English
at the UN
Level 8 - Full-length practice LPE exam + answer sheet instructions; cassette for listening comprehension section available in Resource Center, Villa Le Bocage
UNITED NATIONS
PERS/TES/2001/11GE.01-00531 (E)
INTRODUCTION
In response to requests from students in the last level of the English Language Programme and other candidates for the English Language Proficiency Examination, the Training Service has released this complete examination. We hope that candidates for the examination will use it for the following purposes:
to familiarize themselves with the format of the examination;
to practice working within the time limits set for each section of the exam so that they are comfortable with the pace they should maintain to finish all sections;
to practice filling in the answer sheet properly so that when they take the actual examination they will feel at ease with using it;
to become aware of the approximate difficulty level of the proficiency examination. In order to benefit most from the practice test, candidates should take the practice examination under conditions as similar to those they will meet in the actual examination as possible. Working under the time constraints imposed is particularly important.
To a limited degree, the practice examination can be used as an indicator at the sub-test level of areas of strength and weakness for a candidate. If a candidate looks at his/her score in one sub-test (for example, the Listening Comprehension section) and finds that he/she has scored 12 out of a possible 25 points, the candidate should see that this area needs more study. The candidate may then decide to focus study efforts on this area.
NUMBER ______________
UNITED NATIONS TRAINING SERVICE
PRACTICE LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY EXAMINATION
ENGLISH
Total time: 3 hours, 20 minutes Part One
I. Writing to a set theme (20 points) 50 minutes
PRACTICE EXAMINATION I. Writing to a set theme (Time: 50 minutes) (20 points)
Write 200-250 words on ONE of the following subjects.
Your theme MUST be written on the lined paper attached. Please indicate at the top of the first page the number of the subject you have chosen.
Do not sign or put your name in your composition.
1. A friend of yours who is a native speaker of English has written to you saying that he/she wishes to study your language and asking for your advice. Write a letter in which you: (a) tell your friend something about your language, including some of the differences
between your language and English that have caused you or may cause your friend some difficulty;
(b) advise your friend on where you feel would be the best place to learn your language and how to go about making the necessary arrangements;
(c) share any suggestions you have about learning languages and tell of any
techniques you found useful when learning English or another second language your have learned.
2 One of your colleagues has been away on leave for three months and has written to you asking for news from the office. Write a letter to this colleague in which you tell such things as:
what has been happening since he/she left and how everyone in the office has been;
what you are all working on now and how the work has been going;
what, if any, changes have taken place;
WRITING TO A SET THEME TOPIC NUMBER: _______________
_____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________
WRITING TO A SET THEME
_____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________
NUMBER_______________
UNITED NATIONS TRAINING SERVICE
PRACTICE LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY EXAMINATION
ENGLISH
Total time: 3 hours, 20 minutes Part Two
Suggested time II. Listening comprehension (25 points) 50 minutes III. Reading Comprehension (30 points) 60 minutes
IV. Vocabulary (10 points) 15 minutes
II. LISTENING COMPREHENSION (Time: 50 minutes) (25 points) A. Statements
In this section of the test, you will hear 10 statements. Each will be read twice. After you hear each statement, mark the answer which most closely corresponds to the meaning of the statement you heard.
Example:
You will hear the following sentence:
(We’re used to leaving the city on weekends.)
In your test booklets you will have to choose among four possible answers: (a) We live in the city on weekends.
(b) We don’t leave the city any more. (c) We leave the city on weekends. (d) We lived in the city before.
The only answer which agrees with the first sentence is (c). Mark that answer on your answer sheet.
_____________________________________________________________________________ 1. (a) His secretary is not accurate.
(b) Our secretary is not accurate.
(c) Our secretary is more accurate than his. (d) His secretary is more accurate than ours. 2. (a) He never liked detective novels.
(b) He used to read detective novels. (c) He never reads detective novels. (d) He only reads detective novels.
3. (a) She enjoys making coffee for the director. (b) The director shouldn’t think she’ll make coffee. (c) The director doesn’t have to ask her to make coffee. (d) If the director asks her to, she’ll make coffee.
4. (a) She cancelled the meeting because the report arrived. (b) She cancelled the meeting because the report didn’t arrive. (c) She didn’t cancel the meeting because the report arrived. (d) She didn’t cancel the meeting because the report didn’t arrive. 5. (a) It is difficult to assess the situation accurately.
(b) Your understanding of the situation is probably not as accurate as mine. (c) My reading of the situation is probably incorrect.
(d) Your perception of the situation may be more accurate than mine. 6. (a) She knew the test would be difficult so she didn’t try.
(b) She failed the test because she didn’t study for it. (c) She studied because she knew the test would be hard. (d) She studied but still found it difficult to pass the test. 7. (a) The employer needed a good typist.
(b) She was a very poor typist. (c) She was not hired for the job. (d) She hopes to get a typing job.
8. (a) He told everyone what he had heard. (b) He hadn’t really heard anything. (c) He refused to tell what he’d heard. (d) He acted as if he hadn’t heard anything.
9. (a) Some part-time employees received the benefits. (b) All employees should have received the benefits. (c) Some full-time employees will lose the benefits. (d) Part-time employees no longer have the benefits. 10. (a) The job probably involves a lot of typing.
(b) Either typing or filing will qualify you.
(c) You need to be good at both typing and filing. (d) They are looking for someone who can file well.
B. Dialogues
In this part of the Listening Comprehension test you will hear 5 dialogues. You will hear each dialogue twice. After the second reading, the question will be read once. After you hear the question, mark your answer immediately.
11. The first speaker called _______________ . (a) to get some advice about something. (b) to remind someone of something. (c) to complain about something. (d) to thank someone for something.
12. The woman missed the party because _______________ . (a) she fell asleep.
(b) she went somewhere else. (c) she wasn’t feeling well. (d) she forgot about it.
13. The person making the inquiry is probably _______________ . (a) trying to save some money.
(b) applying for credit.
(c) trying to return something. (d) trying to cheat someone.
14. The person asking for information _______________ . (a) is waiting for a friend to arrive.
(b) is early for the train. (c) has just missed the train. (d) found out her train is late. 15. The men is being _______________ .
(a) hired. (b) fired. (c) transferred. (d) promoted.
C. News items
In this part of the Listening Comprehension test you will hear 5 news items. Each item will be followed by one question. You will hear each news item twice. After the second reading, the question will be read once. After you hear the question, mark your answer immediately.
16. According to the news item, what should Pakistani villagers do to decrease the number of cases of human malaria?
(a) wear protective clothing during the monsoon season. (b) wash the mud coating off water buffaloes.
(c) drain still water holes after heavy rainfalls.
(d) wash themselves after contact with water buffaloes.
17. According to the news item, what is one reason why state-owned businesses in developing countries aren’t providing the people with more jobs?
(a) because of competition from private companies. (b) because of lack of appropriate technology. (c) because of overuse of expensive technology. (d) because of lack of foreign credit from banks.
18. According to the news item, why is the family structure in Switzerland breaking down? (a) because a divorce is easy to get in the Swiss courts.
(b) because the Swiss society has become too affluent.
(c) because of youth revolts against traditional social structure. (d) because of growing conflict between the home and the job.
19. According to the news item, on what has the lack of rain had its biggest effect? (a) shipping
(b) fishing
(c) electrical power (d) drinking water
20. According to the news item, which of the following statements about machine readable passports is correct?
(a) They are still in the experimental stages.
(b) They are beginning to be used in the United States.
(c) They are beginning to be used in the European Economic Community. (d) They will first be put into use in January, 1985.
D. Interview
You will hear the following interview twice. First, you will hear the entire interview without interruption. The second time, the interview will be divided into two parts with questions following each part. Each question will be read twice. After you hear a question, mark your answer immediately.
21. (a) jobs that demand a lot of mental concentration (b) jobs with little control over the work process (c) jobs in which there is little human contact (d) jobs that require a lot of decision making
22. (a) They appear to have only average levels of job stress. (b) The higher their position, the more job stress they have. (c) Their level of job stress decreases as they get older.
(d) They have very high stress levels due to great job demands. 23. (a) Women and men tend to manage stress equally well.
(b) Men seem to manage stress better than women do. (c) Women seem to manage stress better than men do. (d) Responses to stress do not seem to be sex-related.
24. (a) He should discuss his problems with a physician or psychologist. (b) He should try to change his eating, sleeping, or work habits.
(c) He should consult management to seek changes in his job structure. (d) He should see if his fellow workers have the same symptoms. 25. (a) These therapies are dangerous and ineffective.
(b) Not enough is known about how these techniques really work. (c) They may treat the effects of stress rather than the causes. (d) In the end the workers have to eliminate the symptoms.
III. READING COMPREHENSION (Time: 60 minutes) (30 points) A. Paragraphs
Read the following six paragraphs carefully. There is one question for each paragraph. Select the response which most accurately agrees with what you have read. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
Paragraph 1
Growing strong and vast in the booming sixties, adapting and diversifying in the sluggish seventies, multinational enterprises (MNEs) entered the present decade amidst a storm of
controversy acclaimed on one hand as forerunners of a new international division of labour and, on the other, criticized for abusing concentrated economic power. Still, to at least 40 million workers and their families in the industrialized market economy countries they represent a source of livelihood.
26. The purpose of this paragraph is to stress that _______________ .
(a) multinational enterprises experienced their most vigorous growth in the sixties. (b) workers in the developing countries are becoming more and more dependent on
the MNEs.
(c) millions of workers in industrialized nations depend on MNEs for a living. (d) MNEs have been criticized in the 1980s for their abuse of centralized economic
power. Paragraph 2
In 1981, some 7.6 million cases of malaria were reported to WHO, compared with 8.0 million cases in 1980 and 7.0 million in 1979. These figures do not include data from Africa south of the Sahara, where an average of 5.5 million cases have been reported annually in recent years. In addition, the figures are in all probability an underestimate of the true parasite reservoir existing in the affected countries because countries do not report on all malarious areas and have much reduced case detection activities due to the high costs of maintaining a full coverage surveillance system.
27. The purpose of this paragraph is to _______________ .
(a) show that the number of cases of malaria is growing rapidly. (b) show that new ways of treating malaria are needed.
(c) point out that WHO figures on malaria do not include Africa south of the Sahara. (d) point out that malaria may be a more serious problem than the WHO figures
indicate. Paragraph 3
At a time when the world economy is witnessing rapid and important changes, depression and social conflict are frequent analytical catchwords. Reality, of course, is more complicated, and the latest issue of the IDOC Bulletin, prepared in collaboration with the UN
Non-Governmental Liaison Service in Geneva, is intended as a contribution to the present, crucial debate on industrial restructuring. The bulletin interprets current economic trends and proposes alternative forms of action and cooperation.
28. The purpose of this passage is to _______________ .
(a) call attention to the contents of an issue of a publication.
(b) suggest action and cooperation as aids in fighting economic problems. (c) describe the issue of industrial restructuring.
(d) criticize the use of “depression” and “social conflict” as analytical catchwords. Paragraph 4
A new method to chart child growth has been developed by the UK-based
Non-governmental Organization called TALC (Teaching Aids at Low Cost). It consists of a measuring tape - the Echeverri tape - designed so that even illiterate village health workers may be able to keep a growth chart of a child’s arm circumference. It consists of a simple plastic cursor which moves along the tape as it is drawn around the arm. The cursor can then be used to locate a dot which is entered on to a chart to monitor the growth of the child. The great
advantage of this method is that it eliminates dependence on weighing scales and attempts to move the assessment of nutrition out of the clinic and into the community and even into the home. While a weight chart is probably superior to an arm circumference chart, the latter is easier and less expensive to use.
29. According to the passage, one reason the Echeverri tape might be useful is that _______________ .
(a) it is far superior to old-fashioned weight charts. (b) it does not require that health workers be literate. (c) it allows children to be weighed in village clinics. (d) it has been offered free to health clinics by TALC. Paragraph 5
The winged bean, a plant virtually unknown six years ago, has definitely taken off. It is now being grown in more than seventy countries. A thousand researchers in more than sixty countries receive the Winged Bean Flyer, a newsletter established to keep scientists abreast of the rapid developments concerning this seemingly miraculous plant. The highly nutritious crop promises to be the soybean of the tropics, where it alone may do more than any combination of foods to counter malnutrition.
30. What is the main idea of this paragraph?
(a) The winged bean is replacing the soybean as a source of protein.
(b) The great advantage of the winged bean is that it grows miraculously fast. (c) There is currently great interest in the winged bean because it is so nutritious. (d) Six years ago most people had never heard of the winged bean plant.
Paragraph 6 Dear Editor,
I take exception to a statement in your paper that said that “… when tourists push up local prices most local people are unable to afford even the meanest staples”.
Strictly speaking, “tourists” have little direct control of the local prices charged for goods and services. Prices are set by local entrepreneurs for the most part, and they must share the blame for inflating costs out of reach of their fellow citizens. The culprit in this case is simple greed, an apparently ubiquitous human trait whether it’s found in the shopkeeper in Manang or in a “good ole boy” land developer in the North Carolina Blue Ridge Mountains.
31. The purpose of this letter is to _______________ . (a) criticize activities in Manang and North Carolina. (b) defend tourists against a criticism.
(c) point out how prices are determined in tourist areas. (d) point out some negative effects of tourism.
B. Texts
In this section of the reading test, you will read two texts several paragraphs in length. Each text is followed by seven comprehension questions. Mark your answer to each question on your answer sheet.
Text A
To Whom Does the Past Belong?
1. Amateur enthusiasm for seeking archaeological remains poses a direct threat to the archaeological heritage. In fact the archaeological record is a limited reserve: it is not simply a collection of buried objects, but a complex matter of facts, context and inferences.
Archaeological techniques are constantly improving, at such a rate in fact that archaeologists have adopted the practice of purposely leaving unexcavated parts of sites for future excavation with future techniques. Because of the cost of a scientific excavation, most work carried out at present is on sites threatened by development or accidentally exposed.
2. As available archaeological resources are extremely limited, the problem posed by amateurs seeking out new sites and picking material from them is therefore that this activity cannot be properly supervised. The direct result is the risk of precious evidence being lost. The problem is all the more serious as the pursuit of archaeological “treasure” becomes an acceptable part of popular activities such as underwater diving or weekend walking, armed with metal detectors. Tourism only aggravates the difficulty, as do also commercial interests in marketing such equipment as metal detectors.
3. Of possible ways for dealing with this problem, legislation is an obvious starting point. Such legislation must be clear; it must indicate where unsupervised prospecting may take place and where it may not: prospectors, rather as hunters, might reasonably be registered. At present, most European legislation has not yet anticipated the technological developments that make modern prospecting a worthwhile exercise. Publicity campaigns have been launched by
archaeologists against treasure-hunters in certain countries to reinforce legislation, but the results have been counterproductive, leading to an organized resistance to such campaigns.
4. Perhaps a different approach should be tried, bringing together the two opposed groups and establishing means of communication and positive collaboration. This would imply certain responsibilities for the prospectors, but it would also require a more open attitude on the part of professional archaeologists. There are interesting projects for introducing archaeology into schools and for associating amateur groups with supervised excavations. A more substantial
commitment from governments would, however, be necessary in order to establish the necessary infrastructure to guide public interest in the past and ensure that this past also survives for the future.
Now mark the one phrase which best completes the statement in the multiple-choice questions which follow.
BE SURE TO BEGIN WITH NUMBER 32 ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET. 32. The main point the author is making in this article is that _______________ .
(a) government should write a guide for amateur archaeologists. (b) government is responsible for the survival of relics of the past.
(c) amateur prospecting done by treasure-hunters is destructive and must be stopped. (d) government involvement is necessary to reconcile amateur and professional
archaeologists.
33. According to the article, amateur prospectors probably see the archaeological record as _______________ .
(a) a collection of buried objects. (b) an extremely limited resource. (c) a complex of facts and inferences. (d) costly scientific excavations.
34. From the text, we can infer that _______________ .
(a) archaeologists expect more funds to be devoted to excavations in the future. (b) archaeologists expect substantial progress in excavation techniques in the future. (c) more archaeological sites are damaged by tourism than by development or
accidents.
(d) land developers are now the greatest threat to the archaeological record.
35. One major problem that the work of amateur prospectors poses is that ______________ . (a) they often work with unsophisticated equipment.
(b) their metal detectors can ruin valuable items. (c) it is very difficult to control their activities.
36. The author feels that current legislation regarding amateur prospecting ______________ . (a) involves unnecessary government interference.
(b) does not consider modern technological advances. (c) has interfered with the development of tourism. (d) does not carry severe enough penalties.
37. The author sees the results of professional archaeologists’ efforts to draw attention to the activities of the amateur prospectors as _______________ .
(a) positive (b) negative (c) non-existent (d) inconclusive
38. In the last paragraph, the author implies that _______________ .
(a) up to now governments have not done enough about saving their archaeological heritage.
(b) amateur prospecting is irresponsible social behaviour.
(c) the only real hope for saving the archaeological heritage lies with the schools. (d) archaeologists themselves have been responsible for the problem of amateur
prospecting.
Text B
Safety Valve to Unemployment
1. Runaway population growth and massive rural exodus continue to fuel the meteoric increase in the urban population of the Third World, which is expected to spiral unabated to reach over 2,000 million human beings by the turn of the century. This means that one out of every three people in the world will be living in a third world metropolis in the year 2000. 2. These waves of humanity bring with them additional social, economic, environmental and political problems, but finding a job is always an immediate and crucial one. It is not surprising that despite the considerable expansion of industries, services and government-related activities in urban centres of developing countries, these sectors have failed to absorb the
3. And yet, open urban unemployment has increased very little, considering the massive additions to the labour market. The explanation, however, is very simple and highly visible. The urban poor cannot afford to remain idle if they are to survive, so they do odd jobs on city streets and sidewalks as cigarette and newspaper vendors or shoe cleaners, run tiny shops or work as handymen, smiths and repairmen.
4. Referred to as the informal sector by economists and simply as street hawkers by social scientists, there are already 150 million of these people and their numbers are growing fast, with up to five in every ten of the new entrants in the Third World labour market joining their ranks. 5. The urban informal sector contains mainly small-scale units operating on a shoestring budget to produce and distribute goods, rather than a group of small-scale entrepreneurs with substantial capital and managerial inputs.
6. An ILO study explodes a current myth that the informal sector is primarily a source of employment for secondary earners and older persons. On the contrary, the findings reveal that people who head informal sector units are comparatively young; for instance, in Freetown (Sierra Leone) the median age was 35; in Kano (Nigeria), 27 and in Campinas (Brazil), 40. 7. The study also contradicted the view that the sector is but a holding ground, and that participants will sooner or later gain entry into the formal sector. In fact, most of them expect - and even prefer - to continue where they are.
8. A majority of the heads of these units earn incomes comparable to the minimum in the formal sector. Remuneration paid to the wage-earning employees in the informal sector varies considerably but available evidence suggests that most of them receive wages below the legal minimum.
9. The informal sector contributes between a quarter and a third of total income generated in cities. This shows that informal sector enterprises use very little capital and mostly their own, while making a respectable contribution to total urban incomes. Moreover the informal sector relies mainly on local materials, often recuperating and recycling discarded products and
equipment, this imposes no strain on available foreign exchange and does not burden the balance of payments by imports.
Now mark the one phrase which best completes the statement in the multiple-choice questions which follow.
BE SURE TO BEGIN WITH NUMBER 39 ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET 39. The main point of the article is that the informal sector in Third World
metropolises _______________ .
(a) is a financial and social drain on the Third World and should be eliminated. (b) can be replaced through free enterprise and government-created employment. (c) is a temporary position for new city dwellers trying to enter the formal sector. (d) contributes to the economies of the Third World without being much of a burden. 40. According to the author, outright unemployment in Third World
metropolises _______________ .
(a) is higher than the statistics indicate. (b) is lower than one might expect.
(c) is highest in services and government-related activities. (d) cannot be lowered under their present economic systems.
41. “Their” in the expression “joining their ranks” (last line of paragraph 4) refers to _______________ .
(a) people employed in the informal sector. (b) workers entering Third World labour markets. (c) economists supporting informal sector employment. (d) unemployed people in Third World countries. 42. The ILO study cited in the article _______________ .
(a) criticized informal sector employment conditions.
(b) disagreed with previous beliefs regarding informal sector employment. (c) supported informal sector employment as an interim solution to
unemployment problems.
(d) revealed new areas of informal sector employment theretofore unknown. 43. The informal sector is made up primarily of relatively _______________ .
(a) older primary earners. (b) younger primary earners. (c) older secondary earners. (d) younger secondary earners.
44. According to the article, many members of the informal sector _______________ . (a) eventually find work in the formal sector.
(b) feel they are in a temporary situation. (c) choose to remain within the informal sector. (d) eventually enter the ranks of the unemployed.
45. The author’s attitude toward the informal sector in Third World metropolises seems to be _______________ .
(a) positive (b) negative (c) tolerant (d) neutral
IV. VOCABULARY (Suggested time: 15 minutes) (10 points)
A. The following sub - test contains 10 questions. Out of the four choices given, select the one word which is closest in meaning to the word underlined in the given sentence. BE SURE TO BEGIN WITH NUMBER 46 ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET
46. The police arrested people at random.
(a) arbitrarily (c) quickly
(b) brutally (d) discriminately 47. The committee failed to make any headway.
(a) profit (c) agreement
(b) progress (d) cuts
48. The officer commented on the haphazard way the reports were filed. (a) disorderly (c) methodical
(b) efficient (d) dangerous
49. The impact of the decision to dissolve this department will not be known immediately.
(a) influence (c) mistake
(b) purpose (d) blow
50. Our position was undermined by members of the opposite party. (a) investigated (c) splintered
(b) conspired (d) weakened
51. The members felt that the plan was a hoax.
(a) trick (c) success
(b) disgrace (d) compromise
52. The plans for reorganization were acclaimed by the employees.
(a) denounced (c) praised
(b) criticized (d) accepted
53. One thing was sure: the future looked bleak.
(a) promising (c) improved
(b) spoiled (d) discouraging
54. He felt that he had an arduous job to do.
(a) important (c) exciting
55. She utterly misrepresented their position.
(a) completely (c) unjustly
(b) purposely (d) surprisingly
B. The following sub - test contains 10 questions. Out of the four choices given, select the one word or group of words, which best completes each sentence.
BE SURE TO BEGIN WITH NUMBER 56 ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET 56. He had done nothing serious; he was simply a _______________ criminal.
(a) soggy (c) flimsy
(b) wacky (d) petty
57. No further action by the United Nations seems to be _______________ at this time.
(a) excused (c) examined
(b) warranted (d) promoted
58. I was so busy that I only had time to _______________ the report.
(a) skim (c) scrawl
(b) skid (d) scowl
59. They rejected his decision because it was too _______________ .
(a) essential (c) boisterous
(b) controversial (d) convertible
60. The director was very _______________ of what the committee might decide.
(a) tempted (c) wary
(b) conceited (d) drowsy
61. Since it was obvious that we were losing, we could only _______________ to their plans.
(a) urge (c) summon
(b) yield (d) tangle
62. Bring along two: we can always use a _______________ one.
(a) scrap (c) superfluous
(b) stray (d) spare
63. The speaker asked that we _______________ from smoking in the auditorium.
(a) rebuke (c) refrain
64. It is _______________ that you return this form on time; otherwise you will not be considered.
(a) notorious (c) ambiguous
(b) compulsive (d) imperative
65. I went to great _______________ to ensure that my guests were comfortable.
(a) lengths (c) troubles
V. GRAMMAR (Suggested time: 25 minutes) (15 points) In each of the following items select the one word or phrase which correctly and logically completes the sentence.
BE SURE TO BEGIN WITH NUMBER 66 ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET. 66. I can’t afford a bicycle, _______________ a car.
(a) even (c) nor to mention
(b) nor (d) let alone
67. “Whose file are you working on?” “Mr. Gunderson’s, _______________ .”
(a) a former employee of ours (c) one employee formerly (b) one former employee (d) a former employee of us 68. “When is the Director leaving?”
“As soon as the meeting _______________ over.”
(a) has been (c) is
(b) will be (d) was
69. “Would you please check over the report?”
“I don’t think that is necessary. It seems _______________ already.” (a) to have been done (c) to be doing
(b) to have being done (d) having done 70. “What’s wrong?”
“My office is _______________ that I can’t work in it.”
(a) too cold (c) very cold
(b) cold enough (d) so cold
71. If the delegate hadn’t wanted to make a statement, she _______________ a press conference.
(a) wouldn’t have held (c) wouldn’t hold (b) won’t have held (d) won’t hold 72. The speaker was urged _______________ .
(a) that he doesn’t continue (c) not to continue (b) that he wouldn’t continue (d) to not continue
73. “Did Ms. Jones attend the conference?”
“No, she didn’t. She _______________ with the Consul in Paris last week.” (a) must have been working (c) must be working
(b) has been working (d) must work 74. Office supplies should have been ordered _______________ .
(a) before two days (c) a day before yesterday (b) in two days’ time (d) the day before yesterday 75. The director dislikes _______________ work early.
(a) I leave (c) my leaving
(b) it I leave (d) if I’m leaving 76. He left the country just as I was _______________ him.
(a) getting to know (c) knowing (b) going to know (d) getting known 77. I have just bought a small _______________ car.
(a) 2-door’s (c) 2-doors’
(b) 2-door (d) 2-doors
78. Typewriters are ordered singly, but calculators are ordered _______________ . (a) by dozens (c) by the dozen
(b) by dozen (d) by a dozen
79. _______________ as a nurse, she also does housework
(a) since she was hired (c) even though she hired (b) despite that she was hired (d) although hired
80. Would you be _______________ water my plants for me. (a) as kind as to (c) so kind as to (b) so kind to (d) as kind to 81. _______________ his speech, the orchestra began to play.
(a) Having finished (c) When he finishes (b) As he finished (d) Finishing
82. Surely it would be a good idea if all governments _______________ warfare.
(a) banned (c) ban
83. “Why was the commissioner so disappointed?”
“He felt bad because there were _______________ responses to his questionnaire.”
(a) few (c) little
(b) a few (d) a little
84. “What was in that directive?”
“It recommended _______________ another librarian.” (a) that he hire (c) he must hire
(b) he hires (d) he hired
85. Each of the apartments should have _______________ own key.
(a) their’s (c) it’s
(b) its (d) their
86. “How did Elsie know the ending of the film?” “She’d seen it before, _______________?”
(a) isn’t it (c) did she
(b) wouldn’t she (d) hadn’t she 87. “Do you think it is possible to go on a vacation this spring?”
“It depends on _______________ .”
(a) where you want to go (c) where will you want to go (b) where you are wanting to go (d) where do you want to go 88. “What did you think of the professor’s plan?”
“I think it was one of the _______________ I have heard in a long time.” (a) most important proposal (c) important proposal
(b) important proposals (d) most important proposals 89. “When can this parcel be delivered?”
“I’ll _______________ tomorrow morning.”
(a) make someone to deliver it (c) have someone deliver it (b) get someone delivering it (d) let someone to deliver it 90. It was _______________ that we could cross it easily.
(a) so shallow river (c) a such shallow river (b) such shallow river (d) so shallow a river
91. “Why did they dismiss the clerk?”
“His typing wasn’t very good, _______________ .”
(a) and his filing wasn’t, too (c) and neither was his filing (b) and so was his filing (d) and either wasn’t his filing 92. “What’s the matter?”
“I am upset about the demonstrations. Rarely _______________ so much disrespect for authority.”
(a) I have seen (c) I saw
(b) have I seen (d) did I see
93. We thought _______________ he would fail the examination. (a) it possible that (c) whether or not (b) it possibly so (d) was it possible 94. “Why did she leave the reception so early?”
“Because she _________________ get up early the next morning.”
(a) must (c) used to
(b) had to (d) needed
95. “Do you know that Mr. Jackson is resigning?”
“By the end of the year all but two people _______________ .” (a) will be leaving (c) will have left (b) will leave (d) have left
