180- Semen 181- Urine 182- Menstruation 183- Normal vaginal pH Questions 184-188

Match the effect of each secretion

a) Turns pH of the vagina more acidic b) Turns pH of the vagina more alkaline c) Keeps pH of the vagina constant

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184- Menopause 185- Lactobacilli 186- Semen 187- Menstruation 188- Estrogen therapy Questions 189-193

Match the genital organism with the most appropriate chemotherapeutic agent: a) Azithromycin b) Spectinomycin c) Itraconazole d) Penicillin G e) Tetracycline f) Clindamycin g) Metronidazole

189- Neisseria gonorrheae (Uncomplicated) 190- Chlamydia trachomatis

191- Gardnerella vagina I is 192- Candida albicans 193- Trichomonas vaginalis Questions 194-199

Match the Genital infection with the diagnostic modality

a) Culture on Thayer Martin medium b) Culture on Dorset egg medium c) Culture on Sabouraud medium d) Culture on aerobic blood agar e) Micro-immunofluorescent test f) Western blot

g) PCR and Southern blot. h) Whiff test 194- Chlamydia infection 195- Candida! infection 196- Gonorrhea infection 197- Gardenerella vaginalis 198- HPV 199- HIV

If

1,2,3 are correct, choose A 1,3 are correct, choose B 2,4 are correct, choose C

1,2,3,4 are correct, choose D All are correct, choose E

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200- The following about vaginal discharge are correct:

1) Leucorrhea, means excessive amount of normal vaginal discharge. 2) Cervicitis is inflamed columnar epithelium on the cervix.

3) Atrophic vaginitis is relatively common in postmenopausal women. 4) Progesterone causes a proliferation of the vaginal epithelium. 5) The amount of vaginal discharge increases only during infection.

201- As regards chlamydial infection, the following are correct

1) The organisms are obligatory intracellular organisms. 2) It may cause sterile pyuria.

3) Chlamydia and gonorrhea are the main causes of PID. 4) The husband should be treated.

5) Azithromycin 1 gm in single dose is an effective treatment.

202- Tuberculosis of Genital Tract:

1) The tubes are the commonest site. 2) Ft is detected in 5% of infertile patients. 3) The treatment is mainly medical. 4) Menstrual disorders are common.

5) The infection is usually sexually transmitted

203- The following bacterial infections may be sexually-transmitted

1) Neisseria gonococci. 2) Gardnerella vaginalis. 3) Treponema palladium. 4) Trichomonas vaginalis. 5) Group B streptococci. 204- Herpes Simplex:

1) Type I does not invade the genital organs.

2) In primary forms, the leading complaint is agonizing pain.

3) The recurrent attacks tend to be more severe and have generalized manifestations more than the primary attack.

4) During primary infection vaginal delivery may result in neonatal herpes in about 40%. 5) Long-term suppression with acyclovir increases the number of recurrent attacks.

205- The following about human Papilloma Virus is (are) true:

a) It is a rare type of STD.

b) It is classified into subtypes according to types of antibodies. c) Has a definite pathological role in development of CIN. d) Koilocytic atypia is the main feature in the cytological study. e) The most effective anti-viral is acyclovir.

206- The following about pelvic tuberculosis is (are) true:

a) Is most often bovine. b) Is post primary.

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d) More often involves the fallopian tubes. e) Is decreasing in incidence.

207- The following about genital tuberculosis is (are) true:

a) The most affected site is the fallopian tube.

b) The main route of transmission is through sexual intercourse. c) Infertility is the leading complaint.

d) Negative tuberculin test excludes the presence of the disease. e) Hysterectomy + BSO is the main therapeutic option.

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TRAUMA TO THE FEMALE GENITAL TRACT

208- Rectovaginal fistulas result from all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Obstetric delivery. b) Irradiation to the pelvis. c) Carcinoma.

d) Hemorrhoidectomy. e) Herpes vulvitis.

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GYNECOLOGIC UROLOGY

209- True incontinence occurs in all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Vesicovaginal fistula

b) Bilateral ureterovaginal fistula c) Unilateral ureterovaginal fistula d) Vesico-cervicovaginal fistula e) Vesico-urethrovaginal fistula

210- The most important suspensory mechanism of the urethra is (are):

a) Anterior pubourethral ligaments b) Intermediate pubourethral ligaments c) Posterior pubourethral ligaments d) White line

e) Pubocervical fascia

211- All the following about genuine stress incontinence in the female are correct EXCEPT:

a) It occurs transiently during pregnancy. b) It is more common in parous women. c) It can be corrected surgically.

d) It is associated with a high urethral pressure profile amplitude on urodynamic studies e) It is usually associated with utero-vaginal prolapse.

212- The following are treatment modalities for overactive bladder EXCEPT:

a) Parasympathomimetics b) Smooth muscle relaxants c) Anticholinergics.

d) Behavioral therapy e) Tricyclic anti depressants

213- Utero-vesical fistula usually presents with:

a) Amenorrhea b) Menuria c) Dysmenorrhea d) Terminal hematuria e) True incontinence

Directions (Questions 214 through 223): Each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of 4 to 6 lettered options followed by several numbered items. For each item, select the ONE best lettered option that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered heading may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.

Match the common presentation with the disease entity

a) True urinary incontinence b) Menuria

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c) Urge incontinence

d) Partial urinary incontinence e) Overflow urinary incontinence

f) Urinary incontinence at sexual penetration

214- Vesicovaginal fistula 215- Uterovesical fistula

216- Left ureterovaginal fistula 217- Genuine stress incontinence 218- Overactive bladder

Match the operation with the disease entity

a) Urodynamic stress incontinence b) Overactive bladder

c) Vesicovaginal fistula d) Vault vesical fistula

219- Sims dedoublement operation 220- Burch colposuspension

221- Marshal Marchetti Krantz operation 222- Clam cystoplasty

223- Latzko operation (partial colpocleisis)

If

1,2,3 are correct, choose A 1,3 are correct, choose B 2,4 are correct, choose C 1,2,3,4 are correct, choose D All are correct, choose E

224- In the treatment of genuine stress incontinence (GSI):

1) Preoperative urethral pressure profilometry can predict the success of surgical treatment.

2) Patients with co-existent detrusor instability could have surgical treatment. 3) Vaginal surgery for stress incontinence carries a high failure rate.

4) The standard operation is the suburethral sling

5) Physiotherapy will improve symptoms in about 20% of patients. 225- Urethral caruncle:

1) Usually covered by transitional epithelium. 2) Usually asymptomatic.

3) May resemble urethral carcinoma.

4) Usually originates from the anterior wall of the urethra. 5) Occurs in children.

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BREAST DISEASES

226- The following could be a treatment for mastalgia EXCEPT:

a) Surgery. b) Bromocriptine. c) Danazol

d) Gammalenolenic acid (GLA) e) Antiprostaglandins

227- The following about nipple discharge are correct EXCEPT:

a) It is common complaint.

b) Galactorrhea is atypically bilateral. c) It is usually physiologic.

d) Duct ectasia is a benign cause for the discharge.

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BENIGN GYNECOLOGIC DISEASES

228- Regarding cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), all the following are correct EXCEPT:

a) Transformation zone is the most susceptible location for development. b) It is usually unifocal.

c) Abnormal vascular pattern seen by colposcopy include punctuation, mosaicism and acetowhite area.

d) Total hysterectomy is a line of management.

e) Cervical conization is best done by loop electrosurgical excision procedure

229- Regarding cervical polyps all the following are correct EXCEPT:

a) May cause post coital bleeding.

b) The most common type is mucous polyps. c) Usually they arise from the cervical canal. d) They are usually pre cancerous.

e) Cervical polyps should be subjected to histopathological examination.

230- AH the following about Bartholin's glands are correct EXCEPT:

a) Are remnants of mesonephric origin. b) Can commonly be infected by E coli.

c) Excision of the cyst when infected is usually contraindicated. d) Are situated at the posterior parts of labia majora.

e) Should be marsupialized when acutely infected.

231- The commonest secondary change in uterine fibroids is:

a) Fatty degeneration

b) Myxomatous degeneration c) Hyaline degeneration d) Cystic degeneration e) Calcification

232- The most common site of uterine myoma is:

a) Subserous b) Interstitial c) Subserous d) Cornual e) Cervical

233- The following are risk factors to developing uterine myomata EXCEPT;

a) Low parity b) Late menarche c) Negroid race

d) Positive family history of the disease e) Associated endometriosis

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234- Sarcomatous change in uterine fibroids occurs in: a) 0.05%. b) 0.5% c) 1.5% d) 5% e) 15%

235- All the following about uterine fibroids are correct EXCEPT:

a) Occur in over 30% of women of reproductive age. b) Can undergo sarcomatous change in 5% of cases. c) Are associated with menorrhagia.

d) Can cause polycythemia.

e) Can cause pressure manifestations in the pelvis.

236- Intramural fibroids mainly cause:

a) Intermenstrual bleeding. b) Postcoital bleeding. c) Postmenopausal bleeding. d) Deep dyspareunia.

e) Menorrhagia.

237- Endometriosis characteristically occurs in women who are:

a) In lower socio-economic group. b) Perimenopausal.

c) Nulliparous. d) Using IUCD.

e) Using Oral contraceptives.

a) Are estrogen dependent.

b) Get smaller during treatment with progestogens. c) Are usually asymptomatic.

d) Shrink in response to treatment with LHRH agonists. e) May be treated conservatively

239- The etiology of endometriosis relates to the following EXCEPT:

a) A transformation of celomic epithelium.

b) Direct invasion through the uterine serosa into the pelvic capacity. c) Retrograde menstrual flow.

d) Vascular transport of endometrial fragments. e) Lymphatic transport of endometrial fragments.

240- The following physical findings are consistent with a diagnosis of endometriosis EXCEPT:

a) Fixed retroversion of the uterus. b) Tender pelvic masses.

c) Adnexal enlargement. d) Cul-de-sac nodules. e) Omental nodules

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EXCEPT: a) dyspareunia b) mood swings c) painful defecation d) severe dysmenorrhea e) infertility

242- Endometriosis treated with prolonged estrogen and progesterone combination therapy exhibits which of the following histological characteristics?

a) Marked edema

b) Decidual-like reaction c) Glandular hypertrophy d) Inflammatory infiltrate e) Cyclic changes

243- The major symptom(s) of adenomyosis is/are

a) irregular uterine enlargement b) menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea c) urinary frequency

d) dysmenorrhea and infertility e) pressure symptoms

244- The Following are effective in the treatment of endometriosis EXCEPT:

a) Clomiphene. b) Oophorectomy.

c) Hysterectomy or Depo-provera. d) Oral contraceptive.

e) Danazol.

245- Retrograde menstruation is the most accepted cause of endometriosis. The following statements may be cited as evidence for this theory EXCEPT:

a) Inversion of the cervix of a monkey into the peritoneal cavity can cause endometriosis. b) Endometrial tissue can be cultured successfully.

c) Menstrual blood can come from the ends of the fallopian tubes of some women. d) Endometrial glands can arise from celomic epithelium.

e) The disease is often found in the dependent portion of the pelvis.

246- Non-neoplastic cysts of the ovary include the following EXCEPT;

a) Theca-lutein cysts. b) Pregnancy luteomas. c) Endometriotic cysts. d) Corpus luteum cysts. e) Dermoid cyst

247- A 54-year-old woman is found to have endometrial hyperplasia on endometrial biopsy. A functional ovarian tumor to be suspected is a:

a) Lipid cell tumor.

b) Granulosa-theca cell tumor. c) Sertoli-Leydig tumor.

d) Mutinous cystadenocarcinoma. e) Polycystic ovary.

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248- Treatment of benign ovarian neoplasms may include the following EXCEPT:

a) Debulking.

b) Ovarian cystectomy. c) Unilateral oophorectomy.

d) Hysterectomy plus unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy e) Pan hysterectomy.

249- In contrast to a malignant ovarian tumor, a benign tumor has which of the following gross features?

a) Excrescences on the surface. b) Peritoneal implants.

c) Intra-cystic papillae. d) Free mobility. e) Capsule rupture.

250- The most common benign mass of the cervix and endocervix is a:

a) polyp b) leiomyoma c) Nabothian cyst d) Cervical hood e) Gartner's duct cyst

251- A 37-year-old woman complains of postcoital bleeding. The LEAST likely cause of her bleeding would be cervical

a) polyps b) ectropion c) carcinoma d) Nabothian cyst e) infection

a) They originate from smooth muscle.

b) They contain muscle and connective tissues. c) They are usually multiple.

d) They are visually submucous. e) They are uncommon in the cervix.

If

1,2,3 are correct, choose A 1,3 are correct, choose B 2,4 are correct, choose C 1,23,4 are correct, choose D All are correct, choose E

253- The complications of benign ovarian neoplasms include

1) Torsion. 2) Infection.

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3) Malignant change. 4) Rupture.

5) Incarceration.

254- Regarding the Bartholin cyst, the following are correct:

1) It is the commonest cyst in the vulva.

2) True cystic swelling is present in anterior part of labium major.

3) The main cause is obstruction of Bartholin gland duct by chronic infection. 4) Should be excised if the patient is above 30 years.

5) The main symptom is throbbing pain.

255- As regard purities vulva the following are correct:

1) Pre malignant lesions are one of the causes.

2) Malnutrition & vitamins deficiencies may lead to it.

3) Pruritus vulvae resistant to treatment should be subjected to biopsy. 4) Estrogen can be used for treatment.

5) Surgical treatment includes circum-vulval incision, or simple vulvectomy.

256- As regards cervical ectopy (erosion), the following are correct:

1) It is an ulcer of the cervix.

2) It is treated conservatively in pregnant females. 3) Cauterization should be done as first line of therapy. 4) Pap smear is advisable before management.

5) Commonly cause pain, dyspareunia & low back pain.

257- Regarding cervical ectropion:

1) It can be differentiated from cervical lesion by presence of cervical tear. 2) It may associates incompetent cervix.

3) It is treated by trachelorrhaphy if cervical tear is present. 4) Endo-cervix appears due to ulceration.

5) It can be treated by cauterization.

258- Fibroids can result in:

1) Menorrhagia. 2) Polycythemia. 3) Constipation.

4) Acute urinary retention. 5) Infertility.

259- In pelvic endometriosis:

1) Treatment by danazol may produce hirsutism. 2) The tubes are uncommonly blocked.

3) There is a close association with the unruptured follicle syndrome. 4) The amount of pelvic pain is related to the extent of the disease. 5) Clomiphene citrate should be used to induce ovulation.

260- Characteristic symptoms of endometriosis include:

1) Dysmenorrhea.

2) Superficial dyspareunia. 3) Infertility.

4) Amenorrhea.

5) Pre-menstrual tension.

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1) Follicular cysts. 2) Endometriomas. 3) Luteomas. 4) Dermoid cysts. 5) Fibromas.

262- The following is essential in diagnosis of pelvic endometriosis:

1) Laparoscopy. 2) CA-125.

3) Biopsy form the suspicious nodules. 4) Ultrasonography.

5) Hysteroscopy.

263- Benign cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst):

a) It represents 50% of the ovarian neoplasms.

b) It is the commonest ovarian tumor during pregnancy. c) Malignant change occurs in about 1.5%.

d) Choriocarcinoma is the commonest malignant change. e) Rarely causes harm to the patient when ruptures.

264- Dermoid cysts:

a) Are germ cell tumors.

b) Are bilateral in 40-60% of cases.

c) Are the commonest neoplastic cysts detected during pregnancy. d) Are malignant in 10% of cases.

e) Are frequently XY.

265- Brenner's tumor

a) Usually develops in patients over 40 years, h) Usually is bilateral. c) Rarely turns malignant.

d) May secrete androgen.

e) Usually found in the wall of mutinous cystadenoma.

266- Dermoid cysts:

a) Represent 20% of all ovarian neoplasms. b) Usually are unilateral.

c) Are the commonest ovarian tumors found during pregnancy. d) May contain tissues of ectodermal origin.

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GYNECOLOGIC ONCOLOGY

267- High risk factors of CIN include the following EXCEPT:

a) HPV types 6, 11.

b) HIV is a predisposing factor for CIN. c) Smoking

d) First sexual intercourse before 18 years age e) Multiple sexual partners

268- CIN III lesions extending into the cervical canal are:

a) Often invasive.

b) Treated by radiotherapy. c) Treated by hysterectomy. d) Safely treated by cone biopsy.

e) Safely treated by large loop excision of the transformation zone.

269- The following statements are true of large loop excision of the cervical transformation zone (LLETZ) EXCEPT;

a) It is used even when a CO2 laser is available.

b) It requires anesthesia.

c) It is a cheap and effective way of removing the cervical transformation zone. d) Secondary hemorrhage is a rare complication.

e) Cervical stenosis may occur.

270- Endometrial hyperplasia could be expected in the following conditions:

a) Endodermal sinus tumor. b) Cystic teratoma.

c) Polycystic ovary disease. d) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor. e) Dysgerminoma.

271- Malignant melanoma represents what percent of the whole cancer vulva occurring?

a) 1% b) 3% c) 5% d) 10% e) 15%

272- The colposcopic pattern of CIN III is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a) Surface regularity of the squamous epithelium. b) A marked acetowhite appearance.

c) Coarse epithelial punctation.

d) A transformation zone that bleeds to touch.

e) Multisector involvement of the transformation zone.

273- Complex endometrial hyperplasia without atypia in a woman aged 41 years could be treated with the following EXCEPT:

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b) Estrogens

c) Progestins plus estrogens d) Oral contraceptive pills e) Hysterectomy

274- Carcinoma of the vulva:

a) usually ulcerates even if not advanced. b) Is usually histologically anaplastic.

c) Spreads initially to iliac nodes via vaginal lymphatics. d) Seldom involves lymph nodes at the time of presentation. e) Is equally amenable to treatment by surgery and radiotherapy.

275- Treatment of cancer of the vulva includes all the following EXCEPT:

a) Radical excision of the vulva b) Dissection of femoral triangle.

c) Unilateral or bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy. d) Pre-operative radiation.

e) Methotrexate.

276- Microinvasion of carcinoma of the cervix involves a depth below the base of the epithelium of no more than:

a) 1 mm. b) 2 mm. c) 3 mm. d) 4 mm. e) 5 mm.

277- Invasive cancer of the cervix:

a) Is the commonest malignant tumor in women in the world. b) Occurs most commonly in women under the age of 40 years. c) Is usually of squamous type.

d) Occurs less commonly in smokers e) Is uncommon in developing countries.

278- All the following about microinvasive cancer of the cervix are correct EXCEPT:

a) It consists only of those showing early stromal invasion. b) It may invade to a depth of 5 mm.

c) It should have a maximum width of 7 mm. d) It may invade lymphatic channels.

e) It may metastasize

279- Elevated α fetoprotein is used for detection of:

a) Cancer vulva. b) Cancer cervix.

c) Endodermal sinus tumor. d) Serous cystadenocarcinoma. e) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma.

280- The commonest vulval malignancy is:

a) Adenocarcinoma.

b) Squamous cell carcinoma. c) Basal cell carcinoma.

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d) Melanosarcoma. e) Leiomyosarcoma.

281- Radiotherapy is indicated in endometrial carcinoma in the following situations EXCEPT:

a) Preoperative RT is commonly performed to be followed by TAH + BSO. b) Postoperative adjuvant therapy.

c) As primary treatment for the medically impossible. d) To specifically treat pelvic side wall involvement. e) Vaginal recurrence after hysterectomy.

282- In women with postmenopausal bleeding, it is best to perform endometrial sampling if the endometrium on transvaginal ultrasound is thicker than:

a) 1 mm. b) 2 mm. c) 4 mm. d) 6 mm. e) 10 mm.

283- The definite diagnosis of a Leiomyosarcoma requires how many mitotic cells per HPF? a) 1. b) 4. c) 10. d) 16. e) 20.

284- The following are types of epithelial ovarian tumors EXCEPT:

a) Endometrioid adenocarcinoma. b) Transitional cell tumor.

c) Brenner's tumor. d) Thecoma.

e) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma.

285- The most common primary site for atypical secondaries metastasizing to the ovary is: a) Stomach. b) Lung. . c) Colon. d) Breast. e) Esophagus.

286- As regards the spread of epithelial ovarian cancers, all the following are correct EXCEPT:

a) Via the blood stream occurs early in the disease. b) To para-aortic lymph nodes puts the case at stage III. c) To the underside of the diaphragm is common.

d) Around the peritoneal cavity has usually occurred by the time of diagnosis. e) To the omentum frequently occurs.

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following EXCEPT:

a) Volume of the tumor. b) Affection of ovarian stroma c) Extent of the tumor.

d) Histological differentiation of the tumor. e) Presence of ascites.

288- The ovarian tumor that is best responds to radiotherapy is:

a) Serous cystadenocarcinoma b) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma c) Transitional adenocarcinoma d) Dysgerminoma

e) Granulosa cell tumor

289- The following factor are associated with endometrial cancer EXCEPT:

a) Obesity. b) Smoking.

c) Polycystic ovarian disease and amenorrhea. d) Heredity.

e) Tamoxifen use.

290- The most active chemotherapeutic drug in endometrial cancer is:

a) Paclitaxel. b) Cisplatin. c) Carboplatin. d) Doxorubicin. e) Cyclophosphamide.

291- The following hormonal treatment may be used in treating endometrial cancer EXCEPT:

a) Provera (medroxy progesterone acetate). b) The patients are younger.

c) LHRH analogues. d) Tamoxifen.

e) Diethyl stilbestrol (DES).

292- Patient outcome is better if the endometrial cancer cells are:

a) Diploid. b) Aneuploid. c) Triploid. d) Tetraploid. e) Trisomy.

293- Postmenopausal bleeding is a common presentation of the following EXCEPT:

a) Cervical ectropion.

b) Carcinoma of the endometrium. c) Atrophic vaginitis.

d) Carcinoma of the cervix. e) Sarcoma of the uterus

294- The common presentations of carcinoma of the cervix include the following EXCEPT:

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b) Pelvic pain. c) Vaginal discharge. d) Postcoital bleeding. e) Intermenstrual bleeding.

295- All the following about CA 125 are correct EXCEPT:

a) Is a glycoprotein.

b) Is more commonly elevated in mucinous ovarian tumors than serous. c) Is useful in screening for epithelial ovarian cancer.

d) Is a useful diagnostic marker in postmenopausal women with a pelvic mass. e) Is accurate in predicting the presence of disease at second look laparotomy.

296- The following factors increase the risk of a woman developing endometrial cancer EXCEPT;

a) Obesity.

b) Late menopause.

c) Combined (estrogen and progestin) hormone replacement therapy. d) Diabetes mellitus.

e) A history of polycystic ovary disease.

297- Intra-peritoneal metastasis of a primary carcinoma of the ovary extending to the surface of the liver with positive retro-peritoneal lymph nodes is consistent with:

a) Stage IF b) Stage IIB. c) Stage IIC. d) Stage III. e) Stage IV.

298- Which of the following statements about ovarian tumors in premenarcheal girls is true?

a) The malignancy rate is low.

b) The majority are of celomic epithelial origin.

c) Ovarian neoplasia of any type are relatively common.

d) Most ovarian enlargement in the newborn are functional cysts. e) Germ tumors are a frequent cause of precocious puberty.

299- The following are associated with a reduced prevalence of epithelial ovarian cancer EXCEPT:

a) Unilateral oophorectomy. b) Female sterilization. c) IUCD usage.

d) Use of combined oral contraceptive pills e) Previous hysterectomy.

300- The following factors make a diagnose of malignancy more likely in a woman with an ovarian tumor EXCEPT:

a) Family history of ovarian cancer. b) Previous use of the contraceptive pills. c) Nulliparity.

d) Bilaterality of the tumor

(44)

301- Endometrial cancer with vaginal metastasis is staged: a) IIb. b) IIIa. c) IIIb. d) IIIc. e) IVa.

302- Carcinoma in situ of the cervix precedes invasive for an average period of:

a) 1 year. b) 2 years. c) 5 years. d) 10 years. e) 15 years.

303- The following ovarian tumors are always malignant:

a) Myxoma peritonii. b) Endodermal sinus tumor. c) Solid teratoma.

d) Granulosa cell tumors. e) Brenner tumors.

304- Risk factor for cancer ovary is:

a) Family history of cancer colon.

b) Use of progesterone only injectable contraception c) Use of oral contraceptive pills.

d) Multiparity.

e) Serous ovarian cyst.

305- The following statements concerning endometrial cancer are correct EXCEPT:

a) Involvement of the cervix occurs in stage II disease.

b) Invasion of the myometrium to a depth of more than 50% puts the case into stage II. c) Initial treatment of stage I disease is by total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral

salpingo-oophorectomy.

d) Postoperative radiotherapy is rarely required in stage IA disease. e) Five-year survival is 90% in stage I.

306- The following criteria are in favor of diagnosis of ovarian cancer during laparotomy EXCEPT:

a) Huge ovarian cyst. b) Extra cystic papillae.

c) Areas of hemorrhage and necrosis. d) Heterogeneous consistency. e) Limited mobility

307- Which of the following germ cell tumors is associated with ambiguous genitalia?

a) Choriocarcinoma. b) Gonadoblastoma. c) Dermoid cyst. d) Carcinoid tumor.