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CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM NUMBER
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)
PAPER CODE AIPMT (11
THSyllabus)
0 1 C M 2 1 3 0 7 7
Corporate Office CAREER INSTITUTE“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003 E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in
Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad
DATE : 19 - 01 - 2014
MAJOR TEST # 02
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
INSTRUCTIONS (
)
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3
180
720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
1
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your Form No. & Complete Test Details.
Correction
Form No.
Test Details
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
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HAVE CONFIDENCE
100% SUCCESS
1. A 3i 2 j kˆ ˆˆ. If A B is a unit vector along X-axis, then B is
:-(1) ˆi (2) ˆ2i 2 j k ˆˆ (3) 2i 2 j kˆ ˆˆ (4) 3iˆ ˆj kˆ
2. A cup of tea cools from 80°C to 60°C in 40 sec. The ambient temperature is 30°C. In cooling from 60°C to 50°C. It will takes
:-(Use Newton's law of cooling) (1) 35 sec (2) 30 sec (3) 32 sec (4) 48 sec
3. A golf ball of mass 0.05 kg placed on a tee, is struck by a golf stick. The speed of the golf ball as it leaves the tee is 100 m/s, the time of contact between them is 0.02 s. If the force decreases to zero linearly with time, then the force at the beginning of the contact is
:-(1) 500 N (2) 250 N (3) 200 N (4) 100 N
4. A metal ball falls from a height of 32 m on a steel plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to what height will the ball rise after second bounce ?
(1) 2m (2) 4m
(3) 8m (4) 16m
5. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of 20 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum :-(1) terminal velocity will be 20 m/s
(2) terminal velocity will be less than 20 m/s (3) terminal velocity will be greater than 20 m/s (4) no terminal velocity will be attained 6. Which of the following have same dimensions
:-(i) Work (ii) Energy
(iii) Power (iv) Torque (1) Only (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (ii) & (iii) (3) (i), (ii) & (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
1. A 3i 2 j kˆ ˆˆ.
A B, X-
B
(1) ˆi (2) ˆ2i 2 j k ˆˆ (3) 2i 2 j kˆ ˆˆ (4) 3iˆ ˆj kˆ 2.
80°C
60°C
40 sec
30°C
60°C
50°C
(1) 35 sec (2) 30 sec (3) 32 sec (4) 48 sec 3.
0.05 kg
100 m/s
0.02
(1) 500 N (2) 250 N (3) 200 N (4) 100 N 4.
32 m
0.5
? (1) 2m (2) 4m (3) 8m (4) 16m 5.
(terminal velocity) 20 m/s
:-(1)
20 m/s
(2)
20 m/s
(3)
20 m/s
(4)
6.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1)
(i)
(ii)(2) (i), (ii)
(iii) (3) (i), (ii)
(iv) (4) (ii), (iii)
(iv)7. The velocity (v) of a body moving along the positive x-direction varies with displacement (x) from the origin as vk x, where k is a constant. Which of the graphs shown in figure correctly represents the displacement-time (x-t) graphs of the motion ? (1) x t O (2) x t O (3) x t O (4) x t O
8. The radius of gyration of a uniform disc about a line perpendicular to its plane is equal to its radius (r). Then the distance of that line from centre of disc is :-(1) r 2 (2) r 2 (3) r 3 (4) r 3 9. Six identical rods are joined end to end, to form
a hexagon mass of each rod is m and length is . Then moment of inertia of system w.r.t. an axis passing through centre and perpendicular to plane is
:-(1) 6m2 (2) 5m2
(3) 10m2 (4) None
10. Which of the following expressions does not represent SHM
:-(1) A cos t (2) A sin 2t (3) A sin t + B cost (4) A sin2 t
11. A bread gives 5 kcals of heat to a person. How much height he can jump against gravity by using this energy if his efficiency is 30% and mass is 60 kg (1) 15.5 m (2) 10.5 m
(3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m
12. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 36 km h–1 fires a bullet at a thief's car speeding away
in the same direction with a speed of 108 km h–1.
If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 140 ms–1, with
what speed will the bullet hit the theif's car? (1) 120 ms–1 (2) 130 ms–1 (3) 140 ms–1 (4) 150 ms–1 7.
x-
(v),
(x)
vk x
k
(x-t)
(1) x t O (2) x t O (3) x t O (4) x t O 8.
(r)
:-(1) r 2 (2) r 2 (3) r 3 (4) r 3 9. m
:-(1) 6m2 (2) 5m2 (3) 10m2 (4)
10.
:-(1) A cos t (2) A sin 2t (3) A sin t + B cost (4) A sin2 t11.
5 kcals
30%
60 kg
(1) 15.5 m (2) 10.5 m (3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m 12. 36 km h–1
108 km h–1
140 ms–1
(1) 120 ms–1 (2) 130 ms–1 (3) 140 ms–1 (4) 150 ms–113. A toy gun uses a spring of force constant k. When charged before being triggered in the upward direction, the spring is compressed by a distance x. If mass of the shot is m, on being triggered it will go upto a height of
:-(1) 2 kx mg (2) 2 x kmg (3) 2 kx 2mg (4) 2 2 k x mg 14. The least coefficient of friction for an inclined
plane inclined at an angle of 30° with horizontal, in order that a solid cylinder will roll down without slipping is :-(1) 1 3 (2) 1 3 (3) 1 3 3 (4) 3 15. Two springs of constants k1 and k2 have equal
highest velocities, when executing SHM. Then, the ratio of their amplitudes (given their masses are equal) will be
:-(1) k1/k2 (2) (k1/k2)1/2
(3) k2/k1 (4) (k2/k1)1/2
16. One gm of ice at 0°C is added to 5 g of water at 10°C. If the latent heat is 80 cal/g, final temperature of the mixture is
:-(1) 5°C (2) 0°C
(3) –5°C (4) None of these 17. A mass 'm' rests on a horizontal surface. The
coefficient of friction between the mass and surface is s. The mass is pulled by a force 'F' as shown. Find limiting friction between the mass and the surface
:-(1) s mg (2) s[mg – ( 3 /2)F] m 30° F (3) s[mg – F/2] (4) s(mg + F/2)
18. If the system is in equilibrium in both the cases then value of m is :-16kg m 2 1 4kg m 2 1 (1) 4 kg (2) 8 kg (3) 16 kg (4) 32 kg 13.
k
x
m
:-(1) 2 kx mg (2) 2 x kmg (3) 2 kx 2mg (4) 2 2 k x mg 14.
30°
:-(1) 1 3 (2) 1 3 (3) 1 3 3 (4) 3 15. k1
k2
(
):-(1) k1/k2 (2) (k1/k2)1/2 (3) k2/k1 (4) (k2/k1)1/2 16.
0°C
1
5
10°C
80 cal/g
(1) 5°C (2) 0°C (3) –5°C (4)
17. m
s
F
:-(1) s mg (2) s[mg – ( 3 /2)F] m 30° F (3) s[mg – F/2] (4) s(mg + F/2) 18.
m
:-16kg m 2 1 4kg m 2 1 (1) 4 kg (2) 8 kg (3) 16 kg (4) 32 kg
Key Filling
19. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero, is :-(1) –6Gm r (2) – 9Gm r (3) zero (4) – 4Gm r 20. Two simple harmonic motions of angular
frequency 100 rad/s and 1000 rad/s have the same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum acceleration is
:-(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104
(3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102
21. In the following figure, a P–V curve is drawn for a gas the work done in the process will be–
(1) 1 Joule (2) 2 Joule (3) 4 Joule (4) –2 Joule
22. Mass of a particle is 0.50 kg. It is moving initially with the speed of 80 m/s towards East. At t = 0, when particle is at x = 0, a force of 20 N directed towards west is being applied on it for 4 sec. Its position after 5 sec is
-(1) 80 m (2) 0 (3) –40 m (4) –80 m 23. A particle of mass m moving towards east with
speed v collides with another particle of same mass and moving towards the north with same speed v. If the two particles stick to each other the new particle of mass 2 m will have a speed of
:-(1) v (2) v/2
(3) v / 2 (4) v 2
24. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional
to-(1) n +1 2 R (2) n -1 2 R (3) Rn (4) n -2 2 R 19.
m
4m
r
(1) –6Gm r (2) – 9Gm r (3)
(4) – 4Gm r 20. 100 rad/s
1000 rad/s
:-(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104 (3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102 21.
P–V
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) –2
22.
0.50 kg
80 m/s
t = 0
x = 0
20 N
4 sec
5 sec
-(1) 80 m (2) 0 (3) –40 m (4) –80 m 23.
v
m
(v)
2 m
:-(1) v (2) v/2 (3) v / 2 (4) v 2 24.
n
R
-(1) n +1 2 R (2) n -1 2 R (3) Rn (4) n -2 2 R 25. A body oscillates with an amplitude of 10 cm on a horizontal platform. The maximum angular frequency with which the platform can vibrate vertically such that the body of mass 10 kg will not leave contact, is
:-(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 10 rad/sec (3) 20 rad/sec (4) None of these 26. 140 calories of heat is required to raise the
temperature of 2 moles of a gas at constant pressure from 0°C to 10°C. How much heat will be required to heat it from 0°C to 10°C at constant volume :-(1) 60 cal (2) 100 cal
(3) 140 cal (4) 180 cal
27. Two billiards ball P and Q, each of mass 20g and moving in opposite directions with speed of 5m/s each, collide and rebound with the same speed. If the collision lasts for 10–3 sec, which of
the following statement are true ?
(1) The impulse imparted to each ball is 0.8 N-s
(2) The impulse imparted to each ball is 0.4 N-s and the force exerted on each ball is 400 N
(3) The impulse imparted to each ball is 0.4 kg m/s and the force exerted on each ball is 4 × 10–5 N
(4) The impulse and the force on each ball are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction 28. A block of mass m moving at a velocity collides with another block of mass 2m at rest. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. Then the coefficient of restitution is :-(1) 1 2 (2) 1 (3) 1 3 (4) 1 4
29. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes g
9 (where g = the acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of the earth) in terms of R, the radius of the earth, is
:-(1) R 2 (2) 2R (3) 2R (4) R 2 25.
10 cm
10 kg
:-(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 10 rad/sec (3) 20 rad/sec (4)
26.
2
0°C
10°C.
140
0°C
10°C
:-(1) 60 cal (2) 100 cal (3) 140 cal (4) 180 cal 27.
20g
P
Q, 5 m/s
10–3 sec,
(1)
0.8 N-s
(2)
0.4 N-s
400 N
(3)
0.4 kg m/s
4 × 10–5 N
(4)
28. m
2m
:-(1) 1 2 (2) 1 (3) 1 3 (4) 1 4 29.
R
g9 (
g =
)
:-(1) R 2 (2) 2R (3) 2R (4) R 230. The equation for the displacement of a stretched string is given by, y = 4 sin 2 t x
0.02 100
.
Where, y and x are in cm and t in sec. The (i) frequency (ii) velocity of the wave
(iii) maximum particle velocity are :-(1) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 20 m/s
(2) 50 Hz, 20 m/s, 50 m/s (3) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 2 m/s (4) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 4 m/s
31. If Em refers to the maximum intensity of radiations and m is the wavelength corresponding to the maximum intensity of radiations, the Wein's displacement law tells
that:-(1) Increase in Em when temperature is increasing (2) Decreasee in Em when temperature is
increasing
(3) Increase in m when temperature is increasing (4) Decrease in m when temperature is increasing 32. For which of the following graphs, the average velocity of a particle moving along a straight line for time interval 0 to t must be negative
:-(1) time t 0 x Position (2) time t 0 v Velocity (3) Velocity 0 t/3 t time (4) Position 0 t x
33. A car of mass 1000 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 54 km/hr in 5 sec. The average power of the engine during this period in watt is :- (neglect friction) (1) 2000 (2) 22500 (3) 5000 (4) 2250 30.
y = 4 sin 2 t x 0.02 100
y
x
t
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
:-(1) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 20 m/s (2) 50 Hz, 20 m/s, 50 m/s (3) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 2 m/s (4) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 4 m/s 31.
Em
m
:-(1) Em
(2) Em
(3) m
(4) m
32.
0
t
(1) time t 0 x Position (2) time t 0 v Velocity (3) Velocity 0 t/3 t time (4) Position 0 t x 33. 1000
5
54
:- (
) (1) 2000 (2) 22500 (3) 5000 (4) 225034. A small ball of density is immersed in a liquid of density (>) to a depth h and released. The height above the surface of water up to which the ball will jump is
:-(1) – 1 h (2) – 1 h (3) 1 h (4) 1 h
35. A transverse wave is described by the equation y = y0sin 2 x ft
. The maximum particle velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if (1) = y0 4 (2) = y0 2 (3) = y0 (4) = 2y0
36. The temperature of an ideal gas is –68°C. To what temperature should it be heated so that the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules be doubled
:-(1) 547°C (2) 137°C (3) –272°C (4) 820°C
37. Position vector of a particle is given as
2 ˆ 2 ˆ
r(t 4t6)i(t ) j
. The time after which, the velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :-(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec (4) 10 sec
38. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with initial velocity v0. If (3/4)th of its kinetic
energy is lost due to friction in time t0, then coefficient of friction between the particle and the ground is :-(1) 0 0 v 2gt (2) 0 0 v 4gt (3) 0 3v 4gt (4) 0 0 v gt 39. The density of water at the surface of ocean is .
If the bulk modulus of water is B, then the density of ocean water at depth, when the pressure is p0
and p0 is the atmospheric pressure, is
:-(1)
0 pB B – – 1 p (2)
0 pB B – 1 p (3) 0 pB B – p (4) 0 pB B p 34.
(>)
h
:-(1) – 1 h (2) – 1 h (3) 1 h (4) 1 h 35.
y = y0sin 2ftx
:-(1) = y0 4 (2) = y0 2 (3) = y0 (4) = 2y0 36.
–68°C
:-(1) 547°C (2) 137°C (3) –272°C (4) 820°C 37.
2 ˆ 2 ˆ r(t 4t6)i(t ) j
(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 1.5 sec (4) 10 sec 38.
v0
t0
(3/4)th
:-(1) 0 0 v 2gt (2) 0 0 v 4gt (3) 0 3v 4gt (4) 0 0 v gt 39.
B
p0
(p0
) (1)
0 pB B – – 1 p (2)
0 pB B – 1 p (3) 0 pB B – p (4) 0 pB B p40. It takes 2.0 seconds for a sound wave to travel between two fixed points when the day temperature is 10°C. If the temperature rises to 30°C the sound wave travels between the same fixed points in
:-(1) 1.9 sec (2) 2.0 sec (3) 2.1 sec (4) 2.2 sec
41. The degree of freedom f for a gas is given by :-(1) 2CV R (2) V P V 2C C C
(3) 21 (4) All the the above 42. Two bodies A and B of masses 15 kg and
10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid wall as shown in the figure. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. If a force 300 N is applied horizontally to A, then force exerted by B on A is
:-15 kg 10 kg A B 300 N
(1) Zero (2) 150 N
(3) 250 N (4) 300 N
43. Four rods AB, BC, CD and DA have mass m, 2m, 3m and 4m respectively. The centre of mass of all the four rods
:-A B
C D
1 2
3 04
(1) Lie in region 1 (2) Lie in region 2 (3) Lie in region 3 (4) Lie at 0
44. Two wires of the same material and same mass are stretched by the same force. Their lengths are in the ratio 2 : 3. Their elongations are in the ratio:-(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4 45. The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz. The
velocity of sound in air is 344 ms–1. The distance
travelled (in meters) by the sound during the time in which the tuning fork completes 32 vibrations is :-(1) 21 (2) 43 (3) 86 (4) 129 40.
10°C
2
30°C
:-(1) 1.9 sec (2) 2.0 sec (3) 2.1 sec (4) 2.2 sec 41.
f
:-(1) 2CV R (2) V P V 2C C C (3) 21 (4)
42.
15 kg
10 kg
A
B
0.2.
A
300 N
B
A
15 kg 10 kg A B 300 N (1)
(2) 150 N (3) 250 N (4) 300 N 43. m, 2m, 3m
4m
AB, BC, CD
DA
:-A B C D 1 2 3 04 (1)
1
(2)
2
(3)
3
(4) 0
44.
2 : 3
:-(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4 45.
256 Hz
344 ms–1
32
:-(1) 21 (2) 43 (3) 86 (4) 12946. What is the total number of electrons present in 18 ml of water :-(1) 10 (2) 10 × 6.023 × 1023 (3) 23 10 6.023 10 (4) 6.02 × 1023 47. H2O2 can oxidise :-(1) Mn2+ in alkaline medium (2) MnO4– in acidic medium (3) F– in acidic medium (4) All
48. Which of the following is correct
:-(1) If under some conditions, CCl4 & SiCl4 hydrolyse then Kc for CCl4 hydrolysis will be larger (Kc = equilibrium constant) (2) If under some conditions, CCl4 & SiCl4
hydrolyse then Kc for SiCl4 hydrolysis will be larger
(3) Kc for CCl4 hydrolysis = Kc for SiCl4 hydrolysis
(4) None
49. Consider the following two reactions : (i) Propene + H2 Propane, H1 (ii) Cyclopropane + H2 Propane, H2 Then, H2 – H1 will be : (1) 0 (2) 2BEC – C – BEC = C (3) BEC = C (4) 2BEC = C – BEC – C 50. O–C O NO2 Product is :-(1) O–C O NO2 (2) O–C O NO2 (3) O–C O O N2 (4) O–C O NO2 46. 18 ml
:-(1) 10 (2) 10 × 6.023 × 1023 (3) 23 10 6.023 10 (4) 6.02 × 1023 47. H2O2
:-(1)
Mn2+
(2)
MnO4–
(3)
F–
(4)
48.
:-(1)
CCl4
SiCl4
CCl4
Kc
(Kc = equilibrium constant) (2)
CCl4
SiCl4
SiCl4
Kc
(Kc = equilibrium constant) (3) CCl4
Kc = SiCl4
Kc (4)
49.
(i) Propene + H2 Propane, H1 (ii) Cyclopropane + H2 Propane, H2 H2 – H1
(1) 0 (2) 2BEC – C – BEC = C (3) BEC = C (4) 2BEC = C – BEC – C 50. O–C O NO2
:-(1) O–C O NO2 (2) O–C O NO2 (3) O–C O O N2 (4) O–C O NO251. 6 × 1020 molecules of CO
2 are removed from 220 milligram of CO2. What are the remaining moles of CO2
:-(1) 4 × 10-3moles (2) 5 × 10-3 moles (3) 2 × 10-3 moles (4) 6 × 10-3 moles 52. No. of pair of F atoms which subtents 90° angle
on S in SF6 will be
:-(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 16
53. Symmetrical H bonding will occur in :-(1) HF---HF (2) H H H O---H–O H + (3) F---H–F (4) All
54. For the reaction PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured by
:-(i) Introducing inert gas at constant volume (ii) Introducing Cl2 gas at constant volume (iii) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure (iv) Increasing the pressure of the container (v) Introducing PCl5
(1) (iii), (iv) & (v) (2) (iii) & (v) (3) (i), (ii) & (v) (4) Only (iii)
55. The correct increasing order of reactivity for following molecules towards electrophilic aromatic substitution. OH NO2 OH
OMe
OH OHCl
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) I < IV < II < III (2) I < IV < III < II (3) I < III < II < IV (4) I < III < IV < II
56. What is the empirical formula of the compound containing H, C, O and N in the mass ratio of 1 : 3 : 4 : 7 respectively :-(1) HC3O4N7 (2) H4CON2 (3) HC4O2N2 (4) None 51. 220
CO2
6 × 1020
CO2
:-(1) 4 × 10-3
(2) 5 × 10-3
(3) 2 × 10-3
(4) 6 × 10-3
52. F
S
90°
:-(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16 53. Symmetrical H bonding
:-(1) HF---HF (2) H H H O---H–O H + (3) F---H–F (4)
54.
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
:-(i)
(ii)
Cl2
(iii)
(iv)
(v) PCl5
(1) (iii), (iv) & (v) (2) (iii) & (v) (3) (i), (ii) & (v) (4) Only (iii)
55.
OH NO2 OHOMe
OH OHCl
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) I < IV < II < III (2) I < IV < III < II (3) I < III < II < IV (4) I < III < IV < II 56.
H, C, O
N
1 : 3 : 4 : 7
:-(1) HC3O4N7 (2) H4CON2 (3) HC4O2N2 (4)
57. Which is correctly matched
Compound No. of No. of pp dp
(1) SO3 3 0
(2) SO2 1 0
(3) XeO3 2 1
(4) POCl3 0 1
58. 200 mL gas A at 300 torr and 300 mL gas B at 200 torr are taken in a container of 2L. Then find out partial pressure of gas A in mixture. (1) 20 torr (2) 30 torr (3) 50 torr (4) 100 torr 59. If degree of ionisation of 0.001 M CH3COOH is 2 × 10–2 %. Then find out the ionisation constant of acetate ion :-(1) 2 × 10–11 (2) 4 × 10–11 (3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–3 60. Which of the following compounds is most basic ? (1) –NH2 (2) –NH 2 O N–2 (3) –CH NH2 2 • • (4) –N–COCH3 • • H 61. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of He+ is –871.6 × 10–20 J. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen would be:-(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J (3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J 62. Which correctly matched Facts Reason (1) Aq. solution of Ka of H3BO3 < 10–7 Borax is alkaline (2) In recovery of NH3 N H4 generate NH3 from NH4Cl in solvay in acidic medium process, acidic due to acid base medium is required reaction (3) SnCl4 can be reduced Due to inert pair by Cr2(SO4)3 effect, SnCl2 is more stable than SnCl4 (4) AlCl3 can form non In dimer form of planar dimer AlCl3, hybridisation of Al = sp2 57.
Compound No. of No. of pp dp (1) SO3 3 0 (2) SO2 1 0 (3) XeO3 2 1 (4) POCl3 0 1 58.
2 L
300 torr
200 mL
A
200 torr
300 mL
B
A
(1) 20 torr (2) 30 torr (3) 50 torr (4) 100 torr 59.
0.001 M CH3COOH
2 × 10–2 %
:-(1) 2 × 10–11 (2) 4 × 10–11 (3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–3 60.
? (1) –NH2 (2) O N–2 –NH2 (3) –CH NH2 2 • • (4) –N–COCH3 • • H 61. He+
–871.6 × 10–20 J
:-(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J (3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J 62.
(1) Borax
H3BO3
Ka < 10–7
(2) solvay
NH4Cl N H4
NH3
NH3
(3) SnCl4
Cr2(SO4)3
SnCl2, SnCl4
(4) AlCl3
AlCl3
Al
= sp263. Rate of diffusion of NH3 is double of X2 gas. Then find out molecular weight of X2 gas.
(1) 68 (2) 17
(3) 34 (4) 136
64. A buffer solution with pH = 9 is to be prepared by mixing NH4Cl and NH4OH. Calculate the number of moles of NH4Cl that should be added to one litre of 1.0 M NH4OH [Kb = 1.8 × 10–5]
(1) 3.4 (2) 2.6
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.8
65. Among the following four compounds :-(a) phenol (b) methyl phenol (c) metanitrophenol (d) paranitrophenol, The acidity order is :
(1) c > d > a > b (2) c > d > c > b (3) b > a > c > d (4) d > c > a > b 66. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum
of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at :-(1) 5Rcm 1 36 (2) 3Rcm 1 4 (3) 7Rcm 1 144 (4) 9Rcm 1 400
67. Which is correct order
:-(1) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2 (Bond length) (2) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2 (Oxidising power) (3) F > Cl > Br > I (Electron affinity) (4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (acidic order) 68. A compound of Xe and F is found to have
53.5% Xe. What is the oxidation number of Xe in this compound ? [Atomic weight of Xe = 132]
(1) –4 (2) 0 (3) +4 (4) +6 69. Which of the following are tertiary radicals :–
(a) CH3 CH3 C CH3 (b) CH3 CH CH3 (c) CH3 C CH3 C H2 5 (d) CH3 C CH3 CH2 CH3 (1) a and b (2) b and c (3) a and c (4) b and d 63.
NH3
X2
X2
(1) 68 (2) 17 (3) 34 (4) 136 64. pH = 9
NH4Cl
NH4OH
1.0 M NH4OH
NH4Cl
[Kb = 1.8 × 10–5] (1) 3.4 (2) 2.6 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.8 65.
:-(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
,
: (1) c > d > a > b (2) a > d > c > b (3) b > a > c > d (4) d > c > a > b 66.
:-(1) 5Rcm 1 36 (2) 3Rcm 1 4 (3) 7Rcm 1 144 (4) 9R cm 1 400 67.
:-(1) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2 (
) (2) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2 (
) (3) F > Cl > Br > I (
) (4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (
) 68. Xe
F
53.5% Xe
Xe
[Xe
= 132] (1) –4 (2) 0 (3) +4 (4) +6 69.
(3°)
(a) CH3 CH3 C CH3 (b) CH3 CH CH3 (c) CH3 C CH3 C H2 5 (d) CH3 C CH3 CH2 CH3 (1) a
b (2) b
c (3) a
c (4) b
d
70. Hydration of C CH in presence of H2SO4 / HgSO4 gives (1) COCH3 (2) CH CH OH2 2 (3) CH CH2 3 (4) CH CHO2
71. Out of first four ordits of H-atom. The radius ratio of two orbits is 1: 4. The difference of energy of these orbits will be
:-(1) 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV (2) 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV (3) 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV (4) 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV 72. Which statement is correct
:-(1) Na + Liq NH3 can act as reducing agent (2) KO2 can oxidise CO2 into O2
(3) Both Li3N & Mg3N2 can exist (4) All
73. Which of the following oxides cannot work as a reducing agent?
(1) CO2 (2) NO2 (3) SO2 (4) ClO2
74. The IUPAC name for
H C=O OH is :-(1) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentanal (2) 2–Formyl–1–hydroxy cyclopentane (3) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentane carbaldehyde (4) Cyclopentane–2–ol–1–al
75. The major product obtained on treatment of CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O–/CH3OH is (1) CH3CH2CH(OCH3)CH3
(2) CH3CH CHCH3 (3) CH3CH2CH CH2 (4) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3
76. The no. of C-C links in fullerine is x. Then total C in fullerine is :-(1) 2x 3 (2) 5 x 6 (3) 6x 5 (4) x 3 70. C CH
H2SO4 / HgSO4
(1) COCH3 (2) CH CH OH2 2 (3) CH CH2 3 (4) CH CHO2 71. H-
1 : 4
:-(1) 12.09 eV
3.4 eV (2) 13.6 eV
3.4 eV (3) 2.55 eV
10.2 eV (4) 3.4 eV
0.85 eV 72.
:-(1) Na + Liq NH3
(2) KO2, CO2,
O2
(3) Li3N
Mg3N2
(4)
73.
(1) CO2 (2) NO2 (3) SO2 (4) ClO2 74. H C=O OH
IUPAC
(1) 2–
(2) 2–
–1–
(3) 2–
(4)
–2–
–1–
75. CH3CH2CH(F)CH3
CH3O–/CH3OH
(1) CH3CH2CH(OCH3)CH3 (2) CH3CH CHCH3 (3) CH3CH2CH CH2 (4) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH376. fullerine
C-C links
x
fullerine
C
:-(1) 2x 3 (2) 5 x 6 (3) 6x 5 (4) x 3
77. Which of the following compounds can not exist? (a) K2[CuI4] (b) TlI3 (c) PbI2 (d) SCl6 Correct code is
:-(1) c, d (2) a, b (3) a, d (4) a, c, d 78. For the process H2O() (1 bar, 373 K) H2O(g)
(1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of thermodynamic parameters is :
(1) G = 0, S = +ve (2) G = 0, S = –ve (3) G = +ve, S = 0 (4) G = –ve, S = +ve 79. The IUPAC name of the given compound is
:-Br Cl CHO
(1) (2R, 4Z)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal (2) (2R, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal (3) (2Z, 5R)-3-bromo-5-chloro-5-formyl-2-hexene (4) (2S, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal 80. If water pollution continues at its present rate,
it will eventually :-(1) Stop water cycle (2) Prevent precipitation
(3) Make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants
(4) Make nitrate molecules unavailable to water plants
81. Which statement is correct
:-(1) IP of Cl > EA of Cl [IP = Ionisation potential EA = electron affinitiy] (2) Conduction of H+ < Conduction of Li+ (3) IP of F– > IP of Cl–
(4) All
82. H2 can't be prepared using :-(1) electrolysis Ba(OH) solution + Ni electrode 2 – H O2 (2) Zn dil.H SO2 4 (3) Zn Conc.HNO3
(4) NaCl aq. solution Hg Cathodeelectrolysis
83. The species which by definition has zero standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is (1) Br2(g) (2) Cl2(g) (3) H2O (g) (4) CH4 (g)
84. The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone to show metamerism :–
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
77.
?(a) K2[CuI4] (b) TlI3 (c) PbI2 (d) SCl6
:-(1) c, d (2) a, b (3) a, d (4) a, c, d
78.
H2O() (1 bar, 373 K) H2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K),
(1) G = 0, S = +ve (2) G = 0, S = –ve (3) G = +ve, S = 0 (4) G = –ve, S = +ve
79.
IUPAC
:-Br Cl CHO (1) (2R, 4Z)-4-
-2-
-2-
-4-
(2) (2R, 4E)-4-
-2-
-2-
-4-
(3) (2Z, 5R)-3-
-5-
-5-
-2-
(4) (2S, 4E)-4-
-2-
-2-
-4-
80.
:-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
81.
:-(1) IP of Cl > EA of Cl [IP =
EA =
] (2) H+
< Li+
(3) IP of F– > IP of Cl– (4)
82. H2
:-(1)
Ba(OH) solution + Ni electrode 2 – H O2 (2) Zn dil.H SO2 4 (3) Zn Conc.HNO3 (4) NaCl aq. solution Hg Cathodeelectrolysis
83.