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1- Agenesis is least in= A. Third molars B. 2nd premolars C. Lateral incisor D. Canines 2- Common location of supernumerary teeth: A. Max posterior B. Man anterior C. Man
anterior D. Max anterior
3- Developmental anomaly of supernumerary teeth occurs in which stage of tooth development : A. Initiation B. Apposition C. Bell stage
4- Apical extension of pulp chamber and blah blah is A. Concresence �B. Taurodonism C. Fusion
5- One of the following is manifested with seizure = Encephalotrigamino haematosis 6- Bilateral parotid enlargement in = Warthin’s tumor
7- Pt complaints of inability to close the right eye after LA injection in rt side, the affected nerve is: A. Ophthalmic B. Facial C. Optic D.
8- Epinephrine (Adrenalin) should NOT be used with tricyclic antidepressants 9- Sialolithiasis is common in = Wharton's duct
10- If an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical sign will be = Trismus
11- DiagnoDent = Detects only Class-I caries 12- DYFOTI = Detects Class-I, II and II caries
13- Correct order to prepare RPD = Prepare guiding planes, Height of contours (Carbon marker), Retentive contours (Block out undercuts), Prepare Rests
14- Theophylline relaxes smooth muscles by inhibition of = Phosphodiesterase 15- Columnar, pallisading, hyperchromatic basal cells = OKC
16- CT lesion that causes pseudoepithelial hyperplasia = Granuloma
17- What lesion is localized, not dysplastic, or inflammatory, or metaplastic or reactive = Idiopathic oseteosclerosis
18- Patient with emphysema, what would you expect to see on Forced expirium 1 second = LOW
19- 16 yr old girl with ectopic canines. What else do you see = Gingival recession 20- Lateral displaced or pedicle flap = To treat gingival recession
21- Wax is usually used for border molding because it can be redone = Thermoplasticity 22- Treatment of xerostomia in patients with Sjogren’s syndrome = Cevimeline HCl
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23- Patient has skeletal class 2, but dentoalveolar is class 3, he has dental compensation. What movement would you do pre operation = Upper LABIAL and lower LINGUAL (ULa-LLi) 24- What drug is available to do the desired effects = Free in plasma
25- What is NOT an effect of opioids = Peripheral inhibition of nerves
26- Most danger to operator on an x-ray room comes from = Scatter from patient’s face 27- During closure of mandible, what is least important = Relaxation of lateral pterygoid 28- Which periodontal disease is NOT related to bacteria = Desquamative gingivitis 29- What will allow complete passage of transillumination = Craze lines
30- Percussion test = PDL inflammation / Symptomatic apical periodontitis 31- Tooth least commonly involved in fracture = Mandibular premolars 32- Conscious sedation. Which reflex = Verbal
33- Mode of action of Montelukast = Inhibition of Leukotrienes (used for asthma and seasonal allergies)
34- Anesthesia of lower lip indicates = Malignancy or fracture of angle of mandible 35- High C-Factor = Class-1 (Occlusal)
36- AVULSED PRIMARY CENTRAL INCISOR = NO NEED TO REPLANT! ! ! 37- Which is the most common location for oral cancer in USA = Tongue
38- Ecchymosis of floor of the mouth after trauma on mandible indicate which site fracture = Fracture of body of mandible
39- The most important factor to reduce sensitivity of root after periodontal treatment is = Plaque control
40- Heavy duty gloves used for = cleaning instruments
41- Anxious patient feels helpless at dental appointment. What do you tell her = Raise hand whenever she feels anxious
42- Which cancer has good prognosis = Cancer of the lip 43- Keratosis is dysplastic if it occurs on = Floor of mouth
44- Common feature of cleidocranial dysplasia = delayed eruption and supernumerary teeth 45- Gingivoplasty can be done in = ANUG
46- An indirect temporary restoration can cause periodontal disease when = margins impinge on soft tissues
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47- Horizontal root fracture in middle third and the crown is slightly mobile = Splint and recall patient
48- Occlusal trauma causes = widening of PDL
49- East-West (Cryer) elevator = Used to remove roots of lower molars 50- Battle’s sign = Fracture/injury to cranial base
51- Infection of which space will clinically present as a swelling = Canine space
52- Facial bow in maxillary retainers is used for = Light tipping of anterior teeth lingually (but some people say that it is solely for retention…debatable)
53- When can the dentist take x ray for 4 years old child caries free clinically = When spaces are closed
54- Clubbing fingers nails in children indicates = Cyanotic heart problem.
55- Pt. has lesion on posterior palate need biopsy. What nerve should get infiltration LA = Greater Palpatine
56- Methotrexate for Rheumatoid arthritis = Thrombocytopenia
57- What epithelium is found at the base of sulcus = Junctional epithelium
58- Most common pattern of osseous defect in chronic periodontitis = Horizontal (Facebook friend went with Crater something if horizontal not in option!)
59- Turner’s incisors = Trauma during pregnancy
60- Why mucous cyst appears blue = Vascular congestion
61- Function of the key way in post preparation = Anti-rotational feature. To limit movement or resist removal (Dentin)
62- High risk to get retinal damage from dental staff = light used in polymerization of photo-activated materials
63- Which teeth can be removed without pain when you give IAN block and lingual nerve block = Canine and 1st premolar on the injection side (Dentin)
64- Which infiltration is given with IAN block to extract 2nd PM and all molars = Long buccal nerve
65- Which drug is most likely to dry secretions in the oral cavity = Propantheline 66- Most recurrent caries after MO composite restoration = Gingival
67- what element added to alloy to produce corrosion resistance = Chromium (Dentin) 68- Finishing margin for full GOLD restorations = Bevel (Feather Edge) margin
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69- Luting agent for gold restorations and orthodontic appliances = Zinc Phosphate cement 70- Why gold made alloyed = increase strength
71- Perio-chip contains = Chlorhexidine 72- Most dangerous for dentist – Hepatitis B
73- Cognitive coping = INNER. Cognitive coping involves teaching a patient to identify negative thoughts and behaviors that increase their stress burden and the situations where stress occurs.
74- All can happen in shock except = Hypertension
75- Fear of choking because of dental treatment = Catasphoring 76- Hypoglycemia causes all EXCEPT = Bradycardia
77- Root caries = Soft tissue in dentin
78- Ectodermal dysplasia = Oligodontia and hypodontia
79- Child in dental office u gave him LA with epinephrine only one cartridge he felt agitated after giving la what do u suspect = too much epinephrine in LA
80- Indication for nitrous oxide sedation = Anxiety
81- There was swelling 3 x 3 on the floor of the mouth and the swelling is fluctuant. What will be the treatment = Marsupialization
82- Collimation = Restricts the dimensions of the x-ray beam 83- Neuropraxia = Maintained continuity of axon and Epineurium
84- 2-year-old child mother complaining that my son doesn't eat anything due to pain he has sore red gums. What is your diagnosis = Herpes
85- A posterior crossbite in the deciduous dentition will most likely = present in permanent dentition
86- Class III furcation defect. What would you not do = GTR
87- Patient came with the history of swelling and around mand premolar she has fever 101 and difficulty in sleeping tooth has grade 3 mobility what u will do = Incision and drainage and recall
88- Treatment of cellulitis = Antibiotics
89- Patient with the history of bleeding n also bruising on extremities what it can be = Medications (but some say Leukemia)
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91- In what order the 3 canals of mand 1st molar will appear= If your x-ray coming from mesial. So order slob ML MB D for lower. For Upper Palatal MB2 MB1 DB
92- What systemic condition associated with endocarditis and glomerular nephritis = SLE 93- Primary support for mandibular CD = Buccal shelf
94- What is not important in class 3 cavity preparation = Extension for prevention
95- x ray shows very small caries lesion cross the DEJ on mesial and distal surface of tooth #3 = Separate MO and DO composite
96- Function of filter = Aluminum discs are used to “filter” out these USELESS long wave rays 97- Combination clasp = Similar to the cast circumferential clasp with the exception that the
retentive arm is fabricated from a round wrought wire (platinum-gold-palladium alloy or chrome- cobalt alloy).
98- Most likely cause pulp necrosis after trauma to the tooth = Pulp hyperemia
99- A 7-year-old patient fractured the right central incisor 3 hours ago. A clinical examination reveals a 2-mm exposure of a "bleeding pulp." The treatment-of-choice is = Pulpectomy and Apexification
100- Difference between gingival margin trimmer and hatchet = HATCHET: cutting edge in the plane of the handle. Designed to most effectively plane enamel of the facial and lingual walls of a Class II amalgam preparation. GMT: has a curved blade and angled cutting edge. Primarily used for beveling gingival margins, and for rounding or beveling the axio-pulpal line angle of Class II preparation
101- If the 4 maxillary incisors were to be replaced by partial removable denture prosthesis, which of the following would be desirable = Contact on Canines on lateral excursions 102- Percentage of 3rd canal in maxillary first premolar = 6%
103- Into which space is local anesthesia solution deposited during an inferior alveolar nerve block = Pterygomandibular space
104- The procedure of apical closure in permanent immature non vital tooth is = Apexification 105- Modeling for fearful child: A. Show him the procedure in non-fearful child (usually sibling) 106- Brushing technique during ortho treatment or after periodontal surgery = Charter’s
technique
107- Indication for dual cure cement = Large posterior cavities or crowns 108- Most commonly associated with dysplastic cells / dysplsia = Erythroplakia
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109- Dentist ignoring unacceptable behavior is = Extinction
110- Dentist duties to practice truthfully, which type of ADA ethics = Veracity 111- Hardest to anesthetize = Irreversible pulpitis and Mandibular teeth
112- Diagnosis for lingering pain to cold and sensitivity to percussion = Irreversible pulpitis & acute periapical abscess
113- A tooth is not responsive to cold, not to percussion, and palpation is tender = Necrotic pulp and chronic apical periodontitis
114- Informed consent is type of = Autonomy
115- Unethical to fee the patient solely bcoz he is benefiting from insurance blah blah blah A. Veracity B. Justice and 2 more options
116- Which medicine to avoid with gensing = Aspirin
117- Chronic periodontitis is more common in A. Hispanic male B. Hispanic female C. Black female D. Black male
118- Modified widman flap is = Full thickness flap coronal to mucogingival junction 119- Systemic antibiotic and scaling are combined as main treatment for: A. Chronic
periodontitis B. Aggressive periodontitis C ANUG D. Desquamative gingivitis 120- Which is true about alveolar bone = It is in a state of constant flux
121- Gingiva is attached to the tooth by = gingival fibers
122- Lamina densa of the basal lamina beneath the epithelium is composed of: Type IV collagen 123- DMF index for: A. Caries B. Plaque C. OHI - S D- PI
124- Percentage of fluoridated community water in US :�A. 60 %�B. 74 �C. 80
125- Children between 7-10 years are mostly benefitted from = Pits and fissures sealants 126- Band and loop space maintainer is all Except--Prevents vertical eruption of opposing tooth
CORRECT! 127- Medications for:
a. grand mal seizure = Phenytoin
b. petit mal seizure = Ethosuximide and Valproic acid c. Status epilepticus = Diazepam
128- Tooth and tissue support appliance: A. Lingual arch B. Nance C. Transpalatal arch D. One more option
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NANCE APPLIANCE is used to prevent upper molars from rotating or moving forward after extraction of primary teeth or during orthodontic treatment. Some patients wear the Nance Appliance while they are awaiting their permanent bicuspids or premolars to erupt into place.
129- Pt has skin nodules, Supernumerary teeth and one more description, investigator should investigate for: intestinal polyps (Gardner’s syndrome)
130- Hallmark of peri-radicular abscess = sinus track drainage
131- Endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended in one of the following conditions before extractions = TETRALOGY OF FALLOT
132- False neurotransmitter = Methyldopa
133- Dicumerol (Vit.K antagonist) = Coronary infarcts
134- An opiate type MAA with both agonist and antagonist properties = Pentazocin 135- All of the following cause craniofacial deformity Except = Tetralogy of fallot
136- Erythromycin and tetracyclines are prescribed carefully in patients with peptic ulcers because = interacts with antacids if any
137- Macrolides avoided in asthma = interacts the theophylline 138- Antidote of warfarin = Vit K
139- Antidote of heparin = Protamine sulphate
140- 76 yrs is on warfarin therapy and needs emergency extractions of a decayed tooth. Select the appropriate protocol: Do not stop warfarin and perform surgery using local anesthetic and administer Vit. K
141- Dental lamina is formed at = 6 weeks IU
142- Automated external defibrillator best described as? not used under 12 years of age 143- 5- x ray, there are unerupted teeth, retained deciduous, impacted permanent teeth and l
saw osteoma also, Wt the diagnosis :A. Ectodermal dysplasia B. Odontogenic keratocyst C. Gardener's syndrome
144- Sloughing of necrotic epithelium = Aspirin burn
145- Treacher choline syndrome (mandibulofacial dysostosis) has a relation to zygoma in same manner of cleidocranial dysplasia relation to : A. Ribs B. Clavicle C. Iliac
146- Pigmentation of the face, lips and oral cavity and intestinal polyps = Peutz Jeghers syndrome
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147- Children = Rhabdomyosarcoma
148- Macroglossia doesn't occur in A. Amylodosis B. Down syndrome C. Hypothyroidism , D. Hyperthyroidism
149- Brown tumor (Central giant cell granuloma) is associated with HYPERPARATHYROIDISM 150- Description of a lucent lesion starting from lower second molar extending to incisor area (no
xray).What’s the least possible diagnosis? Nasopalatine duct cyst
151- Pregnant first trimester, picture of pyogenic granuloma, what to do: Wait till 2nd trimester 152- Cross bites are treated with maxillary expansion. Tongue thrusting causes cross bite = First
true, second false.
153- Best time for treatment of pt under dialysis : A. The day after dialysis B. Day before C. Hours before
154- Periodontitis in AIDS pt will be treated by all of following except A. Scaling B. Systemic antibiotics C. Antifungal to prevent candidasis D. Multiple free gingival graft to correct the gingival defect or contour
155- Dementia : A. Short term memory loss B. Long term memory loss Two more options 156- Wt is true about elderly pt :A. Become less intelligent and difficult to change their behavior
or something like this B. Senility comes by age 2 more weird options
157- Evaluation of 2 groups A and B with 2 drugs for same period, what type of study A. Cross sectional 3- clinical trials 3- cohort
158- Most common mid-face fracture = Zygomaticomaxillary
159- One month ago, a dentist studied the prevalence of dental caries among school students, Wt study :A. Cross sectional B. Cohort C. Others
• A cross-sectional study involves looking at people who differ on one key characteristic at one specific point in time. The data is collected at the same time from people who are similar in other characteristics but different in a key factor of interest such as age, income levels, or geographic location. Participants are usually separated into groups known as cohorts. For example, researchers might create cohorts of participants who are in their 20s, 30s, and 40s.
• Cohort studies observe large groups of individuals, recording their exposure to certain risk factors to find clues as to the possible causes of disease. They can be prospective studies
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and gather data going forward, or retrospective cohort studies, which look at data already collected.
160- dentist studies 4 unrelated pts with myofacial pain and myalgia. Wt type of study :A. Case series
161- mechanism of fetal alcohol syndrome A. Failure of cells distribution B. Neural crest apoptosis
162- purpose of percussion :A. To assess inflammation of PDL 163- Flap heals by - primary
Gingivectomy- secondary Graft- tertiary
164- Most potent and most toxic LA = Dibucaine 165- Long acting LA with less toxicity = Bupivacaine 166- Lozenges for candidiasis = Clotrimazole
167- Pain medication for liver toxicity and renal toxicity = OXYCODONE
168- painful response that subsides quickly after removal of stimulus is. Reversible pulpitis 169- polycrystalline ceramic :A. Zirconia B. Feldsparic porcelain C. Aluminosilicate ( not sure) D.
One more l think leutice something
170- Which type of suture is indicated in an immediate denture case to promote the best wound healing for the alveolar ridge? = Interrupted
171- What is more frequent? DI, AI, Cleft lip
172- Adrenalin crisis = hypotension and cv collapse 173- Thyroid crisis = hypertension and Inc heart rate
174- Patient with Hepatitis B. All organs will be affected except? = Thyroid (not sure)
175- greatest fracture force A. Zircon B. Lettice something 3- aluminium or lithium blah blah bla 176- least fracture force: Leutice and also feldspathic porcelain
177- 15 years old pt with 107 f, lymphadynopathy, sore gums, diagnosis A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
178- Parkinson's disease, EXCEPT --- Associated with intentional tremor, D. associated with dementia (Note: TT of Parkinsons: carbidopa+Levodopa)
179- All will be included in the ortho informed consent except A. Ortho treatment can bend roots of the teeth B. Caries and gums dieses can happen during ortho treatment C. Injury to the
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nerve due to any previous accident can be increased during ortho D. During ortho Pt will have to wear mouthguard during sports
180- All of the following reasons to restore erosion lesion except one, which one? a. prevents future erosion b. reduced sensitivity c. esthetic
181- Which of the following dental conditions is often found in Down's syndrome patients? A. Mulberry molars B. Supernumeraries C. Short, conical roots D. Hutchinson's incisors 182- Which tissue show most growth in first 6 years and then plateau? A. lymph B. neural
183- In PFM, to prevent porcelain fractures, the junction should be: 1. Right angle 2. Not round 3. Round NOTE:Junction: Right angled, Internal line angles: Rounded
184- HPV vaccine : before 18, after 18, after 26, before first sex
185- Cavity prep amalgam class 5 retention form ? A. prox grooves mesial / distal B. prox grooves oclusal C. parallel walls mesio-distal D. parallel walls occluso-gingival
186- Maxillary premolar extraction forcep = 150 187- Mandibular premolar extraction forcep = 151
188- To prevent demineralization of enamel from orthodontic treatment, which method is expensive? = Fluoride varnish every 6 months
189- The most predictable for treatment of perio disease? 1. Scaling & root planning 2. The modified Widman flap 3. Free gingival flap 4. Apically positioned flap (1 or 4…Not sure. SRP is gold standard. I prefer 1.)
190- What is not an advantage of LED cure in comparison to halogen: A. lifetime bulb, B. energy efficient, C. weight, D. curing depth
191- what determines implant height in an overdenture? 1. implant length 2. impl diameter 3. gingiva height 4. number of implants
192- Pregnant 36 weeks we don’t give ibuprofen why ? A. premature ducts arterious closure B. cleft lip and palate C. spina bifida D. tachycardia
193- A dentist has the legal obligation to report all situations except: A. working under substance abuse B. Advertising on electronic media C. abusing patients
194- MOA Doxycycline = If 30s ribosomal is not an option, then select “inhibit collagenase” 195- What are the important differences that we should know about Pemphigus and
pemphigoid? Pemphigus: suprabasilar vesicle and acanthylosis Pemphigoid: subepidermal and NO acanthylosis
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196- Had that Glass ionomer cement question it does fluoride and what else --- pick this “ionic bond to dentin and enamel”
197- which property porcelain has? = High compressive strength and poor tensile strength 198- Amalgam sealing quality question. You did amalgam but if at times leakage how to define
in reality = Improves over time
199- How to reduce penumbra = decrease object/film distance
200- When there is no barrier, protection of dentist = 6 feet; 90-135 degrees 201- Increase the voltage of radiation = Short wavelength and high energy 202- Source/object distance for lateral ceph = 5 feet
203- Mandibular fracture = Panoramic
204- what happens when a patient moves during panoramic = Irregular border and vertical line 205- View sinus = Waters
206- Condylar fracture = Reverse towne
207- View Zygomatic arch/zygomatic fracture = SMV
208- Best revealing issue for prediction about ossification = Hand wrist radiograph
209- Workers of nuclear plant, how much radiation permitted yearly = 5 rem / 5000 mrem yearly 210- On average, a nuclear worker receives approximately 150 mrem of occupational exposure
a year
211- To confirm horizontal fracture = Multiple vertical angulated radiographs 212- Hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles of feet = Papillon Lefvre syndrome
213- Something about fixing x ray image = Remove unexposed silver halide crystals (not sure) 214- Amalgam waste is regulated by = ADA or OSHA???
215- Amalgam restoration should be changed when it displays = Recurrent caries
216- Huge MOD amalgam, U notice that its got a line in a middle. But when u explore there is not an actual crack. What is the next step? = Observe
217- The characteristic of an impression material to change its viscosity when applied tension ? Thixotropic
218- Patient has discolored composite in #8. She doesn't like it. What will you do? 1. Replace the whole filling 2. Remove 1mm and add new composite 3. Veneer 4. PFM
219- Which of the following is False concerning the indirect technique in
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increased laboratory Costs. b. It is more suitable for multi rooted teeth, and producing multi directional post systems. c. Posts produced by this technique are considered to be with the most accurate fit. d. It includes the use of a putty and wash impression technique. e. The lentulo spiral is used in one of its steps. MAY BE “B” but not sure
220- If pt has infected maxillary sinusitis you can know it from all methods except: A. when pt. bends forward it bothers him B. it irradiates to the ear C. pain irradiates somewhere else D. palpation and percussion of upper molars and premolars Not sure
221- New ceramic crown 7 days back two red spots adjacent caused by Chemical burn
222- Scarring from electrical burn = lingual inclination of teeth or decreased VDO (both correct
hopefully!!!)
223- Diazepam-mediated effects include A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation B- Lowering seizure Threshold C- Anterograde amnesia D- Analgesia
224- Least effective in treatment of Class-2 furcation defects: Floss
225- Levodopa therapy for Parkinson disease may result in each of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Development of abnormal involuntary movements, especially in the face b. Extreme sensitivity to sympathomimetic drugs c. Exacerbation of an acute psychosis d. Nausea and vomiting e. Extreme sedation
226- Pregnant woman 5 months , cavity which LA? Lidocaine 227- Pregnant woman faints = Turn to LEFT SIDE and raise hip 150 228- Which NSAID does not block cox pathway = Acetaminophen 229- Ganglion blocking agent = Mecamylamine (Used for Hypertension)
230- Most appropriate time for surgical treatment of a patient with mandibular prognathism is = Following completion of growth
231- Oral Hairy leukoplakia = Epstein Barr Virus
232- Condyloma acuminata is caused by = Human Papilloma Virus 233- Cleft lip happens in which week?= 6-9 weeks
234- Cleft lip more common in MALES and Cleft palate more common in FEMALES 235- All associated with periodontal disease EXCEPT= Stevens-Johnson syndrome
236- Acrodynia = primarily affects young children. The symptoms of irritability, photophobia, pink discoloration of the hands and feet, and polyneuritis can be attributed to chronic exposure to mercury.
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237- Arcon vs non arcon articulator = Arcon- where the condyles are attached to the lower member of the articulator and the fossae are attached to the upper member. More accurate for fabricating fixed restorations, especially when an interocclusal record is used to mount mandibular cast. Nonarcon has upper and lower members rigidly attached. Provide easier control in setting teeth for complete and partial dentures. Both are semi-adjustable and use a facebow.
238- When u put crown on for cementation. What u check: A. Proximal contacts, occlusion there is one more which I never heard about was in every option . Its something like iglu long word. Don’t remember You check first Internal then proximal and then marginal
239- Study to know the effect of gastric bypass surgery on nutritional status: - Observational Clinical trial Descriptitve Cohort
240- Home internal bleach causes mostly = External root resorption
241- Most common tooth to get plaque: A mandibular incisors B maxillary molars C mandibular molars
242- Prevalence is measured by which study design: Cross-sectional 243- Incidence can be directly calculated from: a cohort study
244- One of the disadvantages of cohort studies is that: they are more prone to selection bias. 245- When fail and safe mechanism start in nitrous at what percentage . Doesn’t mention if for
kids or adults: 70%
246- How much oxygen give when u patient feel nausea in nitrous oxide. A stop nitrous B give 60% oxygen C give 100 % oxygen
247- Healing after gingivectomy = Secondary intention 248- Mitral valve relapse patient. Do u do premedicate? NO
249- You can check all drugs in complete blood count except A. Clopidogrel B. Plavix C. Apexaben D. Warfarin
250- When u put crown on for cementation. What u check: A. Proximal contacts, B. occlusion there is one more which I never heard about was in every option . Its something like iglu long word. You check Internal, then proximal and then gingival
251- Patient on initial stage in leaving smoking all can be done except: A Chantix B hypnosis C Nicotinic patches D Bupropion
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252- Emancipated minor: Under 18 person who has been married, has been pregnant, or responsible for his or her own welfare and is living independently of parental control and support can give consent
253- Patient came to you and he only speaks limited English . You do all except: A Tell him pros and cons. B Get consent in his own language C You talk to spouse about his plan
254- A person comes to you after SRP. He doesn’t have any calculus but his pocket depth is around 5 or 6 mm generalised pocket . What u do? A Put him on maintenance phase B. Do another SRP C. Do surgery
255- A mandibular 1st molar has a Grade-3 through to through furcation involvement. What do u do? A. Hemisection it and make it like premolar B. Bridge from premolar to molar C.
Extract and implant
256- CUSTOM INDIRECT TECHNIQUE (outside the mouth in the LAB) FOR MAKING
TEMPORARY CROWNS IS PREFFERED BECAUSE IT IS MORE ACCURATE, BETTER FIT, & PROTECTS THE PULP
257- For external crevicular incision where it will end: A apical to alveolar crest B Sulcular epithelium C. Bone
258- Ectodermal dysplasia seen most in A maxilla B mandible C Alveolar bone
259- X rays 1 stafne but they mention lingualized salivary gland. 2. Ear lobe. 3. Hyoid bone 4. Nasal process of maxilla
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261- Who controls dental office materials. Ans ADA and if not in options, then FDA
262- Sample-size is irrelevant in: Case-report or Case-Series 263- Epithelium growth per day= 0.5-1mm
264- Low fusing porcelain used for? Crown and bridge 265- Porcelain occlusal adjustment, which bur? Diamond 266- Margin discoloration of veneer:
day-amine
Week-microleakage Month-microcrack
267- Treatment without consent=Battery
268- Tort law = If you treat without consent then technical assault oand battery
269- Green discoloration of porcelain=Silver
270- House classification. Which is best? Class-1 (Physiologic)
271- All are side effects of opioids EXCEPT: Diuresis (too much peeing)
272- Which of the following is NOT a clinical presentation of oral Candidiasis? A- Erythematous patch B- White, hyperplastic patch C- White, curd-like patch D- Ulcerative
273- Gustatory sweating while eating and crocodile tears = Frey’s syndrome
274- Which is the best approach for a patient who becomes very uncomfortable when a planned surgical procedure is discussed = Explain post-operative instructions, obtain informed consent, and help the patient to resolve anxiety before the procedure.
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276- What tooth has developmental groove, which influences to development of primary periodontitis? = Max. 1st PM
277- Template for implant control except = Size of implant 278- Porcelain is strongest in which stage = Cooling
279- A child comes to your office with a neighbor, he states that he was playing in the yard and injured himself, they gave the class of injury, I think it was Ellis III but it wasn’t relevant for the Qs. The adult states they couldn’t contact his mother, the kid says he has a dentist but doesn’t remember his name. What do you do: contact parents
280- Differentiate between periodontal and peri-radicular abscess = vitality test 281- What NOT to do in COPD patient? = 100% oxygen
282- Intrinsic activity, efficacy, affinity, potency = TI = LD50/ED50 283- LD50/ED50= therapeutic index or drug safety
284- A drug with a high LD50 and low ED50 has a HIGH therapeutic index, thus is relatively
SAFE.
285- How to see soft tissue injury radiographically = Dec 25% 286- 3 mm crowding. What to do: A. observe. B. Disking 287- Moderate crowding = Leeway
288- When you receive a PFM crown from the laboratory, what is the FIRST thing you check = Internal surface
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289- Penicillin is cross allergenic with CEPHALOSPORINS because of the beta lactamse 290- Broadest antimicrobial spectrum = Tetracyclines
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291- Which can be safely administered to a patient with chronic renal failure without any change in dosages = Doxycycline
292- Which does not cause scarring of oral mucosa = Erythema multiforme 293- Prilocaine is not used in = G6PD deficiency
294- Drug with good first pass effect? Low bioavailability
295- If a 5-year old child receives tetracycline therapy, the affected teeth will be = Canines, premolars and 2nd molars
296- Morphine (schedule 2 opioid) relieves pain by = acting on opioid mu receptors on neuronal cell membranes
297- Bupivacaine has all the following properties relative to lidocaine EXCEPT bupivacaine: A. is more toxic B is an ester type local anesthetic C has slower onset of action D has longer duration action
298- Mona-Lisa face = Sclerderma
299- Addison’s disease = diffused pigmentation
300- Treatment of myasthenia gravis: Physiostigmine and Piridostigmine 301- Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis = Edrophonium (Cholinesterase inhibitor) 302- Tricyclic antidepressants = Imipramine and amitriptyline
303- Both diazepam n narcotics antagonist Diazepam - flumazenil
Narcotics or opioids- naloxone
304- Treatment of status epilepticus = Benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam or midazolam (prefer midazolam)
305- Benzodiazepines mode of action = gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) at the GABAA receptor
306- Anticholinergics mode of action = inhibit binding of acetylcholine to muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. These receptors are found in eye, secretory glands and nerve endings to smooth muscle cells.
307- Which medication for anticancer works on folate synthesis/ prevents folic acid production: Methotrexate
308- Montelukast = Inhibits Leukotriene
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310- Amantadine = Antiviral
311- Amphetamine = Psychostimulant, increases the release of dopamine and NE in brain. Used for the treatment of ADHD.
312- ADHD: More common in boys. If a kid is taking amphetamine, tell him not to take the medicine before dental appointment.
313- Penicillin = Low toxicity
314- Administration of succinylcholine to patient deficient in serum cholinesterase would cause = prolonged apnea
315- Patient has a deficiency in acetylcholinesterase = d-tubocurarine
316- Best initial treatment of TMJ muscle spasm = NSAIDS+muscle relaxants 317- Never give penicillin with tetracycline. They ANTAGONIZE eachother 318- Which of the following glucocorticoids is the strongest? Dexamethasone
319- Acetaminophen MOA = antipyretic effect by acting on centers in hypothalamus
320- Adalimumab and infliximab = bind to TNF-alpha receptors and used to treat rheumatoid arthritis
321- Benzodiazepine antagonist = Flumazenil
322- Articaine is the only amide metabolized in the BLOOD STREAM and NOT in liver! 323- Percocet (Oxycodone+acetaminophen) is Class-II
324- Antihistamine contraindicated with erythromycin = Terfenadine 325- Which medication does not cause hyposalivation = Pilocarpine
326- Antagonism to motion sickness = diphenylhydramine (indirect sympathomimetic drug) 327- Motion sickness = Scopolamine
328- Diphenylhydramine has the MOST sedative effect 329- Chlorpheniramine has the LEAST sedative effect
330- The drug which causes withdrawal symptoms in pts taking oxycodiene = codeine 331- The drug contraindicated in pt taking gingko biloba = Heparin
332- The drug of choice in patient with bradycardia = Atropine, Epinephrine.
333- Which of the following does not have anti-inflammatory action = Acetaminophen 334- Prilocaine above 500mg causes = Apnoea, cardiogenic shock, methemoglobinemia. 335- Histamines are produced by = Mast cells
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337- Common between Gardner’s syndrome and Neurofibromatosis = Autosomal dominant 338- Dentist wants to evaluate the effect on by pass surgery and nutrition = Clinical trial or
Cohort???
339- Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur (3 correct answers): A when the drug is administered orally.
B in patient who have already experience an allergic reaction to the drug. C in patient with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy.
D when the drug is administered parentally E within minutes after drug administration.
340- 10 y.o girl, with good OH, no caries but a child of divorced parents. How would you rate her caries risk? Middle
341- On a lateral cephalogramm of the 10 y.o girl what is the radiolopacity that crosses her posterior teeth? = Palatine process of maxilla
342- Compression rate in CPR = 120/minute 343- Gingival index = Ordinal like 1,2,3
344- Manipulative kid = Positive reinforcement
345- Red Complex bacteria = P. gingivalis, T. denticola, & Tannerella forsythia (formerly Bacteroides forsythus)
346- Which test does not check for bacteria and their metabolites = IL-1
347- Cool glass slab? = to incorporate more powder into the liquid and increase working time 348- Pink growth on palatal between canine and 1st pre? Pyogenic granuloma
349- Pregnant gingivitis = progesterone, plaque, estrogen
350- Which of the following causes speech problems in a patient with cleft palate? Inability of the soft palate to close the nasopharyngeal air flow
351- The most stable elastic material in a moisture environment? PVS or polyether 352- Trismus most common in which space? Submassteric, Submandibular, Sublingual 353- Bone resorption after 1 year in implant? 0.2 or 0.02 (DD says 0.02)
354- Least bucco-lingual resistance to lateral forces = One 4 mm diameter implant 355- Critical pH for dentin demineralization = 6.2
356- Critical pH for enamel demineralization = 5.5 357- Rubber dam = dry teeth
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358- Incision for palatal tori = Y-Shaped (Some people say double Y)
359- Medication for Asthma control = albuterol (short acting) and theophylline (long-term) 360- Muscle in maxillary frenum = orbicularis oris, elevator angular oris
361- Muscle in mandibular frenum = traingularis\depressor anguli oris, buccinator
362- To prevent eye damage, the protective eyewear that u wear should effectively filter which light rays below: 500 or 509 (both correct)
363- After how long of wearing does a face mask become useless = 1 hour 364- Which muscle is pierced during IAN block = buccinator
365- When draining purulent exudate from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space using an intraoral approach = buccinator muscle
366- Kennedy’s class-III, Tooth supported RPD rest towards the ridge
367- Main function of indirect retainer? Prevent dislodgement of RPD vertically
368- A dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patients with different background. Dentist is doing what kind of research? Case-Series
369- Under which principles of informed consent of treatment, a dentist is NOT required to inform a patient about which of the following?
a) Alternative treatments available by a specialist b) The risk associated with non-treatment
c) Potential risks of treatment
D) insurance co-payment for treatment
370- Combination clasp = The combination clasp is similar to the cast circumferential clasp with the exception that the retentive arm is fabricated from a round wrought wire (platinum-gold-palladium alloy or chrome-cobalt alloy)
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371- Nutrient canals seen radiographically most common where? Mandibular incisors
Nutrient Canal
372- Advantage of distraction osteogenesis = Less relapse
373- After IAN block, patient has facial paralysis. Which ligament = Sphenomandibular ligament 374- Cheek biting occurs due to = insufficient HORIZONTAL overlap in molars
375- Cheek biting corrected by = increasing the HORIZONTAL overlap in molars 376- Kennedy’s Class-III gets support from = Occlusal rest (tooth supported) 377- Kennedy’s class-4 is also tooth supported
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378- The most stable elastic impression in moisture environment? a. polyether b. additional silicone c. condensation silicone d. polysulfide
379- Patient is given oral habit reducing appliance to prevent an oral habit, what is this considered? – Negative reinforcement POSITIVE PUNISHMENT
380- Axial walls on an MOD cavity for a cast gold onlay should = Converge from the gingival walls to pulpal walls
381- Best allograft = FDBA Cadaver 382- Breathing rate in a kid = 22 to 30 383- With age, CHROMA increases
384- While doing external bevel incision the curette is touching which structure apically: JE
385- Reversal occlusal plane can be seen in a given pano. why? Chin tilted too much upwards
386- What is an allograft – transplant from one human to another 387- Crowing sounds are seen with. Acute asthmatic attack, COPD.
388- Blood transfusion before surgery should be done when the platelet concentration falls below. 20,000, 50,000 , 100,000 etc
389- Normal bleeding time = 1-9 min
390- Normal prothrombin time = 11-16 seconds 391- Normal platelet count = 150,000 to 450,000
392- Normal Partial Thromboplastin Time = 32-46 seconds
393- The most effective method of caries reduction = Systemic water fluoridation 394- 5 A’s of cancer prevention: Ask, assess, advise, assist, arrange
395- Ectodermal dysplasia = sparse hair 396- Max. nitrous oxide in kids = 30%
397- Long-term nitrous = Symptoms similar to multiple sclerosis 398- For thiazide diuretics = Give K-supplements
399- In multiple sclerosis = LA with epinephrine is CONTRAINDICATED 400- A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after an injection of 4ml of
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steady. The respiration is slow. The blood pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable diagnosis? Incipient syncope
401- Most common respiratory emergency = Hyperventilation 402- Most common CNS emergency = Syncope
403- Patient has a petit mal seizure in your office, what do you do? Protect patient from hurting themselves.
404- Strep mutans: lives in a non-shedding surface
405- Short story about a patient with candida, what medicine can we give that can be given orally (systemically) and locally with efficiency: Miconazole (in can be used as cream and tablets)
406- Maximum allowable dose of EPI that can be administered to a cardiac-risk patient is 0.04mg.
407- Lidocaine may show cross-allergy with = Mepivacaine (Dentin)
408- Which drugs when administered intravenously, is LEAST likely to produce respiratory depression? Diazepam
409- Side effect of nitroglycerin = Orthostatic hypotension and headache 410- First sign of lidocaine toxicity = CNS stimulation/Nervousness 411- Trismus is most commonly caused by = Tetanus
412- High-flow 100% 02 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope EXCEPT = Hyperventilation syndrome
413- What antiviral drug is used for influenza A and Parkinson’s = Amantadine 414- Ganglionic blocking agents cause = orthostatic hypotension
415- Atropine poisoning = burning dry mouth and orthostatic hypotension (as it is anticholinergic) 416- Cause of death by irreversible cholinesterase = Respiratory paralysis
417- Cholinergic crisis = lacrimation, bradycardia, extreme salivation, weakness voluntary muscle
418- Levodopa crosses brain barrier to treat Parkinson’s disease 419- Hallmark of anticholinergic drug = Mydriasis (pupil dilation) 420- Cocaine overdose = mydriasis (dilated pupil)
421- Opioid overdose = miosis (constricted pupil)
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423- Alpha1 stimulate – vasoconstriction, mydriasis 424- Alpha1 block – vasodilation
425- Stimulate beta – increase HR, bronchodilation, vasodilation 426- Block beta – decrease HR, brocho constriction
427- Epi - to reverse give – prazosin or chlorpromazine
428- MOA of reserpine – stabilize the axon terminal membrane preventing release norepiephine, Used for treatment of hypertension
429- Amphetamine – indirect acting drug
430- MOA of Naloxone: non-selective and competitive opioid receptor antagonist in case of opioid overdose
431- MOA of Clonidine: centrally acting sympatholytic (α2 adrenoceptor agonists) 432- MOA of Zoloft: Sertraline - Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
433- Serotonin syndrome = Tramadol (narcotic pain killer like morphine) + SSRI
434- Immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face
becomes quickly and visibly swollen. the immediate treatment should be to = Use pressure followed by cold packs over swelling
435- For codeine allergy = use meperidine, tramadol or pentazocine
436- Each of the following is an advantage of midazolam over diazepam EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? Less potential for respiratory depression
437- Nitrous oxide sedation should be postponed in pt. with: Sinusitis, GI obstructions, Middle ear disturbances and Nausea (all of them)
438- Occlusal reduction for fixed crowns: flat and round for porcelain….similar to natural contours for metal
439- Color is usually described according to the Munsell color space in terms of hue, value, and chroma. Hue is the attribute of a color that enables the clinician to distinguish between different families of color, whereas value indicates the lightness of a color. Chroma is the degree of color saturation. When color is determined using the Munsell system, value is determined first followed by chroma. Hue is determined last by matching with shade tabs of the value and chroma already determined.
440- Wavelength of color = Hue
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442- The most frequent respiratory complications following oral and maxillofacial surgery are: 1-pulmonary atelectasis (in smokers).
2-aspiration pneumonia (manifest in pt right lung).
3-pulmonary embolus (originate in deep venous system of lower extremities especially in non-ambulatory patient).
443- 50% NO/50% O2 and pt feels nausea. what should dentist do? Stop NO and start 100% O2 444- Least incidence of oral cancer = Native Americans
445- Best prognosis of cancer = SCC (that’s what the group people said) 446- Most common location of SCC = Posterior lateral borders of tongue
447- A 40 years old patient bilateral posterior crossbite. How to correct the problem? Maxillary ostectomy
448- Prevalence of cleft lip and palate in US is 1 to : A. 600 B. 700 C.1000 D. 1200 449- Stridor: laryngospasm
450- Which one does not affect the tactile sensitivity of dentist? = Material composition 451- Male extracted his lower left third molar, on the second day he feels feverish, with
sublingual swelling that elevate his tongue, affects the swallowing and breathing, diagnosis: Ludwig angina
452- Cellulitis A. Neutrophilia B. Neutropenia C. Lymphocytosis D. leukocytosis (Both C and D)
453- Immunoglobulin IgG: A. Decreases phagocytosis B. Antigens receptor C. Produces macrophages and neutrophils
454- Flabby tissues in anterior maxilla for a complete denture impression = Passive
455- Recurrence is least in: A. Ameloblastoma B. OKC C. Odontogenic myxoma D. Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst
456- MOST COMMON complication associated with the use of LA = Vasaovagal syncope 457- LA with epinephrine is contra-indicated with = TCA, propranolol, amphetamine, MAO
inhibitors such as Isocarboxazid and Phenelzine (All of them)
458- Failure of tubercular impar to retract prior to fusion of lateral halves of tongue result in A median rhomboid glossitis B cleft bifid tongue C geographic tongue
459- X-ray with radiolucent /radiopaque lesion in the left posterior molar ramus area, diagnosis: A. Ameloblastic fibrodontoma B. Ameloblastic fibroma
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460- x ray of Dentigerous cyst (impacted tooth with radiolucency around the CEJ) 461- Which of the following lesion is strictly diagnosed from microscopic features
A. Ameloblastoma B. OKC C. Fibroma
462- Pic of prescription: name of pt...., date..., Rx : Motrin 800 mg/ 2 TABLETS, every 8 HOURS, for dental pain, name of Dr..., Bill... Q: what is the wrong of this prescription : A. Frequency of dose B. Number of tables per dose
463- Diazepam uses in all Except : A. Emesis B. Anxiety C. Muscle spasm D. Seizures 464- Epinephrine is NOT used in = Hyperthyroidism as it causes hypertension
465- What is NOT important for biohazard container = made up of metal 466- Cells most frequently found in granuloma = lymphocytes
467- Most common benign tumor occurring in the oral cavity = Fibroma 468- Uncontrolled diabetes = inhibits osteoblastic activity
469- Pear-shaped radiolucency causing displacement of the roots of vital maxillary lateral incisor and canine = Globulomaxillary cyst
470- Horizontal and vertical angulation causes what type of distortion of image? - Horizontal-overlap
- Vertical -elongation or shortening
471- In Emphysema, the anteroposterior of the lung is = Lengthened. 472- Capitation is with = Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) 473- Lesions that occur in the alveolar ridge of infants = Bohn’s nodules
474- Multiple neurofibromas with café-au-liet spots on skin = Vonrecklinghausen disease of skin 475- Chemical disintegration of enamel = Erosion
476- Mottled enamel is produced by = Fluorine
477- Structure of enamel more resistant to acids = enamel cuticle
478- Most common route through which infection reaches pulp is = Dental caries 479- Cells responsible for root resorption = osteoclasts
480- Patient had a root canal 2 years ago and now you see an apical radiolucency. What to do pt asymptomatic = Retreatment if the tooth becomes symptomatic
481- Dry socket is a form of = periostitis
482- Pathophysiology of dry socket = Fibrinolysis
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484- Placement of rubber dam affects color selection by? Dehydration of tooth 485- Dentist is not behaving with staff. Which ethical is violated? = Beneficence
486- Intraoral dental sinus = parulis (made up of granulation tissue, also called “gum-boil”) 487- Inflammation of lips is called = Cheilitis
488- Delayed side effect of corticosteriod treatment of TMJ = Blurred vision 489- Most common oral cancer = SCC (mostly lower lip)
490- Which index is irreversible = DMFT
491- In cardiac pacemaker patient, what can be used safely = Radiographic equipment 492- Most common cause of mucocele = trauma
493- Best radiograph for mandibles symphysis fracture = Occlusal 494- Xylitol is best used as = chewing gum
495- Crystals are deposited in TMJ in gouty arthritis =Monosodium urate 496- Dens-in-Dente most commonly occurs in = Maxillary lateral incisors 497- Paralysis of tongue is called = Glossoplegia
498- What passes through foramen ovale = Trigeminal nerve
499- Pt had fracture and numbness on side on nose cheeks...fracture site? Floor of the orbit 500- Most common site of basal cell carcinoma = middle third of face
501- Cells of dental pulp most capable of transforming into other cells = undifferenced mesenchymal cells
502- Patient had trauma 2 year back now u see radio in anteriomand. What to do = Check vitality and start RCT for non-vital teeth
503- Most common site of osteofibrosis (cementoma) = Mandibular anteriors 504- Wharthin’s tumor (Cystadenomalymphomatosum) = only occurs in PAROTID
505- Cells found in chronic pulp inflammation = Lymphocytes, Macrophages and Plasma cells 506- Cells most often found in granuloma = Lymphocytes
507- Diagnosis of OKC = histology
508- Prominent forehead, dwarf, disproportionate arms and legs and retruded maxilla = Achondroplasia
509- Blood of a patient with acute infection shows = leukocytosis 510- Herpes causes = Chicken pox
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512- You must give a long buccal injection to extract all molars and 2nd premolars. 513- which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross
membranes=non-ionized and high lipid solubility
514- Pseudocyst = Traumatic bone cyst. Common in 20s yrs. Scallops around teeth 515- Pierre Robin Syndrome = an inherited disorder that presents as micrognathia and
retrognathia of the mandible, glossoptosis (posterior displacement of tongue), and cleft palate. Often seen with respiratory problems.
516- Papillon Lefvre Syndrome = periodontitis, Hyperkeratosis hand/feet, premature tooth loss (4 years old)
517- Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia seen on = Granular cell tumor. More common on tongue and in females
518- Crouzon syndrome=beaten metal appearance of skull+Hypertelorism + midface deficiency. Cranial bones fuse too soon
519- Steven Johnson syndrome = Disease of skin and mucous membrane, begins like flu-like symptoms, top skin layer dies and sheds off, burning eyes
520- 'Coast of Maine' like border is seen in pigmented lesions of: McCune Albright syndrome 521- Atrophy of gastric and pharyngeal mucosa, spoon nails (koilonycias) and predisposal to
oral carcinoma in postmenopausal females = Plummer Vinson syndrome
522- Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, which occurs exclusively in the parotid gland is called = Wathin’s tumor
523- In Angina, DO NOT put patient in Trendelburg position
524- You raise a full mucoperiosteal flap to instrument in the pocket, after reposition of the flap where resorption occurs more = interdental crest
525- In early caries, the first structure to show destruction is = interprismatic substance 526- Bence Jones proteins, punched out lesions, plasma cell infiltrate and skeletal
radiolucencies = multiple myeloma
527- Bisphosphonates are NOT used for = Osteomyelitis and multiple myeloma 528- First sign of multiple myeloma = bone pain
529- Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia and loss of lamina dura = Hyperparathyroidism 530- All developmental cysts are radiolucent except = Nasoalveolar
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532- Bullae or vesicles of mucous membrane and skin are seen in all except: Agranulocytosis 533- Peak incidence of gingivitis in children occurs at = 10-13 years
534- Irradiation to head region does not cause = Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
535- Ramsay Hunt syndrome= caused by Herpes zoster. Associated with shingles, facial nerve damage and loss of hearing in affected side
536- Most common benign tumor of the oral cavity = Fibroma
537- Most common cyst of the oral cavity = Peri-apical (radicular) cyst 538- Which cyst has the highest rate of recurrence = OKC
539- Most common malignancy of the oral cavity = SCC 540- Excessive formation of scar tissue = Keloid
541- Abnormally large pulp chambers = Regional odontodysplasia 542- Thinning of hair = Hypothyroidism
543- Rubella encephalopathy = Acquired
544- Strawberry tongue = Scarlet fever and fungiform papillae involved
545- Most common tumor of minor salivary glands = Adenoid cyctic carcinoma
546- Not a differential diagnosis in dentinogenesis imperfecta = Enamel hypoplasia (seen in Type 1 Amelogenesis imperfecta)
547- Ectopic eruption most common in = Max. 1st Molars
548- Triad of hand-schuler-christian disease includes lesions of bone, exophthalmos and = diabetes insipidus
549- For balancing side = 3 cusps should touch but not canine 550- Protrusive record is made for = horizontal condylar guidance
551- Christensen phenomenon = Space that forms in the posterior teeth during anterior movement of mandible
552- Oral cytology is not useful in the diagnosis of = Lipoma 553- Split papule on lower lip = mucous patch
554- Stigmata of congenital syphilis does NOT include = Cleft lip 555- What is disadvantage of autograft? Second surgery 556- For big osseous defects= autograft
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558- Melkersson Rosenthal syndrome = facial paralysis, chelitis granulomatosa and SCROTAL TONGUE
559- Ghon complex = Primary of childhood tuberculosis 560- Striae of Wickham = Lichen planus
561- Which fluoride for porcelain something = Neutral Sodium fluoride 562- Green and orange stains on teeth = Poor oral hygiene
563- Primary canines have a longer MESIAL cusp ridge compared with permanent canines in which, DISTAL cusp ridge is longer.
564- Curve of Spee = Anterior-posterior curvature of the mandibular occlusal plane 565- Curve of Wilson = Medio-lateral U-shaped curve of upper and lower posterior teeth 566- Compensating curve = is under dentists’ control. Helps provide a balanced occlusion 567- In centric position = bilateral balanced occlusion. All cusps interdigitate.
Contacts in a Balanced Occlusion:
► Cusp-to-fossa contact in centric occlusion (MICP) in an ideal Class I occlusion. ► During lateral excursions, opposing cusps contact on the WORKING SIDE. BULL
► During lateral excursions, on the balancing side, maxillary lingual cusps (lingual inclines) contact mandibular facial cusps (lingual inclines). LUBL
568- PID length changed from 8 inch to 16 inch, so the resultant beam is ¼ as intense. 569- PID length changed from 16 inch to 8 inch, so the resultant beam is 4 times intense 570- Base of incision in gingivectomy = coronal to mucogingival junction
571- Serial extraction is done when arch length discrepancy is over 10 mm 572- Normal maxilla and retruded mandible = SNA 82o and SNB <80o
573- 8 yr old, both second primary molar missing. How to maintain space? Lingual arch 574- 40 years old patient bilateral posterior crossbite , what would be the way to correct the
problem Quad Helix or surgery
575- In young patients (mixed dentition), what is used to correct cross-bite = Quadhelix (it causes expansion of jaw)
576- Tongue blade appliance used in = anterior crossbite
577- Causes of anterior crossbite = Skeletal (mandibular hyperplasia and maxillary hypoplasia) 578- Hypercementosis = Most common in premolars and in Paget’s disease
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579- Ground glass appearance = Fibrous dysplasia
580- In molar area, the lingual flange of mandibular denture is determined by = Mylohyoid 581- The mandibular flange (lateral to retromolar area) is determined by = Masseter
582- Occlusal morphology determinants, what is correct: Increased overjet, flatter posterior cusps
583- Pt had fracture and numbness on side on nose cheeks...fracture site? Floor of orbit 584- If kid complained and whined in the beginning but at the end were very good: you
compliment
585- Aversive conditioning= punishment to deter unwanted behavior ex. Hand over mouth 586- The free gingival graft receives its nutrients from the viable connective tissue bed.
587- Free gingival graft is used for root coverage and increasing the zone of attached gingiva. 588- Main reason for failure of free gingival graft = failure of blood supply. The second reason is
infection
589- Most common donor site for free gingival graft = Palate. 590- First Endo done and then Perio treatment
591- Porphyria (Diagnosis) = Child presents with red urine, purplish-brown teeth, sensitivity to sunlight, blisters and swelling on face and hands when exposed to sunlight
592- Discolored teeth are seen in all these = Porphyria (purplish-brown), cystic fibrosis (yellowish-brown) and erythroblastosis fetalis (blue-greenish)
593- RH hump = Green or blue hue seen in teeth of erythroblastosis fetalis
594- Emergency treat of a kid that has ingested large amount of fluoride: induce vomiting and call 911, have him drunk lots of milk or Ca containing liquid. DO NOT give sodium
bicarbonate
595- For adults, the average LETHAL dose of fluoride is = 4-5 grams
596- Incisal and coronal parts to be matched in porcelain metal crowns done by = Firing under high temperature
597- Lethal dose of fluoride in infants is = 0.25 g (250 mg) 598- Most fluoride is absorbed from = Stomach
599- Fluoride is excreted via = Kidneys
600- Patient is very young and fearful first time you meet them – try to talk to them going down at their height
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601- Pits and fissure sealants are best retained on = Maxillary and mandibular bicuspids 602- A patient says that, “Even if there is some pain, it will be brief. I have effective methods of
coping.” The patient reminds himself of this during dental procedures. This patient’s statement exemplifies which strategy? Rational response
603- Band and loop is most often use when the primary 1M is lost and the distal shoe is for unilateral primary 2M lost
604- Which of the following describes ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)? Effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
605- A patient has a smooth! red! protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue. Microscopic examination reveals a stratified squamous epithelium covering loose! fibrous connective tissue with many thin-walled vascular spaces. What is it? Hemangioma
606- A 77 years old female 110 lbs. weight requires removal of mandibular teeth under local anesthesia. She is apprehensive. The appropriate dose of IV diazepam to sedate her? 5 mg
607- Most common tooth to get plaque: Mandibular incisors 608- Stippling of gingiva indicates = degree of keratinization
609- Stratification specific keratins present in gingival epithelium are: K5 and K14 610- The gingival fiber group which inserts in two adjacent teeth is the: Trans-septal
611- An isolated area in which root is denuded of bone is intact and covered only by periosteum and overlying gingiva is called: Fenestration
612- The type of bone present in the inter radicular area is: Cancellous
613- fibers in the lamina propria of the gingiva, help to bind the free gingiva to the tooth: Circular 614- Periodontium does NOT include = Dentin (DUHHH ! ! ! ! )
615- Bioactive glass (Perio glass) bone graft material is a type of: It is an alloplast I think (silicate-based material)
616- Gingiva is attached to enamel by: hemidesmosomes (they connect JE to tooth) 617- Stippling occurs only on = attached gingiva
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618- The sulcular epithelium acts as a semi permeable membrane through which: Fluids from the gingiva seeps in to the sulcus
619- In gingival hyperplasia, you do = gingivectomy 620- Least likely to need a bone graft = 3-walled narrow 621- Which is prevalent = 2 wall defect
622- Least useful retention/resistance form in crown? Total area of 2 axial walls 623- Where does the epithelium for a graft come from? Recipient epithelium 624- Most common cause of tooth mobility = advanced periodontal disease 625- Histoplasmosis resembles = SCC
626- Collagen is a protein that has = a high fluid turnover rate
627- Osteoblast covering the periodontal surface of the alveolar bone constitute a: modified endosteum
628- If the drug's liver metabolism is very efficient how it will influence to it potency? Decrease potency Potency how much drug to produce effect while efficacy the effective of drug 629- Recently introduced LA claimed to be as potent as Procaine 0.05%, 30 mg 4 hour period =
33 cartridges (I will just memorize 33 for this shitty question)
630- A patient with non-healing lesion on the side of the nose. it has a rolled border and has been increasing in size. the most likely diagnosis is = basal cell carcinoma
631- Keratin specific to epidermal type differentiation are: 1 2 10 12
632- Patient has sleep apnea which pain medication we can give = Ibuprofen
633- Which of the following fiber groups are not attached to alveolar bone? Transseptal 634- Color of normal gingiva is = Coral pink
635- Which orthodontic movement doesn’t commonly relapse = Extrusion
636- Clindamycin is bacteriostatic 50S ribosome unit, is effective against most anaerobes 637- Clindamycin is associated with = pseudomembranous colitis due to overgrowth of
Clostridium difficile
638- What to check in perio maintenance = Root caries 639- There are 3 categories of epidemiological studies .
1.Descriptive epidemiology: prevalence &incidence.
2. Analytic epidemiology: cohort study, cross sectional & case control . 3.Experimental epidemiology: clinical trials & community trials .
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640- Absolute contra-indication for the use of Nitrous Oxide? Nasal congestion 641- Calcification of permanent mandibular 2nd molar starts at? Approx. 3 years 642- Calcification of permanent 1st molar starts at? Birth
643- All are clinical features of sinusitis except = Swelling
644- Systemic effects of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) include all of the following except = Aortic aneurysm
645- Pain med for patients with obstructive sleep apnea = Ibuprofen or acetaminophen (both can be used)
646- While giving IAN block, if it caused paralysis of facial nerve, where did u inject = Too far posteriorly
647- Most common = Health maintenance organization 648- Erythroblastosis fetalis = Ring like enamel hypoplasia 649- In implant preparation, which of the following can be used?
A) hydroxyapatite irrigation b) High Speed Handpiece c) Low torque
d) Air Coolant
650- Which kind of insulin is short acting = Insulin regular 651- Which gene is altered most in oral cancer ? p53
652- How carious detection dye acts? stains infected dentin 653- Eosinophilic granuloma seen in? Langerhan’s histiocytosis-X 654- Most commonly seen dental caries? Occlusal
655- Hypercalcification due to calcium intake 656- Hypomaturation
657- Trauma to tooth during development? Turner hypoplasia
658- Systemic Disease affected the primary tooth ? hypophosphatasia 659- Function of rest ? support
660- Indirect retainers most needed in ? Kennedy class 1,2
661- Which drugs cause gingival hyperplasia? phynetoin,nifipidine,cyclosporine 662- Partial agonist antagonists ? pentazocin
May GOD make it easy for you (Amen)
664- Side effect of chloramphenicol ? aplastic anemia
665- How to calculate incidence ? (new case \ all case ) * 100 666- Benzodiazepine antagonists? flumenizil
667- Opoid antagonists? naloxone
668- Atropine inc or dec saliva ? decrease saliva
669- You inject LA into parotid gland capsule. how long it take to recover from the parathesia = 24 hrs
670- How does the wheezing sound occur? During expiration
671- How are the bronchioles of an asthmatic pt be.. Congenitally narrowed Chronic inflammation
672- What is the function of tin and indium used in alloys for making pfm? Chemical bond to porcelain
673- Network model is used: IPA
674- What is the meaning of conscious sedation? Analgesia
675- Increase in interpupil distance is called? Hypertelorism (seen in Cruozon syndrome) 676- Lupus erythematosis affects which organd ? renal, heart
677- Betchets disease ulcers resemble? Apthous ulcer
678- Single white spot lesion on a permanent tooth due to Hypercalcification due to flouride intake
679- When u publish an article, which is the most important point that u consider ??? 680- Meaning of Lethal dose of a drug? LD 50 .. the dose is lethal to 50% of patient 681- To increase density in xray what has to be done ? increase kvp,Ma,time
682- Dosage of acetaminophen in kids = 15 mg/kg 683- Drug for trigeminal neuralgia ? carbazmpine 684- Which test to be used in full crown ? thermal test
685- Crown has less buccolingual resistance. how to increase resistance = Give proximal grooves
686- All post teeth disocclude while eccentric movement. Which cusp u wont grind Max lingual 687- Max molars have how many canals usually = 4
688- Domestic abuse is an act of = Power of control
May GOD make it easy for you (Amen)
690- 23 yr old adult male..want to get wisdom teeth removed which are fully erupted..Heroin addiction withdrawal ..(some drug name starting with m..I forgot) also.history of smoking 20 pack in a year..which can affect healing Smoking
691- One pt having inr of 1.75. what u will do control bleeding after extraction Use gauze 692- If after scaling and root planing it reduced inflammation, did u remove Bacteria and
bacterial byproducts
693- The apical base of sulcus is by which tissue Junctional epithelium 694- Most strong porcelain by = Firing under compression
695- When is it false positive? Root canal filled with pus
696- In a clinic, the dentist and colleague are talking ..u think they are talking about u,but actually they are not...Paranoid or is it Illusions = I will go with Paranoid
697- To prevent fovea fatigue,during color selection, what should u do. Select under natural light or is it Glance for only 15sec at a time
698- Who gets max eye damage in a setting = Dentist 699- C factor highest in = Occlusal cavity
700- Pt telling I won't quit smoking? precontemplation 701- 60. Oral cancer in u.s mostly in Lip
702- Pic of parulis? fistula
703- Immediately after flap surgery what happens = Clot formation 704- What is allograft ? from another human
705- Y perio maintenance is done every 3 to 4 months: It's the time taken for alveolar bone to remodel
706- The labial bow part of the removable prosthesis = It can be used for minor tipping 707- Which movement CANNOT relapse most Extrusion
708- Pt taking an anticoagulant. u want to extract 2 teeth. Ask his general doctor to give clearance
709- Primary role of epinephrine in LA is = To decrease systemic reabsorption 710- Which is most rigid = Type 4 gold
711- Along with mwf what can be done = Scaling and root planning 712- If 7th nerve affected, will taste sensation change ? yes
