PSY 250 Abnormal Psychology Review for Test #2 Chapters 4, 10, & 5







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1. In addition to providing possible explanations for psychological disorders, theories also provide A. a framework for interpreting observations about behavior.

B. diagnostic criteria for labeling mental disorders. C. the foundation on which DSM-IV is constructed.

D. a bias that prevents the client’s expectations from being considered.

2. The motivating force oriented toward the immediate and total gratification of sensual needs and desires is referred to as the __________ principle.

A. reality B. id C. pleasure D. moral

3. Which phrase was used by Freud to describe the loose, distorted, and illogical way that the id processes new information?

A. tertiary process thinking B. pleasure principle thinking C. secondary process thinking D. primary process thinking

4. The ego is governed by the __________ principle. A. reality

B. pleasure C. moral D. primary

5. Freud referred to logical, rational problem-solving as __________ thinking. A. primary process

B. secondary process C. tertiary process D. reactive

6. “Oh, I’m so angry, but if I punch this guy in the face, he might retaliate, and worse yet it’ll look like I’ve lost control! Oh well, I’ll go home and take a long jog.” This statement is a good example of what Freud calls

A. reactive thinking. B. tertiary process thinking. C. secondary process thinking. D. primary process thinking.

7. The authors of DSM-IV are considering adding a new axis to future editions based on which psychodynamic concept?

A. libido

B. defense mechanisms C. ego


8. The defense mechanism of displacement is categorized at the __________ level. A. mental inhibitions

B. image-distorting defenses C. high adaptive defenses D. disavowal defenses

9. Leavitt (1997) found that clients with recovered memories of child sexual assault are

A. less susceptible to suggested misinformation than are normal or psychiatric control subjects. B. more likely to become the victims of later sexual assaults.

C. easily convinced by misinformation provided by a therapist.

D. more susceptible to suggested misinformation than are normal or psychiatric control subjects. 10. According to Horney and Adler, what is the most important factor in the development of

personality? A. erogenous zones B. psychosexual conflict C. interpersonal relations D. object relations

11. Failure to resolve an earlier psychosocial stage is central to __________ theory regarding psychological disturbances.

A. Heinz Kohut’s B. Melanie Klein’s C. Alfred Adler’s D. Erik Erikson’s

12. According to Freud, anyone or anything that is the focus of a person’s instinctual desires is a(n) A. archetype.

B. dynamic. C. motive. D. object.

13. In Maslow’s theory, lower level needs are also referred to as __________ needs. A. tangible

B. deficit C. subsistence D. aesthetic

14. What factor in Rogers’ therapy is the most crucial element to successful helping? A. empathy

B. sympathy

C. conditions of worth D. conditional regard


15. The contemporary technique of motivational interviewing, which attempts to bring about behavioral change by helping clients resolve ambivalence, is based on the work of which psychologist?

A. Abraham Maslow B. David Barlow C. Albert Bandura D. Carl Rogers

16. Which of the following is LEAST important to the behavioral theorists? A. why

B. who C. what D. where

17. Which of the following is the type of reinforcement experienced by an individual who simply watches someone else get reinforced?

A. vicarious B. positive C. negative D. direct

18. Which neurotransmitter has been linked to obsessive-compulsive disorder? A. dopamine

B. norepinephrine C. serotonin D. GABA

19. Eshe has asthma and is being taught by her therapist how to identify the onset of an attack and what steps to take in order to control her attacks. This form of treatment is known as

A. relaxation therapy. B. self-monitoring therapy. C. biofeedback.


20. For clients with personality disorders, goals of brief psychodynamic therapy include helping them A. engage in more positive relationships with others.

B. form more positive self-images. C. gain insight into their defenses. D. All of these.

21. The fact that many personality disorders share similar features A. makes it easy to diagnose many of them.

B. indicates that the diagnosis is reliable.

C. makes it difficult to diagnose them accurately.


22. The diagnosis of antisocial behavior used today had its origins in the work of A. William Tuke.

B. Phillipe Pinel. C. Hervey Cleckly. D. Sigmund Freud.

23. Tahlia never had any previous problems with the law but at the age of 27, she started engaging in reckless and violent armed-robberies. Tahlia would most likely be diagnosed as

A. having antisocial personality disorder. B. engaging in adult antisocial behavior. C. having conduct disorder.

D. having borderline personality disorder.

24. Twin and adoption studies have led researchers to conclude that at least ____ of antisocial personality disorder can be accounted for by genetic factors.

A. 24% B. 56% C. 75% D. 90%

25. An inability to distinguish between one’s own identity and the identities of others is characteristic of which personality disorder?

A. schizoid B. self-defeating C. borderline D. narcissistic

26. The term borderline, in the past, was used to describe patients who were functioning on the “border” of __________ and __________.

A. neurosis; depression B. narcissism; neurosis C. neurosis; psychosis D. depression; mania

27. Which personality disorder is characterized by an individual’s inability to distinguish between his or her own feelings and the feelings of others?

A. borderline B. schizotypal

C. obsessive-compulsive D. antisocial


28. Gillian has been diagnosed as having borderline personality disorder. When her therapist arrived late for an appointment, she flew into a rage at the office, claiming that he must hate her and that she wants to stop seeing him. What might be the best strategy to deal with this situation?

A. Because people with borderline personality disorder need discipline, the therapist should yell back at her and tell her how wrong she is to think this way.

B. The therapist should let her leave because she is attempting to manipulate him.

C. The therapist should ignore Gillian’s outburst and the things she is saying until she calms down. D. The therapist should explain to her in a gentle but firm manner that his tardiness is not due to anything about her.

29. Psychoanalytic theorists might view histrionic personality disorder as the result of A. negative reinforcement.

B. psychosexual development.

C. the application of conditions of worth. D. faulty thinking.

30. Even though individuals with narcissistic personality disorder generally view themselves as special and important, they are often troubled by

A. delusions. B. self-doubt. C. obsessions. D. compulsive rituals.

31. Which of the following facets of an individual’s history would a psychodynamically-oriented therapist consider most important if the individual was diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder?

A. the numerous occasions in the individual’s childhood when he or she was rewarded for being show-offish

B. the persistence of delusional and obsessive thoughts in adolescence

C. the early failure of the individual’s parents to provide recognition and positive responses to the child’s accomplishments

D. instances in the past where the individual’s superego was undermined by the id

32. The view that narcissists hold maladaptive ideas about themselves is central to the __________ perspective.

A. psychoanalytic B. biological

C. cognitive-behavioral D. sociocultural


33. Since individuals with schizoid personality disorder tend to lack the normal range of emotional responsiveness, therapies designed to improve __________ have demonstrated some success. A. communication skills

B. cognitive skills C. motivation D. self-image

34. Rosalinda is a very shy 30-year-old woman who usually stays home and does not interact with other people. Rosalinda may be suffering from __________ personality disorder.

A. avoidant B. antisocial C. dependent

D. passive-aggressive

35. Reggie might be considered a “momma’s boy” because, even though he is 28 years old, he lets his mother make all of the decisions in his life such as where he works, who he sees, what he wears, and where he goes. Reggie does not seem to mind; as a matter of fact he often says, “Momma knows best.” Reggie would most likely be diagnosed as having __________ personality disorder. A. avoidant

B. antisocial C. dependent

D. passive-aggressive

36. According to psychodynamic theory, individuals with dependent personality disorder were fixated at the __________ stage of development.

A. oral B. anal C. phallic D. genital

37. Felix has been a worrier all of his life. When he was a child, he believed and followed the expression “step on a crack, break your mother’s back.” He is now a perfectionist and runs his daily routine based on an inflexible schedule. His environment is arranged very predictably; for example, all of his shirts must be neatly pressed and hung exactly four inches apart in his closet. Felix would be

diagnosed as having __________ personality disorder. A. passive-aggressive

B. obsessive-compulsive C. borderline


38. One of the difficulties in treating individuals with personality disorders is that

A. many of them have such incoherent thinking patterns that it is difficult to decipher what they are saying.

B. their symptoms have endured over many years and may be extremely resistant to change. C. clinicians tend to focus on limited goals rather than focusing on global changes.

D. they are often aloof and uncaring.

39. The emotional disturbances seen in people with borderline personality disorder are characterized by

A. emotional dysregulation. B. antisocial behavior. C. goal-directed behavior.

D. avoidance of interpersonal relationships.

40. What percentage of Americans will fit the criteria for borderline personality disorder at some point in their lives?

A. less than 1% B. 1-2% C. 3-5% D. > 5%

41. The typical course of panic disorder is that it creates A. continuous problems over many years.

B. only periodic problems.

C. initial problems and then goes into remission for years at a time. D. None of these.

42. Wendy encounters test anxiety in Professor Carey’s and Professor Burke’s classes, but not in Professor Hart’s class? Which of the following best characterizes Wendy’s panic attacks? A. uncued

B. situation-bound C. cued

D. situationally predisposed

43. Makala has been taking Xanax to treat his panic disorder for about one month. He is very

despondent because he has not noticed any change and he is now asking his psychiatrist to put him on some other medication. What might the problem be?

A. Xanax is ineffective in treating individuals who suffer from panic disorder. B. Makala’s panic disorder is caused by psychological factors - not biological ones.

C. In order for medications like Xanax to be effective, they must be taken over a six-month period. D. Makala’s psychiatrist has mis-prescribed Xanax - Makala should be taking an antidepressant.


44. An irrational and unabating fear of a particular object, activity, or situation is defined as A. agoraphobia.

B. a social phobia. C. an aversion. D. a specific phobia.

45. Danilo, a native of Mexico who is still living in Mexico, has an intense fear of snow. How might a clinician diagnose his condition?

A. Danilo would be diagnosed as having a specific phobia.

B. He would be diagnosed as having the rare phobia known as chionophobia.

C. Since it is unlikely that his condition is clinically significant, there would be no diagnosis. D. Danilo would be diagnosed as having the rare phobia known as dysomophophobia.

46. Since the symptoms of most phobias are easy to identify, most can be treated successfully with A. psychodynamic therapies.

B. biological therapies. C. behavioral therapies. D. hypnosis.

47. The Latin expression in vivo means A. in the imagination.

B. in the ideas. C. in the mind. D. in life.

48. Although people with social phobia may not leave their homes, their fear is much more __________ than the fear of experienced by individuals with agoraphobia.

A. general B. specific C. intense D. debilitating

49. Actor-singer Donny Osmond, who has had a long career in show business, began experiencing the symptoms of social anxiety disorder

A. as a child performing with his brothers.

B. in the 1970s when he appeared on the Donny & Marie Show. C. during the 1980s when his career lulled.

D. during the 1990s when his performing career was reenergized.

50. Which of the following diagnoses is used to describe constant anxiety that is not associated with a particular object or event?

A. social phobia

B. obsessive-compulsive disorder C. generalized anxiety disorder D. panic disorder


51. Persistent ideas, images, or thoughts that invade consciousness despite efforts to get rid of these intrusions are referred to as

A. delusions. B. compulsions. C. hallucinations. D. obsessions.

52. The anxiety disorder characterized by the experience of intrusive thoughts that the individual can alleviate only by engaging in patterns of rigid, ritualistic behaviors is referred to as

A. obsessive personality disorder. B. obsessive-compulsive disorder. C. simple phobia.

D. social phobia.

53. A __________ is a surgical technique which is sometimes performed on individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder.

A. cingulotomy B. lobotomy C. amygdalotomy D. gangliotomy

54. Carlos used to enjoy bowling, but since he returned from active duty, the sound of the ball hitting the pins and the sound of the pins falling, is bringing back vivid memories of combat. Carlos is experiencing

A. flashbacks. B. delusions. C. obsessions. D. compulsions.

55. Research shows that agoraphobia is expressed differently in different cultures around the world. This fact suggests that:

A. biological factors are not involved in this disorder.

B. biological factors are not the exclusive cause of this disorder. C. biological factors are the only cause of this disorder.

D. cultural factors increase the symptoms of this disorder. 56. Which of the following is an example of catastrophic thinking?

A. I need to keep myself in a safe place in case I have a panic attack.

B. I want to avoid going to the store because I might have a panic attack there and that would be embarrassing.

C. I am feeling dizzy so I must be about to have a seizure with convulsions. D. If I breathe too rapidly, I am likely to hyperventilate.


57. The DSM-V Task Force is considering a new diagnosis for children who are repeatedly traumatized. It would be referred to as

A. dissociative identity disorder. B. reactive attachment disorder. C. developmental disillusionment. D. developmental trauma disorder.

58. Before being named post-traumatic stress disorder, the symptoms of PTSD were referred to as A. shell shock.

B. traumatic neurosis. C. combat fatigue. D. All of these.

59. A person who is constantly thinking about germs has a(n) __________ about cleanliness; a person who constantly washes his or her hands is expressing a(n) __________.

A. obsession; obsessive behavior B. compulsion; obsessive behavior C. obsession; compulsion

D. compulsion; obsession

60. Which form of psychotherapy has proven to be the most effective in the treatment of OCD? A. humanistic therapy

B. psychoanalytic therapy C. cognitive-behavioral therapy D. person-centered therapy


review4105 Key 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. D 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. B 31. C 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. A 40. B 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. C 47. D 48. B 49. D 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. A 54. A 55. B 56. C 57. D 58. D 59. C 60. C





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