GATE Solved Question Papers for Architecture Engineering [AR] by AglaSem.Com

SOLVED PAPERS

GATE

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING (AR)

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CONTENTS

• Introduction

•

Question Paper Pattern

•

Design of Questions

•

Marking Scheme

•

Syllabus

• Previous Year Solved Papers

o

Solved Question Paper 2014

o

Answer Key 2014

o

Solved Question Paper 2013

o

Answer Key 2013

o

Solved Question Paper 2012

o

Answer Key 2012

Introduction

The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination

conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology

(IITs).

A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE

papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam

pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.

While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a

simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to

test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if

he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you

could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and

accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas

where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.

Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the

basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.

To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.

Question Paper Pattern

In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10

questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).

In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and

XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General

Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the

total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.

In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude

section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is

devoted to the subject of the paper.

GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:

(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and

sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four

answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).

(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For

these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the

virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.

Design of Questions

The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:

(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the

paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her

memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.

(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the

basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental

ideas.

(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her

knowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.

(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,

diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis

question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.

Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated

assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.

Marking Scheme

For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.

Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong

answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions

carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total

10 marks).

Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL

These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and

30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of

questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,

choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real

number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An

appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type

questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.

GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper

Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:

Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section

1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part

A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.

Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks

and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B

(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each

(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).

XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)

In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section

contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each

(sub-total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-(sub-total 8 marks). Some questions

may be of numerical answer type questions.

Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions

carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13

questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of

numerical answer type.

XL Paper (Life Sciences)

In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15

questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)

and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of

numerical answer type.

Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions

carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10

questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of

numerical answer type.

Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers

For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative

marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong

answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a

wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical

answer type questions.

Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)

Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,

instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.

Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning

and data interpretation.

Syllabus for Architecture and Planning (AR)

City planning: Evolution of cities; principles of city planning; types of cities & new

towns; planning regulations and building byelaws; eco-city concept; sustainable

development.

Housing: Concept of housing; neighbourhood concept; site planning principles;

housing typology; housing standards; housing infrastructure; housing policies, finance

and management; housing programs in India; self help housing.

Landscape Design: Principles of landscape design and site planning; history of

landscape styles; landscape elements and materials; plant characteristics & planting

design; environmental considerations in landscape planning.

Computer Aided Design:Application of computers in architecture and planning;

understanding elements of hardware and software; computer graphics; programming

languages – C and Visual Basic and usage of packages such as AutoCAD, 3D-Studio, 3D

Max.

Environmental Studies in Building Science: Components of Ecosystem; ecological

principles concerning environment; climate responsive design; energy efficient

building design; thermal comfort; solar architecture; principles of lighting and styles for

illumination; basic principles of architectural acoustics; environment pollution, their

control & abatement.

Visual and Urban Design: Principles of visual composition; proportion, scale, rhythm,

symmetry, harmony, datum, balance, form, colour, texture; sense of place and space,

division of space; barrier free design; focal point, vista, image ability, visual survey,

figure-background relationship.

History of Architecture:Indian – Indus valley, Vedic, Buddhist, Indo-Aryan, Dravidian

and Mughal periods; European – Egyptian, Greek, Roman, medieval and renaissance

periods- construction and architectural styles; vernacular and traditional architecture.

Development of Contemporary Architecture: Architectural developments and

impacts on society since industrial revolution; influence of modern art on architecture;

works of national and international architects; art novuea, eclecticism, international

styles, post modernism, deconstruction in architecture.

Building Services: Water supply, sewerage and drainage systems; sanitary fittings and

fixtures; plumbing systems, principles of internal & external drainage systems,

principles of electrification of buildings, intelligent buildings; elevators & escalators,

their standards and uses; air-conditioning systems; fire fighting systems, building safety

and security systems.

Building Construction and Management: Building construction techniques, methods

and details; building systems and prefabrication of building elements; principles of

modular coordination; estimation, specification, valuation, professional practice;

project management techniques e.g., PERT, CPM etc;

Materials and Structural Systems: Behavioural characteristics of all types of building

materials e.g. mud, timber, bamboo, brick, concrete, steel, glass, FRP, different

polymers, composites; principles of strength of materials; design of structural elements

in wood, steel and RCC; elastic and limit state design; complex structural systems;

principles of pre-stressing; tall buildings; principles of disaster resistant structures.

Planning Theory: Regional planning; settlement system planning; history of human

settlements; growth of cities & metropolises; principles of Ekistics; rural-urban

migration; urban conservation; urban renewal; Five-year plan; structural and sectoral

plan.

Techniques of Planning: Planning survey techniques; preparation of urban and

regional structure plans, development plans, action plans; site planning principles and

design; statistical methods of data analysis; application of G.I.S and remote sensing

techniques in urban and regional planning; decision making models.

Traffic and Transportation Planning: Principles of traffic engineering and

transportation planning; traffic survey methods; design of roads, intersections, grade

separators and parking areas; hierarchy of roads and levels of services; traffic and

transport management in urban areas, intelligent transportation system; mass

transportation planning; para-transits and other modes of transportation, pedestrian &

slow moving traffic planning.

Infrastructure, Services and Amenities: Principles of water supply and sanitation

systems; water treatment; solid waste disposal systems; waste treatment, recycle &

reuse; urban rainwater harvesting; power supply and communication systems —

network, design & guidelines; demography related standards at various levels of the

settlements for health, education, recreation, religious & public-semi public facilities.

Development Administration and Management: Planning laws; development

control and zoning regulations; laws relating to land acquisition; development

enforcements, urban land ceiling; land management techniques; planning and

municipal administration; disaster mitigation management; 73

rd

_{& 74}

th

_{Constitutional}

amendments; valuation & taxation; revenue resources and fiscal management; public

participation and role of NGO & CBO; Institutional networking & capacity building.

GATE

Previous Year Solved Papers

Architecture & Planning - AR

2012 - 14

Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.

2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.

3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.

The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.

The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.

4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the

Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.

6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.

7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.

8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer

type.

9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed before the choice.

10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse.

11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of

⅓

marks for a 1-mark question and

⅔

marks for a 2-mark question. 12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.

GATE 2014 Solved Paper

Architecture & Planning - AR

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following

sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength

Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his

unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences? (A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.

(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes. (C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him. (D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together. Q.4 If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1

(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of −1

Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q, where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily production of 100 tonnes?

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK

(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK

Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the following floor-person combinations is correct?

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal

(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4 (B) 2 6 5 1 3 4 (C) 4 2 6 3 1 5 (D) 2 4 6 1 3 5

General Aptitude - GA

GATE 2014

Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?

(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25

Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure. Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below that value)

(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December

(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January (iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall (iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

General Aptitude - GA

GATE 2014

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Toothing is a construction technique used in

(A) Wood construction (B) Steel construction

(C) Reinforced cement concrete construction (D) Brick masonry

Q.2 ‘Skeleton and Skin’ concept in building design and construction evolved during the

(A) Roman period (B) Renaissance period

(C) Gothic period (D) Greek period

Q.3 As per the IRC standards, the minimum width (in m) of a two lane urban carriageway without a raised kerb is

(A) 6.0 (B) 6.5 (C) 7.0 (D) 8.0

Q.4 Pritzker Architecture Prize 2013 has been awarded to

(A) Mario Botta (B) Toyo Ito (C) Rem Koolhaas (D) Arata Isozaki

Q.5 Hip roof is formed by surfaces sloping in

(A) One direction (B) Two directions (C) Three directions (D) Four directions

Q.6 Hiroshima Peace Memorial Museum in Japan has been designed by

(A) Kenzo Tange (B) Kisho Kurokawa (C) Tadao Ando (D) I M Pei

Q.7 In AutoCAD, the maximum number of points which can be snapped in a circle using OSNAP

command is

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.8 Development authorities in India are established under the provision of

(A) Municipal Act (B) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act

(C) Town and Country Planning Act (D) Land Acquisition Act

Q.9 In escalators, the angle of inclination with the horizontal plane should be in the range of

(A) 10°-20° (B) 20°-30° (C) 30°-35° (D) 35°-45°

Q.10 As per the Census of India 2011, ‘ Metropolitan Urban Agglomeration’ is a contiguous spread of several urban settlements where the minimum population size (in Lakh) is

(A) One (B) Five (C) Ten (D) Fifty

Q.11 BEES is an acronym for

(A) Building for Environmental and Economic Sustainability (B) Built Environment and Ecological Society

(C) Building for Energy and Environment Sustainability (D) Built Environment and Engineering Services

Q.12 In a single-stack system of plumbing

(A) All the appliances and traps are fully ventilated

(B) Only WC branches are connected with anti-siphonage pipes (C) Anti-siphonage pipes are omitted

(D) Only the stack is vented above the branch connection at each floor level

Q.13 The maximum bending moment (kNm) in a simply supported beam of 8 m span subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m (inclusive of its self-weight) over the entire span is

(A) 40 (B) 160 (C) 240 (D) 380

Q.14 Criteria for background noise (in NC) in hospitals and apartments is

(A) 10 - 20 (B) 20 - 30 (C) 30 - 40 (D) 40 - 50

Q.15 As per the National Building Code, the minimum width (in m) of a staircase flight in an educational building above 24 m height should be

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5

Q.16 Among the following, the one that is NOT a land assembly technique is

(A) Land Use Zoning (B) Accommodation Reservation

(C) Town Planning Scheme (D) Transfer of Development Right

Q.17 The Grand Gallery in Egyptian Architecture is provided only at

(A) Great Pyramid (B) Temple (C) Mastaba (D) Bent Pyramid

Q.18 In the Taipei 101 building, the steel sphere as TMD (Tuned Mass Damper) is suspended to reduce horizontal sway due to

(A) Settlement & Wind Load (B) Wind & Geothermal Load

(C) Seismic & Geothermal Load (D) Seismic & Wind Load Q.19 ‘Finger Plan’ concept of urban planning was initially adopted in

(A) Canberra (B) Paris

(C) Copenhagen (D) Tokyo

Q.20 The most important property of concrete in its fresh state is

(A) Compressive strength (B) Tensile strength

(C) Elastic modulus (D) Workability

Q.21 An element constructed at intervals along the length of a wall to stabilize it against overturning is

(A) Barrel Vault (B) Pilaster (C) Squinch Arch (D) Buttress

Q.22 Landscape design of Shakti Sthal, the ‘Samadhi’ of late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi, was done by architect

(A) Ram Sharma (B) Mohammad Shaheer

(C) Ravindra Bhan (D) Raj Rewal

Q.23 Horizontally Wedge-shaped Treads in stairways are termed as

(A) Stringers (B) Winders (C) Scotia (D) Newel

Q.24 The sequence of development in a Site-and-Services scheme is

(A) Land – Service – House – Occupant (B) Occupant – Land – House – Service

(C) Occupant – Land – Service – House (D) Land – Occupant – House – Service

Q.25 Which of the following is NOT a classical spatial theory of land use planning?

(A) Concentric Zone theory (B) Multiple Nuclei Theory

(C) Centripetal Theory (D) Sector Theory

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 A housing project is proposed to be designed in a plot of 2 hectare. Maximum permissible FAR is 2. The share of the numbers of dwelling units (DU) for MIG, LIG and EWS is 1:2:3 having sizes of 55, 35 and 25 sq.m respectively. The maximum number of DU which can be accommodated in the plot is _______________

Q.27 Arrange the following in ascending order of width P. Collector Street

Q. Arterial Road R. Local Street S. Sub-Arterial Road

(A) P, Q, S, R (B) R, P, S, Q (C) Q, S, R, P (D) Q, S, P, R

Q.28 Out of the following, the maximum points in the LEED (New construction) rating system can be earned through

(A) Sustainable Sites (B) Water Efficiency

(C) Materials and Resources (D) Energy and Atmosphere

Q.29 Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of bond resistance in reinforced concrete?

(A) Chemical adhesion (B) Friction

(C) Mechanical interlock (D) Aggregate interlock

Q.30 A neighborhood has 250 units of 80 sq.m each and 200 units of 100 sq.m each. If the mandatory parking requirement is one per 100 sq.m of built space then, the total area(sq.m) required for parking considering 30 percent additional area for circulation is ________________

Q.31 A brick wall 19 cm thick has a thermal conductivity 0.811 W/m °C. The outside and inside surface conductance of the wall are 16 W/m2 °C and 8 W/m2 °C respectively, then the U-value of the wall in W/m2 °C is ____________

Q.32 Match the contemporary buildings in Group I with their architects in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Vitra Design Museum, Basel 1. Adrian Smith

Q. Turning Torso, Malmö 2. Jean Nouvel

R. Burj Khalifa, Dubai 3. Herzog de Meuron

S. Tate Modern, London 4. Santiago Calatrava

5. Frank O Gehry

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.33 From the following cost components of a building construction project which is not a direct cost combination? P. Labour cost Q. Equipment cost R. Material cost S. Establishment cost T. Supervision cost

(A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) P and R (D) S and T

Q.34 A house located in Delhi has 111 m2 of flat terrace area (runoff coefficient = 0.85) and 55 m2 of ground area covered with grass (runoff coefficient = 0.15). If annual average rainfall is 611.8 mm, then rain water harvesting potential (L/year) from runoff will be ______________

Q.35 Match the elements in Group I with the structures in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Harmika 1. Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu

Q. Sixteen Vidyadevis 2. Sun Temple, Modhera

R. Lat pillar 3. Stupa of Sanchi

S. Urushringa 4. Lauriya, Nandangarh

5. Great Kailash Temple, Ellora

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Q.36 At a site, based on percolation test, the allowable rate of treated sewage application was determined as 65 L/m2/day. The effective depth (m) of a soak pit with a diameter of 2.5 m for the disposal of 1020 L/day of septic tank effluent is ______________

Q.37 Match the AutoCAD command in Group I with their functions in Group II

Group I Group II

P. OOPS 1. Creates solid lines

Q. RAY 2. Restores an erased drawing

R. TRACE 3. Manages customized user interface elements

S. CUI 4. Creates semi-infinite line

5. Creates a five sided 3D solid with a sloped face tapering along the X axis

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Q.38 Match the bridges in Group I with their structure type in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Harbour Bridge, Sydney 1. Simply Supported

Q. Golden Gate Bridge, San Francisco 2. Cable Stayed

R. Howrah Bridge, Kolkata 3. Arch

S. Millau Viaduct, Millau 4. Suspension

5. Cantilever

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Q.39 The arithmetic average value of the sound absorption coefficient for a specific material and particular mounting condition for four frequencies is

(A) Transmission coefficient (B) Noise reduction coefficient

(C) Absorption coefficient (D) Reflection coefficient

Q.40 A single span simply supported reinforced concrete beam (250 mm wide and 480 mm effective depth) is subjected to a concentrated load of 120 kN at its mid-span. Neglecting self-weight of the beam, the nominal shear stress (MPa) at the support section is ______________

Q.41 The optimistic time, the pessimistic time and the most likely time of a job are 6, 13 and 8 days respectively. The variance for this job is _______________

Q.42 A refuse collection system consisting of two chutes is to be provided in a 20 storied residential building with 2 flats/floor (average family size = 5) and with each chute serving one flat on each floor. Average quantity of refuse and its density are 880 g/person/day and 240 kg/m3 respectively. If the cleaning interval is two days, then the minimum size of the refuse container (litre) at the bottom of each chute is _______________

Q.43 Match the features in Group I with their architectural periods in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Caryatids 1. Roman

Q. Hypocaust 2. Gothic

R. Pylons 3. Greek

S. Lofty Pinnacles 4. Egyptian

5. Romanesque

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Q.44 Match the following terminologies in Group I with their descriptions in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Pruning 1. Useful in reproducing plants that would not breed true if

propagated by seed

Q. Topiary 2. A live bud from a desired plant inserted into a host plant

R. Grafting 3. Cutting of evergreen shrubs into abstract or geometric shapes

S. Budding 4. Trimming and cutting of lawns

5. Selective cutting of plant branches for better growth

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Q.45 In a dance hall the indoor and outdoor temperatures are 28°C and 18°C respectively. There is an internal heat gain of 5 kW and the specific heat of air (on volume basis) is 1300 J/m3 °C, then the necessary cross sectional area (m2) of a duct with an air velocity of 2 m/s required for cooling by ventilation is ____________

Q.46 Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to

(A) Water - cement ratio (B) Water - sand ratio

(C) Water - coarse aggregate ratio (D) Water - plasticiser ratio

Q.47 Match the terms in Group I with their examples in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Incentive zoning 1. Boardwalk, Atlantic City

Q. Universal design 2. Minneapolis, USA

R. Promenading 3. Broadway Theatre District, New York

S. Skyway system 4. Pruitt Igoe Housing, St. Louis, Missouri

5. Curitiba, Brazil

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

Q.48 If yield stress of steel is 415 MPa, then strain in tensile reinforcement at the limit state of collapse shall be at least _____________. For steel, the Young’s Modulus, E = 2 X 105 MPa.

Q.49 Match the books in Group I with their authors in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Architecture Now! 1. Ian Mc Harg

Q. Intentions in Architecture 2. Robert Venturi

R. Design with Nature 3. Christopher Alexander

S. Complexity & Contradictions in Architecture 4. Philip Jodidio

5. Christian Norberg Schulz

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Q.50 Match the common names of the trees in Group I with their botanical names in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Gulmohar 1. Dalbergia Sissoo

Q. Palash 2. Ficus Benghalensis

R. Indian Mahogany 3. Delonix Regia

S. Banyan 4. Toona Ciliata

5. Butea Monosperma

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

Q.51 A room of internal dimension 4m x 5m x 3.5m (LxBxH) has 20 cm thick walls and two doors of size 1m x 2m. The required area of Damp Proof Course (sq.m) is _____________

Q.52 A load of 30 kN is applied vertically downward at the free end of a cantilever of span 5 m. If the elastic modulus of the cantilever is 30 GPa and the section has a width of 0.3 m and a depth of 0.6 m, then, the elastic deflection (in mm) is ______________

Q.53 Associate the plans in Group I with the options in Group II

Group I Group II

P. City Development Plan 1. PMGSY

Q. Slum Free City Plan 2. JNNURM

R. Transport Network Plan 3. RAY

S. Disaster Management Plan 4. NDMA

5. RSVY

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Q.54 The capacity of a hall is 600 persons and its volume is 3000 cu.m. If an optimum reverberation time of 1.0 second is to be achieved then the required total absorption (m2sabine) is _____________

Q.55 A solid straight steel rod of diameter 100 mm is bent in single curvature into a circular arc by a moment of 50 kNm applied at its ends. If elastic modulus, E, for steel is 2 x 105 MPa, the radius of curvature (mm) of the arc assuming π=3.14 is _____________

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GATE 2014 - Answer Keys

General Aptitude– GA

Q. No.

Key / Range Q. No.

Key / Range Q. No.

Key / Range

1

A

5

1300 to 1300 9

D

2

B

6

D

10

B

3

D

7

B

4

C

8

180 to 180

Architecture & Planning - AR

Q. No.

Key / Range Q. No.

Key / Range Q. No.

Key / Range

1

D

20

D

39

B

2

C

21

D

40

0.5 to 0.5

3

C

22

C

41

1.34 to 1.37

4

B

23

B

42

730 to 740

5

D

24

A

43

D

6

A

25

C

44

D

7

D

26

1200 to 1200 45

0.190 to

0.195

8

C

27

B

46

A

9

C

28

D

47

D

10

C

29

D

48

0.0037 to

0.0039

11

A

30

6240 to 6760 49

B

12

C

31

2.30 to 2.45

50

C

13

B

32

B

51

3.3 to 3.4

14

B

33

D

52

7.65 to 7.75

15

C

34

62700 to

62800

53

A

16

A

35

D

54

475 to 485

17

A

36

1.98 to 2.02

55

19615 to

19635

18

D

37

B

19

C

38

A

__________________________________________________________

Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.Questions are of multiple choice type or numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor. 2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks

questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions,

̃

mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,

̄

mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

GATE 2013

Architecture & Planning - AR

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks : 100

GATE 2013 Solved Paper

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 In case of residential apartments, the effective floor area available for use within an apartment, is known as

(A) Carpet Area (B) Built-up Area

(C) Plinth Area (D) Super Built-up Area

Q.2 Star Rating of an Air Conditioner is determined by its

(A) Power Consumption (B) Energy Efficiency Ratio

(C) Cooling Capacity (D) Power of Compressor

Q.3 V7 concept given by Le Corbusier refers to

(A) Neighbourhood Planning (B) Housing Typologies

(C) Architecture Design Principle (D) Hierarchy of Roads

Q.4 In AUTOCAD, a line of infinite length in the direction defined by starting point and through point, is known as

(A) RAY (B) LINE (C) PLINE (D) XLINE

Q.5 Orbit Tower built at the London Olympic Park has been designed by

(A) Foster & Partners (B) Anish Kapoor & Cecil Balmond

(C) Zaha Hadid & Antony Gormley (D) Richard Rogers & Renzo Piano

Q.6 As per National Building Code 2005, the minimum size of a habitable room in m2 is

(A) 9.5 (B) 10.5 (C) 11.5 (D) 12.5

Q.7 The urban form of Srirangam town in Tamil Nadu refers to

(A) Dandaka (B) Swastika (C) Nandyavarta (D) Sarvotabhadra

Q.8 PMGSY, a programme of Government of India, deals with

(A) Urban Employment Generation (B) Rural Employment Generation

(C) Rural Electrification (D) Rural Road Development

Q.9 Beam or lowest division of the entablature which extends from column to column, is known as

(A) Arabesque (B) Arcade (C) Architrave (D) Arbour

Q.10 The information that is NOT essential to be submitted for sanction of any building plan is

(A) Site Plan (B) Floor Plans (C) Title Deed (D) Land Cost

Q.11 The tendency of an ecosystem to maintain its balance by regulatory mechanisms when disrupted, is known as

(A) Homeostasis (B) Entropy (C) Succession (D) Evolution

Q.12 Gantt Chart DOES NOT provide information about

(A) List of Jobs (B) Duration of Jobs

(C) Interdependency of Jobs (D) Progress of Work

Q.13 If threshold of hearing has a sound level of zero decibels and the sound level in a broadcasting studio is 100 times the threshold of hearing, its value in decibels would be

(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 100

Q.14 The width to height ratio of the front facade of Parthenon (without the pediment) is

(A) 9:4 (B) 4:9 (C) 1:1.618 (D) 1.618:1

Q.15 The face of an Icosahedron is

(A) Equilateral Triangle (B) Isosceles Triangle

(C) Square (D) Pentagon

Q.16 The term ‘Zeitgist’, used in contemporary architecture, refers to

(A) Iconicity (B) Spirit of Times (C) Kinesthetics (D) Semantic Associations

Q.17 Alhambra, a UNESCO world heritage site, is classified as an example of

(A) Moorish Architecture (B) Mudejar Architecture

(C) Mozarabic Architecture (D) Tudor Architecture

Q.18 Wythenshawe and Becontree are examples of

(A) Factory Town (B) Satellite Town

(C) Garden City (D) Vertical Neighborhood

Q.19 National Ceremonial Plaza at Thimpu in Bhutan has been designed by

(A) Christopher Charles Benninger (B) Charles Correa

(C) Karan Grover (D) I. M. Pei

Q.20 Physiochemical process of removing micro-organisms, colour and turbidity from sullage and sewage is known as

(A) Putrefaction (B) Clarification

(C) Liquefaction (D) Infiltration

Q.21 Identify which is NOT a green building rating system

(A) LEED (B) CASBEE (C) ENERGY BUILD (D) BREEAM

Q.22 In 3DS Max, smooth 3D surfaces, by blending a series of selected shape curves, can be created by

(A) Lofting (B) Sweeping (C) Filleting (D) Extruding

Q.23 Travel behavior characteristics of an urban area can be derived from

(A) Parking Survey (B) Demographic Survey

(C) Socio Economic Survey (D) Origin & Destination Survey

Q.24 In GIS, the set of entities representing vector data type is

(A) Point, Line, Polygon, TIN (B) Pixel, Voxel

(C) DEM, DSM, DTM (D) Coordinates, Elevation, Slope

Q.25 A common flowering shrub is

(A) Tectona grandis (B) Mimusops elengi (C) Dalbergia sisso (D) Ixora coccinea

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The correct arrangement of the height of towers given below in descending order is P. Burj Khalifa, Dubai

Q. Petronas Tower, Kuala Lumpur R. Taipei 101, Taiwan

S. Bank of China Tower, Hong Kong

(A) P, Q, R, S (B) P, Q, S, R

(C) P, R, S, Q (D) P, R, Q, S

Q.27 Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding architects in Group II

Group I

P. Khalsa Heritage Complex, Anandpur Sahib Q. Lisbon Ismaili Centre, Lisbon

R. Neuroscience Centre, Cambridge, USA S. National Centre for Performing Arts,

Mumbai Group II 1. Philip Johnson 2. Charles Correa 3. Raj Rewal 4. B. V. Doshi 5. Moshe Safdie (A) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-4 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Q.28 The term ‘Working head’ in context of water supply system means

(A) Height of a body of water falling freely under the force of gravity to acquire a certain velocity (B) Rate of increase of velocity with respect to distance normal to the direction of flow

(C) Total head with deduction for velocity head or losses (D) Difference between supply and delivery water levels

Q.29 In a theoretical traffic flow relationship, as shown in the figure given below, the slope of line OF joining point F on the curve and the origin O represents

(A) Corresponding space mean speed (B) Speed at maximum flow

(C) Travel time at corresponding density (D) Average headway at corresponding flow

Q.30 Match the CAD terms in Group I with their corresponding functions in Group II

Group I P. Tiled viewport Q. UCS R. DXF S. Extrude Group II 1. Boolean operator 2. Solid model 3. Coordinate system

4. Drawing interchange format 5. Model space (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 Traf fic Flow (vehi cles / hr)

Traffic density (vehicles / km)

O

F

Q.31 Match the historic periods in Group I with their corresponding examples of towns in Group II Group I Group II P. Egyptian 1. Miletus Q. Greek 2. Montpazier R. Medieval 3. Kahun S. Renaissance 4. Versailles 5. Timgad (A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2

Q.32 Match the components of an Indian urban land use map in Group I with their corresponding colour codes as per UDPFI guidelines in Group II

Group I P. Public / Semipublic Q. Industry R. Transportation S. Commercial Group II 1. Violet 2. Grey 3. Red 4. Blue 5. Yellow (A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Q.33 Match the books in Group I with their corresponding authors in Group II

Group I

P. Design of Cities

Q. On the Cultural Origin of Settlements R. Urbanization and National Development S. Planning Theory

Group II

1. Amos Rapoport

2. Leo Jacobson and Ved Prakash 3. Edmond Bacon

4. Christopher Alexander 5. Andreas Faludi

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.34 Match the temples in Group I with their corresponding historical periods in Group II

Group I

P. Vaikuntha Perumal Temple, Kancheepuram Q. Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

R. Durga Temple, Aihole

S. Brihadeshwara Temple, Thanjavur

Group II 1. Vijaynagara 2. Chalukya 3. Chola 4. Pandya 5. Pallava (A) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Q.35 Match the theories in Group I with their corresponding propagators in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Choice theory of planning 1. Paul Davidoff and T.A. Reiner

Q. Connurbation 2. Patrick Geddes

R. Classical theory of land use 3. Homer Hoyt

S. Central place theory 4. Richard L. Meier

5. Walter Christaller

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2

Q.36 Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding structural feature in Group II

Group I

P. Yokohama Port Terminal, Yokohama Q. Stanstead Airport, London

R. TWA Terminal, New York S. Montreal Biosphere, Montreal

Group II

1. Geodesic Dome 2. Shell Structure 3. Space Frame

4. Folded Steel Plate Structure 5. Pneumatic Structure

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Q.37 Match the Five Year Plans listed under Group I with their corresponding feature from Group II

Group I

P. First Five Year Plan Q. Fourth Five Year Plan R. Seventh Five Year Plan S. Tenth Five Year Plan

Group II

1. Formation of HUDCO 2. Establishment of TCPO 3. Introduction of JNNURM

4. Announcement of National Housing Policy

5. Passing of Urban Land Ceiling and Regulation Act

(A) P-5,Q-2,R-4,S-3 (B) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3

(C) P-4,Q-1, R-2, S-5 (D) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-5

Q.38 Match the landscape designers listed under Group I with their appropriate contribution from

Group II Group I

P. Lancelot ‘Capability’ Brown Q. Andre Le Notre

R. Joseph Paxton

S. Frederick Law Olmstead

Group II

1. The Well-tempered Garden 2. Kew Garden 3. Versailles Garden 4. Crystal Palace 5. Central Park (A) P-3,Q-1, R-4, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (C) P-3,Q-1, R-2, S-5 (D) P-2,Q-3, R-4, S-5

Q.39 Match the organism type from Group I with the appropriate example from Group II

Group I P. Autotroph Q. Heterotroph R. Chemotroph S. Saprophyte Group II 1. Nitrifying Bacteria 2. Grasshopper 3. Grass 4. Vulture 5. Fungus (A) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-5

Q.40 Match the concepts in Group I with their corresponding authors in Group II

Group I P. Proxemics Theory Q. Serial Vision R. Urban Imageability S. Defensible Space Group II 1. Gordon Cullen 2. Edward T. Hall 3. Oscar Newman 4. Paul Zucker 5. Kevin Lynch (A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Q.41 If the area coverage of one sprinkler is 20 m2, with a maximum and minimum spacing of 4.6 m and 1.8 m respectively, the minimum number of sprinklers required to be arranged in a regular orthogonal grid to cover the area of a 15 m x 20 m room would be _______.

Q.42 If the slope of a hipped roof is 60 degrees and height of the roof is 3 m, span of the room, in m, would be _______.

Q.43 Volume of coarse aggregate in m3 present in 1.0 m3 of 1 : 1.5 : 3 concrete mix made by volume batching is _______.

Q.44 A tank of internal dimension 3 m x 5 m x 4 m (Length x Breadth x Height) has 200 mm thick brick wall on all sides. Volume of brickwork in m3 would be _______.

Q.45 Flux emitted from a 1cd light source in all directions, in lumens, would be _______.

Q.46 50 Hectare of residential sector has 65% buildable area. The FAR of the buildable area is 1.5. Within the residential sector, 60% of dwelling units are of area 100 m2 each and 40% of the dwelling units are of area 80 m2 each.

The gross residential density, in dwelling units per Hectare, would be _______.

Q.47 In the given project network diagram, the total slack for job A in days would be _______.

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

The scale of a contour map is 1:10,000 and the contour interval is 5 m. Distance between two given points on the map is 2 cm and the elevation difference between the two given points is 10 m.

Q.48 The actual distance between the two given points in m would be

(A) 2 (B) 20 (C) 200 (D) 2000

Q.49 The slope between two given points in percentage is

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

A point load of 3kN acts at mid-span of a 4 m long cantilever beam as shown in figure below.

Q.50 Shearing force at free end in kN is

(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 12

Q.51 Bending moment at mid-span in kNm is

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

Cost of a new building is Rs 10,00,000 and its scrap value after 50 years is Rs. 1,00,000. Using straight line method

Q.52 The annual depreciation of the building in Rs. would be

(A) 10,000 (B) 15,000 (C) 18,000 (D) 20,000

Q.53 The book value after 10 years in Rs. would be

(A) 1,80,000 (B) 3,60,000 (C) 6,00,000 (D) 8,20,000

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

A room of size 100 m2 is illuminated by 10 lamps of 40 W having a luminous efficacy of 50 lm/W.

Q.54 Total flux emitted by the lamps in lumens would be

(A) 2,000 (B) 5,000 (C) 10,000 (D) 20,000

Q.55 If utilization factor is 0.5, at a working height of 90 cm above the floor level, the illumination in lux would be

(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 1000

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is:

(A) 91 (B) 93 (C) 89 (D) 96

Q.57

The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class.

I II III IV

Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect?

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.58

Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:

Primeval

(A) Modern (B) Historic

(C)

Primitive

(D) Antique

Q.59

Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations.

(A) cordial (B) intimate (C) secret (D) pleasant

Q.60

Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:

Medicine: Health

(A) Science: Experiment (B) Wealth: Peace

(C) Education: Knowledge (D) Money: Happiness

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 X and Y are two positive real numbers such that and . For which of the

following values of , the function , will give maximum value?

(A) (4/3, 10/3) (B) (8/3, 20/3) (C) (8/3, 10/3) (D) (4/3, 20/3)

Q.62 If | | then the values of | | | | is:

(A) 2, 1/3 (B) 1/2, 3 (C) 3/2, 9 (D) 2/3, 9

Q.63 Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010 and 2011.

Category 2010 2011 Raw material 5200 6240

Power & fuel 7000 9450

Salary & wages 9000 12600

Plant & machinery 20000 25000

Advertising 15000 19500

Research & Development 22000 26400

In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage? (A) Raw material and Salary & wages

(B) Salary & wages and Advertising (C) Power & fuel and Advertising

(D) Raw material and Research & Development

Q.64 A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price should be increased to maintained the same profit level.

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 30

Q.65

Abhishek is elder to Savar.

Savar is younger to Anshul.

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above

statements?

(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul

(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek

(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age

(D) No conclusion follows

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GATE 2013 - Answer Keys

Architecture & Planning - AR

Q. No

Key/Range

Q. No

Key/Range

Q. No

Key/Range

1

A

23

D

45

12 to 13

2

B

24

A

46

105 to 107

3

D

25

D

47

1

4

A

26

D

48

C

5

B

27

B

49

A

6

A

28

D

50

A

7

D

29

A

51

A

8

D

30

C

52

C

9

C

31

A

53

D

10

D

32

D

54

D

11

A

33

B

55

A

12

C

34

D

56

D

13

C

35

Marks to All

57

B

14

A

36

A

58

C

15

A

37

B

59

B

16

B

38

D

60

C

17

A

39

D

61

A

18

B

40

A

62

B

19

A

41

20

63

D

20

Marks to All

42

3.4 to 3.6

64

A

21

C

43

0.5 to 0.6

65

D

22

A

44

13 to 14

__________________________________________________________

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.

2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the examination.

3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button next to the selected option.

4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30. For all 1 mark questions,

̃

mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,

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mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.

9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination.

________________________________________________________________________________________

DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet. Registration Number

AR

Name Signature

Verified that the above entries are correct.

Invigilator’s signature:

GATE 2012 Solved Paper

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

‘Agora’ was provided in Greek towns as a place of

(A) Worship (B) Drama

Q.1

(C) Sports (D) Meeting

The hue at the centre of the Munsell Colour Solid is Q.2

(A) Black (B) Grey (C) Sepia (D) White

Which one of the following is NOT a traffic calming measure?

(A) Rumble strips (B) Roundabouts

Q.3

(C) Pedestrian crossings (D) Roadside trees

ECBC stands for

(A) Electrical Conduit in Building Construction (B) Energy Conservation Building Code (C) Electrical Credit in Building Code Q.4

(D) Energy Credit in Building Construction Age-Sex cohort for a state in India is obtained from

(A) Census of India (B) Election Commission of India

Q.5

(C) Indian Statistical Institute (D) Survey of India

‘Cover block’ is used as a building construction component in Q.6

(A) Brick wall (B) Curtain wall (C) Steel truss (D) RC beam

‘Villa Savoye’, Paris is an example of

(A) Modernism (B) Post Modernism

Q.7

(C) Deconstructivism (D) Eclecticism

The least important measure for reducing cost of site development is (A) Clustering the units

(B) Eliminating landscaping costs (C) Reducing road lengths Q.8

(D) Narrowing road widths without reducing the right of way The role of a plasticizer in concrete is to improve

(A) Compressive strength (B) Permeability

Q.9

(C) Workability (D) Tensile strength

Which one of the following causes seismic irregularity in a building?

(A) Rectangular plan shape (B) Vertical setback

Q.10

(C) Increase in height (D) Seismic joint

The respective lengths of shadows generated for a free standing wall of given height L by sunlight incident at angles of 30°, 45°, 60°, 90° to the horizontal are

(A) L √3, L, L/√3, 0 (B) L, L √3, L/√3, 0 (C) L/√3, L, L √3, 0 Q.11

(D) 0, L/√3, L, L √3

Which one of the following mode is NOT categorized as a public transit? Q.12

(A) Bus (B) Ferry (C) Taxi (D) Tram

Aerial photography is a useful tool to obtain

(A) Land contour data (B) Land cover data

Q.13

(C) Land ownership data (D) Landuse data

Which one of the following is biodegradable?

(A) Detergent (B) Leather

Q.14

(C) Recycled plastic (D) Aluminum foil

The volume of surface runoff is least influenced by

(A) existing storm water drainage system (B) amount of rainfall Q.15

(C) site slope (D) size of watershed

The best location for laying the main sewer line on a flat land is

(A) under the road (B) under the sidewalk

Q.16

(C) under the central verge (D) under the open space along sidewalk

Ponding is associated with

(A) RC column (B) Steel column

Q.17

(C) RC slab (D) Steel truss

Among the following, the urban open space known for its human scale is

(A) Piazza del Campo, Sienna (B) Piazza del Popolo, Rome

Q.18

(C) St. Peter’s Square, Rome (D) Place de la Concorde, Paris

The most appropriate tree for designing a smell sensory pathway is

(A) Delonix Regia (B) Casia Fistula

Q.19

(C) Bougainvillea (D) Jasminum Augustifolium

Load from a slab to beam is primarily transferred through Q.20

(A) axial force (B) bending moment (C) shearing force (D) torsion Geographic Information System (GIS) combines maps with

(A) computer automation, statistics and topology (B) computer graphics, databases and analytical tools (C) computer graphics, informatics and quantitative tools Q.21

(D) computer informatics, databases and qualitative tools ‘ Glazing stop’ is used

(A) as a bearing support for glass

(B) to seal the glass against water and air infiltration (C) to provide lateral support to glass

Q.22

(D) to provide a cushion between the glass and the glazing pocket

Which one of the following is NOT a basic principle of designing people-friendly urban built environment?

Q.23

(A) Diversity (B) Monotony (C) Adaptability (D) Legibility

SWOT analysis is used for examining a situation’s inherent (A) Strength, Wastefulness, Opportunity and Tactfulness (B) Sanction, Weakness, Ownership and Threat

(C) Strength, Weakness, Opportunity and Threat Q.24

(D) Support, Wastefulness, Ownership and Transparency The deflection of a two way slab is primarily a function (A) of the long span

(B) of the short span

(C) mostly of the long span, sometimes short span Q.25

(D) independent of the long or short span

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

A painting in a living room needs to be lighted at 250 lux. If the light is incident normally on the painting from a distance of 6 m, then the intensity of light source required (in candela) is

Q.26

(A) 1500 (B) 3000 (C) 6000 (D) 9000

Total land area for a plotted housing development project is 50.0 hectare, of which, area under community facilities, common open spaces and roads are 9%, 10 %, and 16 % respectively. Total number of saleable plots of 250 m2 each will be

Q.27

(A) 1100 (B) 1300 (C) 1500 (D) 1700

A 6m long beam is fixed at its left end and is free at its right end. If a concentrated load of 25kN acts downwards at 4m from the left end, then the bending moment (in kNm) at the left end is Q.28

(A) 0.0 (B) 25.0 (C) 50.0 (D) 100.0

A classroom of 12m x 25m x 4m requires 3 air changes per hour. At an air velocity of 2 m/s, the necessary duct cross section (in m2) is

Q.29

(A) 0.50 (B) 0.75 (C) 1.00 (D) 1.25

If the original cost of a building is Rs. 25,00,000/- and its scrap value after 55 years is Rs.25,000/-, then its annual depreciation (in Rs.) using straight line method is

Q.30

(A) 25,000 (B) 35,000 (C) 45,000 (D) 55,000

For a pin jointed steel truss system, which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Bending moment resisting capacity at any section is zero as members carry axial forces only. (B) Forces in members at any section align in appropriate combination of tension and compression to develop moment resisting capacity.

(C) Forces in members at any section align in such a manner as to develop zero moment resisting capacity.

Q.31

(D) Shear resisting capacity at any section is zero as members carry axial forces only Match the books in Group I with their authors in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Space, Time and Architecture 1. Jane Jacob

Q. Form, Space and Order 2. Kevin Lynch

R. The Death and Life of Great American Cities 3. Ian McHarg

S. The Image of the City 4. Francis D K Ching

5. Gideon S

(A) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.32

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5