P
Partnership
Formation
Operations
Dissolution
Liquidation
Cost Accounting
Basic Cost Accounting
Job Order Costing -Lost
Jobs
Process Costing & its
Lost Units
Joint & By Products and
JIT Accounting
Business Combination
Merger and Stock
Acquisition
Conso F/S Subsequent
to Acquisition
AND
Intercompany Sale of
Plant Assets & Invty
Merger and Stock
Acquisition IFRS3 (2008)
Practical Accounting Problems II Review Lessons by: Romeo P. Arejola, Jr.
P2 Review Home
Special Revenue
Recognition
Long Term Construction
Contract
Installment Sales
Franchising
Conso F/S Subsequent
Others
Corporate Liquidation
HO & Branch Acctg
(Special Problems)
International
Accounting
Joint Venture
Review Sched and Tips
Jokes Test Banks
)
PARTNERSHIP FORMATION
Partneship Formation is basically the same with Sole Proprietorship. ASSETS are DEBITED at FMV contributed to the Business, LIABILITIES assumed by the business are CREDITED at FMV also. Instead of CREDITING one CAPITAL account only, TWO or more CAPITAL accounts are CREDITED for their individual net contribution. Then, CAPITAL accounts are just adjusted to conform with their agreement in allocating capital to partners.
Instructions: Populate the table with the figures given in the problem. Then, based from which method is to be used (Exact,Bonus,GW, combined Bonus & GW), work your way to compute for the missing figures using Soduko Style, by following the characteristics of each Method. Then, when the table is populated, all you need to do is journalized the datas from Column "Initial CC" upto "Agreed Capital".
Allocated Capital To Partners
Irrelevant Capital Interest
1. "Net Investment Method"
2. Eeach Partner's CC=Each Partner's AC
3. No Bonus; No Goodwill
4.No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of
Assets
1. Each Partner's AC= Total AC x Capital Interest Ratio
2. If silent, Capital Interest Ratio is not equal to P&L%
Agreed Capital Not Given
1. Method Given or Implied
Exact Method
1. Total CC=Total AC
2. Each Partner's AC=Each Partner's CC
3. No Bonus; No Goodwill
4. Additional Investment or Withdrawal of
Assets
Bonus Method "If Silent"
1. Total CC=Total AC
2. Some Partner's CC > Their AC
3. Yes Bonus; No Goodwill
4. No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of
Assets
1. Total CC<Total AC
2. Each Partner's CC <= Their AC
3. No Bonus; Yes Goodwill
4. No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of
Assets
5. Goodwill=Total AC
P2 Review Home
Sample1:
I
On June 1, 2007, JVC and GBX decided to pool their assets and form a partnership.
After the formation the partners will participate in the profits and loss ratio of 60% and
40% for JVC and GBX, respectively. The balance sheet on June 1 before the
adjustments were as follows:
JVC
GBX
Cash
P198,000
P316,800
Accounts receivable
1,296,000
1,440,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts
( 32,400)
( 36,000)
Notes receivable
360,000
-
Merchandise inventory
115,200
108,000
Prepaid rent
-
36,000
Building
720,000
Accumulated depreciation
( 72,000)
Equipment
576,000
Accumulated depreciation
__________
( 43,200)
Total assets
P2,584,800
P2,397,600
Accounts payable
P 36,000
P 43,200
Note payable
360,000
Capital
2,548,800
1,994,400
P2,584,800
P2,397,600
The firm is to take over business assets and assume business liabilities. Capitals are to
be based on net assets transferred after the following adjustments:
a. 4% of the accounts receivable of JVC may prove to be uncollectible while the
accounts receivable of GBX is estimated to be 98% realizable
b. Interest at 15% on notes receivable amounting to P200,000 dated April 1, 2007
should be accrued and interest at 12% on the balance of the notes dated February
1, 2007. (use exact days)
c. The inventory of JVC should be valued at P120,000, while P18,000 of the inventory
of GBX is considered worthless.
d. 4/5 of the prepaid rent has expired.
e. The building is over depreciated by P12,000.
f. The equipment is to be valued at P515,000.
g. Interest at 10% on notes payable dated May 1, 2007 should be accrued. (use exact
days)
h. GBX has office supplies on hand which have been charged to expense amounting to
P8,000. These are still to be used by the partnership.
i. Accrued expense of P6,000 is to be recognized in the books of JVC.
After formation, the new capital of the partnership is based on the adjusted capital
balance of JVC, so that GBX may either withdraw or invest additional cash to make the
partners’ capital balance in proportionate to their profits and losses ratio.
All in Black Ink are Given in the Problem.
All those in Red Ink were computed using Soduko Style of solving either by Squeeze or by working backwards or by merely following the logic of the Concepts/Notes
NET Investment Method Capital Interest Partners Unadjusted CC Final CC Bonus JVC 2,551,485 2,551,485 0 GBX 1,941,943 1,941,943 0 Total 4,493,428 4,493,428 0
1. Irrelevant Capital Interest, so remove Capital Interest % 2. Eeach Partner's CC=Each Partner's AC
3. No Bonus; No Goodwill
4.No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of Assets
Net Assets 4,493,428
JVC, Capital 2,551,485
GBX, Capital 1,941,943
# Agreed Capital Given at P4,500,000
Capital Interest Partners Unadjusted CC Final CC Bonus 60% JVC 2,551,485 2,551,485 141,943 40% GBX 1,941,943 1,941,943 (141,943) 100% Total 4,493,428 4,493,428 0
Bonus and Goodwill Combined 1. Total CC<Total AC
2. Some Partner's CC >Their AC 3. Yes Bonus; Yes Goodwill
4. No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of Assets 5. Goodwill=Total AC-Total CC Net Assets 4,493,428 JVC, Capital 2,551,485 GBX, Capital 1,941,943 # GBX, Capital 141,943 JVC, Capital 141,943 # Goodwill 6,572 JVC, Capital 6,572 #
Agreed Capital Not Given, Exact Method Capital Interest Partners Unadjusted CC Final CC Bonus 60% JVC 2,551,485 2,551,485 0 40% GBX 1,941,943 (240,953.00) 1,700,990 0 0
Add'l Inv't/ Withdrawal 0
0 0
Add'l Inv't/ Withdrawal 0
Add'l Inv't/ Withdrawal 0
I
On June 1, 2007, JVC and GBX decided to pool their assets and form a partnership.
After the formation the partners will participate in the profits and loss ratio of 60% and
40% for JVC and GBX, respectively. The balance sheet on June 1 before the
adjustments were as follows:
JVC
GBX
Cash
P198,000
P316,800
Accounts receivable
1,296,000
1,440,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts
( 32,400)
( 36,000)
Notes receivable
360,000
-
Merchandise inventory
115,200
108,000
Prepaid rent
-
36,000
Building
720,000
Accumulated depreciation
( 72,000)
Equipment
576,000
Accumulated depreciation
__________
( 43,200)
Total assets
P2,584,800
P2,397,600
Accounts payable
P 36,000
P 43,200
Note payable
360,000
Capital
2,548,800
1,994,400
P2,584,800
P2,397,600
The firm is to take over business assets and assume business liabilities. Capitals are to
be based on net assets transferred after the following adjustments:
a. 4% of the accounts receivable of JVC may prove to be uncollectible while the
accounts receivable of GBX is estimated to be 98% realizable
b. Interest at 15% on notes receivable amounting to P200,000 dated April 1, 2007
should be accrued and interest at 12% on the balance of the notes dated February
1, 2007. (use exact days)
c. The inventory of JVC should be valued at P120,000, while P18,000 of the inventory
of GBX is considered worthless.
d. 4/5 of the prepaid rent has expired.
e. The building is over depreciated by P12,000.
f. The equipment is to be valued at P515,000.
g. Interest at 10% on notes payable dated May 1, 2007 should be accrued. (use exact
days)
h. GBX has office supplies on hand which have been charged to expense amounting to
P8,000. These are still to be used by the partnership.
i. Accrued expense of P6,000 is to be recognized in the books of JVC.
After formation, the new capital of the partnership is based on the adjusted capital
balance of JVC, so that GBX may either withdraw or invest additional cash to make the
partners’ capital balance in proportionate to their profits and losses ratio.
100% Total 4,493,428 4,252,475 0 1. Total CC=Total AC
2. Each Partner's AC=Each Partner's CC 3. No Bonus; No Goodwill
4. Additional Investment or Withdrawal of Assets
Net Assets 4,493,428 JVC, Capital 2,551,485 GBX, Capital 1,941,943 # GBX, Capital 240,953 Net Assets 240,953 #
Agreed Capital Not Given, Bonus Method Capital Interest Partners Unadjusted CC Final CC Bonus 60% JVC 2,551,485 2,551,485 144,572 40% GBX 1,941,943 1,941,943 (144,572) 100% Total 4,493,428 4,493,428 0 1. Total CC=Total AC
2. Some Partner's CC > Their AC 3. Yes Bonus; No Goodwill
4. No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of Assets
Net Assets 4,493,428 JVC, Capital 2,551,485 GBX, Capital 1,941,943 # GBX, Capital 144,572 JVC, Capital 144,572 #
Agreed Capital Not Given, Goodwill Method Capital Interest Partners Unadjusted CC Final CC Bonus 60% JVC 2,551,485 2,551,485 0 40% GBX 1,941,943 1,941,943 0 100% Total 4,493,428 4,493,428 0 1. Total CC<Total AC
2. Each Partner's CC <= Their AC 3. No Bonus; Yes Goodwill
4. No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of Assets 5. Goodwill=Total AC-Total CC Net Assets 4,493,428 JVC, Capital 2,551,485 GBX, Capital 1,941,943 # Goodwill 361,430 JVC, Capital 361,430 0 0 0 0
Add'l Inv't/ Withdrawal 0
0
(240,953.00)
Partneship Formation is basically the same with Sole Proprietorship. ASSETS are DEBITED at FMV contributed to the Business, LIABILITIES assumed by the business are CREDITED at FMV also. Instead of CREDITING one CAPITAL account only, TWO or more CAPITAL accounts are CREDITED for their individual net contribution. Then, CAPITAL accounts are just adjusted to conform with their
Instructions: Populate the table with the figures given in the problem. Then, based from which method is to be used (Exact,Bonus,GW, combined Bonus & GW), work your way to compute for the missing figures using Soduko Style, by following the characteristics of each Method. Then, when the table is populated, all you need to do is journalized the datas from Column "Initial CC" upto "Agreed Capital".
Relevant Capital Interest
. Each Partner's AC= Total AC x Capital Interest Ratio
. If silent, Capital Interest Ratio is not equal to P&L%
Agreed Capital Not Given
. Method Given or Implied
Agreed Capital Given
Exact Method
Bonus Method
Goodwill Method
Goodwill Method "trial and error"
1. Total CC<Total AC
2. Each Partner's CC <= Their AC
3. No Bonus; Yes Goodwill
4. No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of
Assets
5. Goodwill=Total AC-Total CC
Combined Bonus & Goodwill Method
1. Total CC<Total AC
2. Some Partner's CC >Their AC
3. Yes Bonus; Yes Goodwill
4. No Additional Investment or Withdrawal of
Assets
5. Goodwill=Total AC-Total CC
Review Home
I
On June 1, 2007, JVC and GBX decided to pool their assets and form a partnership.
After the formation the partners will participate in the profits and loss ratio of 60% and
40% for JVC and GBX, respectively. The balance sheet on June 1 before the
adjustments were as follows:
JVC
GBX
Cash
P198,000
P316,800
Accounts receivable
1,296,000
1,440,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts
( 32,400)
( 36,000)
Notes receivable
360,000
-
Merchandise inventory
115,200
108,000
Prepaid rent
-
36,000
Building
720,000
Accumulated depreciation
( 72,000)
Equipment
576,000
Accumulated depreciation
__________
( 43,200)
Total assets
P2,584,800
P2,397,600
Accounts payable
P 36,000
P 43,200
Note payable
360,000
Capital
2,548,800
1,994,400
P2,584,800
P2,397,600
The firm is to take over business assets and assume business liabilities. Capitals are to
be based on net assets transferred after the following adjustments:
a. 4% of the accounts receivable of JVC may prove to be uncollectible while the
accounts receivable of GBX is estimated to be 98% realizable
b. Interest at 15% on notes receivable amounting to P200,000 dated April 1, 2007
should be accrued and interest at 12% on the balance of the notes dated February
1, 2007. (use exact days)
c. The inventory of JVC should be valued at P120,000, while P18,000 of the inventory
of GBX is considered worthless.
d. 4/5 of the prepaid rent has expired.
e. The building is over depreciated by P12,000.
f. The equipment is to be valued at P515,000.
g. Interest at 10% on notes payable dated May 1, 2007 should be accrued. (use exact
days)
h. GBX has office supplies on hand which have been charged to expense amounting to
P8,000. These are still to be used by the partnership.
i. Accrued expense of P6,000 is to be recognized in the books of JVC.
After formation, the new capital of the partnership is based on the adjusted capital
balance of JVC, so that GBX may either withdraw or invest additional cash to make the
partners’ capital balance in proportionate to their profits and losses ratio.
All those in Red Ink were computed using Soduko Style of solving either by Squeeze or by working backwards or by merely following the logic of the Concepts/Notes 0 2,551,485 0 1,700,990 0 1,800,000 Goodwill AC 6,572.00 4,500,000 6,572.00 2,700,000 0 4,493,428 AC Goodwill 0 1,941,943 Goodwill AC 0 2,551,485
I
On June 1, 2007, JVC and GBX decided to pool their assets and form a partnership.
After the formation the partners will participate in the profits and loss ratio of 60% and
40% for JVC and GBX, respectively. The balance sheet on June 1 before the
adjustments were as follows:
JVC
GBX
Cash
P198,000
P316,800
Accounts receivable
1,296,000
1,440,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts
( 32,400)
( 36,000)
Notes receivable
360,000
-
Merchandise inventory
115,200
108,000
Prepaid rent
-
36,000
Building
720,000
Accumulated depreciation
( 72,000)
Equipment
576,000
Accumulated depreciation
__________
( 43,200)
Total assets
P2,584,800
P2,397,600
Accounts payable
P 36,000
P 43,200
Note payable
360,000
Capital
2,548,800
1,994,400
P2,584,800
P2,397,600
The firm is to take over business assets and assume business liabilities. Capitals are to
be based on net assets transferred after the following adjustments:
a. 4% of the accounts receivable of JVC may prove to be uncollectible while the
accounts receivable of GBX is estimated to be 98% realizable
b. Interest at 15% on notes receivable amounting to P200,000 dated April 1, 2007
should be accrued and interest at 12% on the balance of the notes dated February
1, 2007. (use exact days)
c. The inventory of JVC should be valued at P120,000, while P18,000 of the inventory
of GBX is considered worthless.
d. 4/5 of the prepaid rent has expired.
e. The building is over depreciated by P12,000.
f. The equipment is to be valued at P515,000.
g. Interest at 10% on notes payable dated May 1, 2007 should be accrued. (use exact
days)
h. GBX has office supplies on hand which have been charged to expense amounting to
P8,000. These are still to be used by the partnership.
i. Accrued expense of P6,000 is to be recognized in the books of JVC.
After formation, the new capital of the partnership is based on the adjusted capital
balance of JVC, so that GBX may either withdraw or invest additional cash to make the
partners’ capital balance in proportionate to their profits and losses ratio.
361,429.50 4,854,858 361,429.50 2,912,915 - 1,941,943 0 4,493,428 Goodwill AC 0 2,696,057 0 1,797,371 0 4,252,475 Goodwill AC
Given
Goodwill Method
Combined Bonus & GW
Method
Partnership Operations
Instructions: Follow the graph. Populate the table with the figures given in the problem. Then, work your way to the answer using Soduko Style by following the Concepts given in the Notes.
PL% PL% PL%
P1 P2 P3
Salaries + + +
% Interest + + +
Bonus + + +
Remainder Squeeze x P1PL% Squeeze x P2PL% Squeeze x P3PL%
Total P1 NI (NL) P2 NI (NL) P3 NI (NL)
NOTE: Salaries, Interest on Capital, and Bonus are not expenses of the Partnership, rather it's just an allocation of Net Income. So, if silent, Partnership Net Income means Income before Salaries, Interest and Bonus.
Profit
There's Agreement as to Profit Allocation
(Follow Agreement)
1. Salaries (if silent as to whether salaries is
annual or mthly, don't multiply or divide by
mths anymore)
2. Interest (if silent based on Original Capital
Contribution [ or 2Beg Cap, or 3End Cap, or
4Ave Cap]; must be proportionate to the
period invested)
3. Bonus (no negative Bonus, EVER)
4. Remainder (if silent based on Original
Capital Contribution [or 2Beg Cap, or 3End
Cap, or 4Ave Cap] even if there's Loss Ratio);
5. In US (If silent as to remainder, Equally,
even if there's Loss Ratio)
No Agreement as to Profit Allocation
1. Based on Original Capital Contribution (or
2Beg Cap, or 3End Cap, or 4Ave Cap) even if
there's Loss Ratio
Instructions: Follow the graph. Populate the table with the figures given in the problem. Then, work your way to the answer using Soduko Style by following the Concepts given in the Notes. 100% Total Total Salaries Total Interest Total Bonus Squeeze NI or (NL) Salaries, Interest on Capital, and Bonus are not expenses of the Partnership, rather
Profit and Loss Allocation
Loss
No Agreement as to Profit Allocation
. Based on Original Capital Contribution (or
Ave Cap) even if
. in US, Equally, even if there Loss Ratio
No Agreement as to Loss Allocation
1. Follow Profit Ratio
2. If no Profit Ratio, based on Original Capital
Contribution (or
4Ave Cap)
3. in US, Follow Proft Ratio. If no Profit Ratio,
Equally.
There's Agreement as to Loss Allocation
(Follow Agreement)
1. Salaries (if silent as to whether salaries is
annual or mthly, don't multiply or divide by
mths anymore)
2. Interest (if silent based on Original Capital
Contribution [ or 2Beg Cap, or 3End Cap, or
4Ave Cap]; must be proportionate to the
period invested)
3. No Bonus (no negative Bonus, EVER)
4. Remainder (if silent, follow Profit ratio. If
no Profit Ratio, based on Original Capital
Contribution [or 2Beg Cap, or 3End Cap, or
4Ave Cap])
5. In US (If silent as to remainder, Follow
Profit Ratio. If no Profit Ratio, Equally)
P2 Review Home
No Agreement as to Loss Allocation
. Follow Profit Ratio
. If no Profit Ratio, based on Original Capital
Contribution (or 2Beg Cap, or 3End Cap, or
Partnership Dissolution
Instructions: Follow the graph. Populate the table with the figures given in the problem. Then, work your way to the answer using Soduko Style by following the Concepts given in the Notes.
Admission of a New Partner
New Partner Purchase Interest from Old
Partners
No Implied Goodwill
1. Transfer of Capital Only
OP, Cap PI purch
NP, Cap PI purch
#
2. Ignore Difference between
Amount Paid & Capital
Transferred (PI purch)
Implied Goodwill or Stated
Increase in Assets
1. First, recognize increase in
Assets or Goodwill
GW/Assets Amt
OP1, Cap Amtx%
OP2, Cap Amtx%
OP3, Cap Amtx%
#
GW=Amt Paid-PI Purchased
PL%
Inc. Assets=Amt Paid-PI Purch
PL%
2. Then, Amt Paid=PI Purch
3.Transfer of Capital
OP, Cap Amt Paid
NP, Cap Amt Paid
#
LEGENDS:
OP = Old Partners
NP = New Partner
PI Purch = Amount of Partners Interest Purchased
GW = Goodwill
CC = Contributed Capital
TCC = Total Contributed Capital
AC = Agreed Capital
TAC = Total Agreed Capital
PGW = Partial Goodwill Method
PWDA = Partial Write Down of Assets Method
TGW = Total Goodwill Method
Instructions: Follow the graph. Populate the table with the figures given in the problem. Then, work your way to the answer using Soduko Style by following the Concepts given in the Notes.
Partnership Dissolution
Admission of a New Partner
New Partner Invest in
Partnership
Same with Partnership
Formation
Retiring Partner Sold Interest to
New or Remaining Partner
Same with Purchase of Interest
from a Partner
Retirement/Death of a Partner
Retiring Partner Withdraw
Assets from Partnership
Partnership Liquidation
Instructions: Populate the table with the figures given in the problem. Then, work your way to the answer using Soduko Style by following the Concepts given in the Notes.
Cash + Non-Cash = Liabilities +
Balance B4 Closing I/S Debit Bal Debit Bal = Credit Bal
Inc/Dec in Assets/Liabilities Value + (-) = (-) +
Sale of Assets Gain/(Loss) + (-) =
Liquidating Expenses (-) =
Restricted Cash (for future liq. Exp) (-) =
Distribution of Net Income/(Net Loss) =
Pay Creditors (-) = (-)
Balance B4 Settlement Debit Bal 0 = 0
Absorb Insolv't Prtnr w/ Dr Bal =
Balance Debit Bal 0 = 0
Addt'l Invstmnt by Solvnt Prtnr w/ Dr Bal + =
Balance Debit Bal 0 = 0
Settlement (-) =
Zero 0 0 = 0
Note1: Increases/Decreases in Assets/Liabilities are closed first to Income Summary account, if any. Otherwise, it may be charged direclty to Partner's Capital accounts according to their PL%. Note2: Gain/Loss on Sale of Non-Cash Assets are closed first to Income Summary account, if any. Otherwise, it may be charged direclty to Partner's Capital accounts according to their PL%.
Note2: Any UNSOLD assets are all considered LOSS until SOLD, unless a partner is willing to accept something Non-Cash instead of CASH in settlement of his/her account. In this case, Debit the Partners capital account instead of CASH. Note3: Liquidating Expenses are closed first to Income Summary account, if any. Otherwise, it may be charged direclty to Partner's Capital accounts according to their PL%.
Note3a: Restricted Cash are cash reserves for future liquidating expenses. This means that the available cash of the Partnership will not entirely be distributed to the partners. Problems involving restricted cash should give the amount of cash for distribution to partners.
Note4: The Total Balance of Income Summary account is allocated to Partner's capital accounts according on their PL%.
Note5: When the problem is silent, partners are assumed Insolvent. However, be careful when the problem implies that the partner is solvent. (e.g. When a partner with debit balance is not absorbed by the remaining partners means that the partner with debit balance invested, so solvent.) Note5: Assuming P1-Credit Balance, P2-Debit Balance-Solvent, P3-Debit Balance-Insolvent
Note6: The Debit Balance in the Capital account of an Insolvent Partner will be absorbed by the remaining partners according to the remaining partner's PL%
Note7: The Solvent Partner with Debit Balance will invest cash for the amount of his/her deficiency.(unless the other remaining partner is willing to accept Non-cash in settlement of his account). Note8: The remaining cash (Non-cash if the remaining partner accepts) will be used to settle the capital balances of the remaining partners.
Note9: Loans from/to Partners are not Liabilities. Instead, they are offset to to the Capital Accounts of Partners.
Sample 1:
Capital Accounts B4 Settlement
Repeat Steps 1 to 2 until there are no more
Partner with a debit balance
Credit Balance
Step3. Settle the remaining Cash to the
partner with credit balance.
Insolvent
Step1. The debit balance in the capital
account of the insolvent partner must be
absorbed by the remaining partners
according to the remaining partner's PL%.
QQ, RR and SS decided to dissolve the partnership on July 31, 2007. Their capital
balances and profit ratio on this date follow:
Capital Balances
Profit Ratio
QQ P280,000 25%
RR 360,000 30%
SS 160,000 45%
The net loss from January 1 to July 31, 2007 is P60,000. Also, on this date, cash and
liabilities are P170,000 and P290,000 respectively. Which of the following is
inconsistent with the result of the partnership liquidation if RR received P309,000 in full
settlement of his interest in the firm
All in Black Ink are Given in the Problem.
All those in Red Ink were computed using Soduko Style of solving either by Squeeze or by working backwards or by merely following the logic of the Concepts/Notes
Cash + Non-Cash = Liabilities +
Balance befor closing I/S 170,000 860,000 = 290,000 Sale of Assets (Loss) 750,000 (860,000) =
Distribution of Net Loss =
Pay Creditors (290,000) = (290,000)
Balance B4 Settlement 630,000 0 = 0
Absorb Insolv't Prtnr w/ Dr Bal =
Balance 630,000 0 = 0
Addt'l Invstmnt by Solvnt Prtnr w/ Dr Bal + =
Balance 630,000 0 = 0
Settlement (630,000) =
Zero - 0 = 0
QQ, RR and SS decided to dissolve the partnership on July 31, 2007. Their capital
balances and profit ratio on this date follow:
Capital Balances
Profit Ratio
QQ P280,000 25%
RR 360,000 30%
SS 160,000 45%
The net loss from January 1 to July 31, 2007 is P60,000. Also, on this date, cash and
liabilities are P170,000 and P290,000 respectively. Which of the following is
inconsistent with the result of the partnership liquidation if RR received P309,000 in full
settlement of his interest in the firm
Instructions: Populate the table with the figures given in the problem. Then, work your way to the answer using Soduko Style by following the Concepts given in the Notes.
PL% PL% PL%
P1 P2 P3 + I/S
Credit Bal Credit Bal Credit Bal Credit Bal
+ (-) Note1
+ (-) Note2
(-) Note3
(-) Note 3a
+ (-) + (-) + (-) (-) + Note4
Credit Bal Debit Bal Debit Bal 0 Note5
(-) (-) + Note6
Credit Bal Debit Bal 0 0
+ Note7
Credit Bal 0 0 0
(-) Note8
0 0 0 0
Note1: Increases/Decreases in Assets/Liabilities are closed first to Income Summary account, if any. Otherwise, it may be charged direclty to Partner's Capital accounts according to their PL%. Note2: Gain/Loss on Sale of Non-Cash Assets are closed first to Income Summary account, if any. Otherwise, it may be charged direclty to Partner's Capital accounts according to their PL%.
Note2: Any UNSOLD assets are all considered LOSS until SOLD, unless a partner is willing to accept something Non-Cash instead of CASH in settlement of his/her account. In this case, Debit the Partners capital account instead of CASH. Note3: Liquidating Expenses are closed first to Income Summary account, if any. Otherwise, it may be charged direclty to Partner's Capital accounts according to their PL%.
Note3a: Restricted Cash are cash reserves for future liquidating expenses. This means that the available cash of the Partnership will not entirely be distributed to the partners. Problems involving restricted cash Note4: The Total Balance of Income Summary account is allocated to Partner's capital accounts according on their PL%.
Note5: When the problem is silent, partners are assumed Insolvent. However, be careful when the problem implies that the partner is solvent. (e.g. When a partner with debit balance is not absorbed by the remaining partners means that the partner with debit balance invested, so solvent.) Note6: The Debit Balance in the Capital account of an Insolvent Partner will be absorbed by the remaining partners according to the remaining partner's PL%
Note7: The Solvent Partner with Debit Balance will invest cash for the amount of his/her deficiency.(unless the other remaining partner is willing to accept Non-cash in settlement of his account). Note8: The remaining cash (Non-cash if the remaining partner accepts) will be used to settle the capital balances of the remaining partners.
Note9: Loans from/to Partners are not Liabilities. Instead, they are offset to to the Capital Accounts of Partners.
Debit Balance
Solvent
Step2. A solvent partner with debit balance
must invest additional cash for his/her
deficiency (non-cash if the other remaining
partner is willing to accept non-cash in
settlement of his account)
QQ, RR and SS decided to dissolve the partnership on July 31, 2007. Their capital
balances and profit ratio on this date follow:
Capital Balances
Profit Ratio
QQ P280,000 25%
RR 360,000 30%
SS 160,000 45%
The net loss from January 1 to July 31, 2007 is P60,000. Also, on this date, cash and
liabilities are P170,000 and P290,000 respectively. Which of the following is
inconsistent with the result of the partnership liquidation if RR received P309,000 in full
settlement of his interest in the firm
All those in Red Ink were computed using Soduko Style of solving either by Squeeze or by working backwards or by merely following the logic of the Concepts/Notes 25% 30% 45% QQ RR SS + I/S 280,000 360,000 160,000 (60,000) (110,000) Squeeze (19,125) (51,000) (76,500) (170,000) work backwards 260,875
309,000 83,500 0 All credit Balance, so just settle with cash
(-) (-) + 260,875 309,000 83,500 0 + 260,875 309,000 83,500 0 (260,875) (309,000) (83,500) - - 0
QQ, RR and SS decided to dissolve the partnership on July 31, 2007. Their capital
balances and profit ratio on this date follow:
Capital Balances
Profit Ratio
QQ P280,000 25%
RR 360,000 30%
SS 160,000 45%
The net loss from January 1 to July 31, 2007 is P60,000. Also, on this date, cash and
liabilities are P170,000 and P290,000 respectively. Which of the following is
inconsistent with the result of the partnership liquidation if RR received P309,000 in full
settlement of his interest in the firm
Note2: Any UNSOLD assets are all considered LOSS until SOLD, unless a partner is willing to accept something Non-Cash instead of CASH in settlement of his/her account. In this case, Debit the Partners capital account instead of CASH.
Corporate Liquidation
Step 1: Adjust the Assets and Liabilities to FMV (Note: If Silent, The FMV of GW and PREPAYMENTS are Zero (0))
Step 2: Identify whether the Corporation is insolvent (Assets FMV<Liab FMV). If no, don't proceed anymore. If yes, check whether it will ReOrg/Restructure/Liquidate. Step 3: If it will Liquidate, Classify the Assets and Liabilities according to "as shown below".
Step 4: Populate the table. Compute for Estimated Deficiency, Estimated Recovery Rate, and the Estimated amount to be paid to the Creditors.
Classification of Assets
Matched Assets and Liabilities (Assets that are pledged to Laibilities or Liabilities that are Secured by Assets) A>L Assets = Assets pledged to Fully Secured Creditors (APFSC); Liabilities = Fully Secured Creditors (FSC) A<L Assets = Assets pledged to Partially Secured Creditors (APPSC); Liabilities = Partially Secured Creditors (PSC) Unmatched Assets and Liabilities
Assets = Unpledged Assets
Liabilities = Unsecured Creditors or Priority Creditors
Assets @ FMV Liab @ FMV
Free Assets = Unsecured Credits + Priority Credits +
APFSC-FSC PSC-APPSC
Unpledged Assets Unsecured Creditors
Priority Creditors
Amt = Amt + Amt +
Recovery Rate = Available Assets / Unsecured Credits Available Assets = Free Portion - Priority Credits Note1: Alternative Computation of Deficiency
SHE BV
Inc/Dec in Assets/Liabilities + (-) Deficiency
Note2: Priority Creditors = Salaries and Wages Payable, Taxes Payable, Deferred Revenue, Accrued Liquidating Exp. Note3: Liquidating Expense = Add to Priority Creditors if still unpaid or Deduct to cash/unpledged assets if paid Note4: Interest Follow Principal Concept
Note5: Amount Paid to Creditors
Fully Secured Creditors = 100% of Amount owed to them
Priority Creditors = 100% of Amount owed to them (Provided there is sufficient Free Assets/Free Portion) Partially Secured Creditors = 100% of APPSC + ((PSC-APPSC) x Recovery Rate)
Unsecured Creditors = Unsecured Creditors x Recovery Rate
Note6: What is shown above are just ESTIMATES. When actual Liquidation occurs, the following Entries will be made by Trustee to Compute for ESTATE EQUITY (DEFICIT) Trustee Assume Possession of Assets and Liab of Corporation
Assets BV
Liabilites BV
Estate Equity (instead of SHE) Balancing Figure #
Convert Assets to Cash
Insolvent Corporation
Assets FMV < Liabilities FMV
Reorg/Debt Restructure
Prac 1
Corporate Liquidation
P2
Cash Amt Estate Equity Balancing Figure
Assets BV
# Pay Creditors
Liabilities BV
Estate Equity Balancing Figure
Cash Amt
#
Step 1: Adjust the Assets and Liabilities to FMV (Note: If Silent, The FMV of GW and PREPAYMENTS are Zero (0))
Step 2: Identify whether the Corporation is insolvent (Assets FMV<Liab FMV). If no, don't proceed anymore. If yes, check whether it will ReOrg/Restructure/Liquidate. Step 4: Populate the table. Compute for Estimated Deficiency, Estimated Recovery Rate, and the Estimated amount to be paid to the Creditors.
Assets = Assets pledged to Fully Secured Creditors (APFSC); Liabilities = Fully Secured Creditors (FSC) Assets = Assets pledged to Partially Secured Creditors (APPSC); Liabilities = Partially Secured Creditors (PSC)
SHE (Deficiency)
Squeeze
Note2: Priority Creditors = Salaries and Wages Payable, Taxes Payable, Deferred Revenue, Accrued Liquidating Exp.
Priority Creditors = 100% of Amount owed to them (Provided there is sufficient Free Assets/Free Portion)
Note6: What is shown above are just ESTIMATES. When actual Liquidation occurs, the following Entries will be made by Trustee to Compute for ESTATE EQUITY (DEFICIT)
Corporate Liquidation
Prac 2
P2 Review Home
Long Term Construction Contracts
ENTRIES:Construction Costs Incurred
CIP Amt
Cash Amt
#
Allocate Cost & Revenue to Period (Systematic Allocation Principle)
CIP RGP Current Year
Cost of Construction Amt
Construction Revenue Balancing Figure
# Close I/S accounts
Construction Revenue Amt
Cost of Construction Amt
Construction Gross Profit Balancing Figure #
Billing to Customers
A/R Amt
Progress Billing Amt
# Collection of A/R
Cash Amt
A/R Amt
#
When Construction is completed and Inventory Turned over to Customer
Progress Billing Amt
CIP Amt
#
Debit
Beginning Prior Year Cost Incurred to Date + PY RGP to Date
Squeeze Current Year Cost Incurred + CY RGP
Ending Current Year Cost Incurred to Date + CY RGP to Date
CIP
Contract Price > Estimated Total Cost
(if Silent) Percentage of Completion
Method
Note: RGP to Date, ETC, and % of Completion should be recomputed each year on the Principle of Change in Estimate
(if Silent) Percentage of Completion
Method
RGP to Date = %Completion x (CP-ETC)
%Completion=Cost Incurred to Date
ETC
%Completion=CIP to Date
CP
%Completion=Const'n Revenue to date
CP
ETC = Cost Incurred to Date +Estimated Cost
to Complete
RGP to Date = 0, until completed
RGP to Date = 100% when completed
LEGENDS:
CIP = Costruction In Progress
RGP = Realized Gross Profit
PB = Progress Billing
PY = Prior Year
CY = Current Year
ETC = Estimated Total Cost
CP Contract Price
"Change In Estimate Principle"
Current Year RGP to Date - Prior Year RGP to Date
CIP>PB Current Asset Shown as Net of CIP
CIP<PB Current Liability
Credit Prior Year Cost Incurred to Date + PY RGP to Date
Current Year Cost Incurred + CY RGP Current Year Cost Incurred to Date + CY RGP to Date
CIP
RGP to Date
Contact Price < Estimated Total Cost
RGP to Date=CP-ETC
) Profit Method
Note: RGP to Date, ETC, and % of Completion should be recomputed each year on the Principle of Change in Estimate
, until completed
Installment Sales - deferring of realization of gross profit until collection
Regular Sales - After Point of Sale and Collection of Receivables are reasonably assuredInstallment Sales - After Point of Sale but Collection of Receivables are not reasonably assured
1/1/2008 ABC Company Sold merchandise on account for P105,000, with cost of P80,000. Trade-In was accepted with allowance of 15,000 and NRV of 10,000
Regular Sales Installment Sales
A/R 105,000 A/R-Installment 08
Sales 105,000 Sales -Installment 08
#
Inventory-Trade In 10,000 Inventory-Trade In
Sales Discount 5,000 Sales -Installment 08
A/R 15,000 A/R-Installment 08
#
COS 80,000 COS -Installment 08
Invt'y 80,000 Invt'y
#
Sales 100,000 Sales -Installment 08
COS 80,000 COS -Installment 08
GP 20,000 DGP -Installment 08
#
Note: Gross Profit is deferred until collection of Installment Receivable
6/6/2008 Collected 40,000 of the receivable.
Regular Sales Installment Sales
Cash 42,000 Cash
A/R 42,000 A/R-Installment 08
#
Cash 4,000 Cash
Interest Income 4,000 Interest Income
#
DGP -Installment 08 RGP -Installment 08
Note: Gross Profit is realized when Installment receivable is collected.
7/1/2008 Write-off 10,000 of the receivable
A 4 BD 10,500 DGP -Installment 08
A/R 10,500 Bad Debts
GPR = GP/Sales = GPR on Cost/(100%+GPR on Cost) = DGP/Accts
GPR should be computed after Trade-In Transaction
# A/R-Installment 08
Note: Since Installment Sales already anticipates the non-collection, there is no need to set up allowance. As accounts are written off, the receivable less with DGP is charged to Bad Debts
8/1/2008 Repossesed merchandise because of non-collection. Related receivable is 15,000. NRV of inventory is 5,000
Invty - Repossesed 5,000 Invty - Repossesed
Loss on Repossesion 10,750 DGP -Installment 08
A/R 15,750 Loss on Repossesion
# A/R-Installment 08
Net Realizable Value = Selling Price - MarkUp - Cost to Recondition
Reminders:
GPR should be computed after Trade-In Transactions
RGP & GPR should be computed separately each year, because mark-up percent varries each year
"Collection" are Cash Collections of Receivables, exc Interest ,PlusTrade-In Collections (NRV)
Interest income should be excluded from "Collection of Receivable" in the formula of RGP
SPECIAL PROBLEMS: P2 and P1 combined: Installment Sales with notes receivable issued with Stated Interest Rate less than the Market/Effective Interest Rate
Receivable = Face Value Int. Re'd = Int. Income
Int. Received = Face Value x SR Int. Inc. = Book Value x SR
Collection of Principal = Collection of Principal Collection of Interest = Collection of interest
Assuming Installment Sales Assuming Installment Sales
RGP = Collection of Principal x GPR RGP = Collection of Principal x GPR
Sales Down payment + FV of Receivble Sales
COS (xx) COS
DGP GPR DGP
e.g.
On 1/1/08 ABC sells on installment basis. It sold P1,100,000 worth of merchandise by accepting P100,000 cash and 2 yrs 12% note on the balance. The cost of the product was 700,000. First installment was at 12/31/08 when ABC Collected P500,000 excluding the downpayment and interest. Situation 1: Market Interest rate is 12% (SR=ER)
Cash 100,000 Downpayment
N/R -Installment 1,000,000 Face Value
Sales - Installment 1,100,000
#
COS -Intallment 700,000
Invty 700,000
#
When notes are accepted for Installment Sales, consideration for interest rate must be taken into account. If
the Stated interest rate is greater than or equal to market interest rate, there is no complex problem because
the collection for the principal and interest is separate. So, the Realized Gross Profit is simply computed by GPR
x Collection of Principal (remember, "collection" excludes interest). However, if the stated interest rate is zero or
less than market interest rate, a problem arises because the collection is combined for Principal and Interest. So,
to compute for Realized Gross Profit is computed by GPR x "Collection-interest income".
Note: to master this topic, you must study time value of money.
Valuation of Receivable
Sales - Installment 1,100,000
COS -Intallment 800,000
DGP -Installment 300,000
# GPR--- 27%
Cash - Principal 500,000
Cash -for interest 120,000 Face Value x SR or 1,000,000 x 12%
N/R -Installment 500,000
Interest Income 120,000 Face Value x SR or 1,000,000 x 12%
#
DGP -Installment 163,636
RGP -Installment 163,636 collection of principal x GPR or (500,000+100,000) x 27%
#
Situation 2: Market Interest rate is 10% (SR>ER) same as situation 1 (as in no difference, ever!)
Situation 3: Assuming the note is non interest bearing, SR = 0%, and Market Interest rate is 14% (SR<ER). PV factor 1.6467
Cash 100,000 Downpayment
N/R -Installment 823,350 Present Value or 500,000 x 1.6467
Sales - Installment 923,350 # COS -Intallment 700,000 Invty 700,000 # Sales - Installment 923,350 COS -Intallment 800,000 DGP -Installment 123,350 # GPR--- 13%
Cash - Principal 500,000 Given
Cash -for interest - 1,000,000 x 0%
N/R -Installment 384,731 Balancing Figure or Total Collection - interest income
Interest Income 115,269 Book VAlue x ER or 823,350 x 14%
#
DGP -Installment 64,755
RGP -Installment 64,755 Collection x GPR or ((100,000+384,731) x 13%)
#
Situation 4: Stated Rate is 12%. Market Interest rate is 14% (SR<ER).
Cash 100,000 Downpayment
N/R -Installment 974,784 Present Value of Principal and interest
Sales - Installment 1,074,784 # COS -Intallment 700,000 Invty 700,000 # Sales - Installment 1,074,784 COS -Intallment 800,000 DGP -Installment 274,784 # GPR--- 26%
Cash - Principal 500,000 Given
Cash -for interest 120,000 Face Value x SR or 1,000,000 x 12%
N/R -Installment 483,530 Balancing Figure or Total Collection - interest income
Interest Income 136,470 Book VAlue x ER or 974,784 x 14%
#
DGP -Installment 149,188
RGP -Installment 149,188 Collection x GPR or ((100,000+483,530) x 26%)
Installment Sales - deferring of realization of gross profit until collection
ABC Company Sold merchandise on account for P105,000, with cost of P80,000. Trade-In was accepted with allowance of 15,000 and NRV of 10,000 Installment Sales
A/R-Installment 08 105,000
Sales -Installment 08 105,000
#
Inventory-Trade In 10,000 NRV of Inventories received from Trade-In
Sales -Installment 08 5,000 Balancing Figure
A/R-Installment 08 15,000 Trade-In Allowance
# COS -Installment 08 80,000 80,000 # Sales -Installment 08 100,000 100% COS -Installment 08 80,000 80%
DGP -Installment 08 20,000 20% Gross Profit Rate
#
Gross Profit is deferred until collection of Installment Receivable
Installment Sales 40,000 A/R-Installment 08 40,000 # 4,000 Interest Income 4,000 # DGP -Installment 08 10,000
RGP -Installment 08 10,000 (Collection of Principal Receivable, exc Interest + NRV of Trade-In) x GPR #
Gross Profit is realized when Installment receivable is collected.
DGP -Installment 08 2,000 Amount Writen-Off x GPR
8,000
Balancing Figure
GPR = GP/Sales = GPR on Cost/(100%+GPR on Cost) = DGP/Accts Rec
In Transaction
In Inventories) x Gross Profit Rate
P2 Review Home
A/R-Installment 08 10,000 given #
Since Installment Sales already anticipates the non-collection, there is no need to set up allowance. As accounts are written off, the receivable less with DGP is charged to Bad Debts
Repossesed merchandise because of non-collection. Related receivable is 15,000. NRV of inventory is 5,000
Invty - Repossesed 5,000 NRV of Repossesed Inventories
DGP -Installment 08 3,000 Repossesed Receivable x GPR
Loss on Repossesion 7,000 Balancing Figure
A/R-Installment 08 15,000 Repossesed Receivable
#
Cost to Recondition - Cost to Sell
up percent varries each year
In Collections (NRV)
Interest income should be excluded from "Collection of Receivable" in the formula of RGP
SPECIAL PROBLEMS: P2 and P1 combined: Installment Sales with notes receivable issued with Stated Interest Rate less than the Market/Effective Interest Rate
Receivable = Present Value Int. Received is not = Int. Income Int. Received = Face Value x SR Int. Inc. = Book Value x ER
Collection of Principal = Total Collection - interest income or
Collection of Principal = Collection on Principal - (interest income-interest received) Assuming Installment Sales
RGP = Collection of Principal x GPR
Down payment + PV of Receivble Cash
(xx) Receivable GPR Sales #upon sale Cash Cash Int. Income Receivable #upon collection DGP RGP #upon collection On 1/1/08 ABC sells on installment basis. It sold P1,100,000 worth of merchandise by accepting P100,000 cash and 2 yrs 12% note on the balance.
The cost of the product was 700,000. First installment was at 12/31/08 when ABC Collected P500,000 excluding the downpayment and interest.
When notes are accepted for Installment Sales, consideration for interest rate must be taken into account. If
the Stated interest rate is greater than or equal to market interest rate, there is no complex problem because
the collection for the principal and interest is separate. So, the Realized Gross Profit is simply computed by GPR
x Collection of Principal (remember, "collection" excludes interest). However, if the stated interest rate is zero or
less than market interest rate, a problem arises because the collection is combined for Principal and Interest. So,
interest income".
Note: to master this topic, you must study time value of money.
Face Value x SR or 1,000,000 x 12% Face Value x SR or 1,000,000 x 12%
collection of principal x GPR or (500,000+100,000) x 27%
Situation 3: Assuming the note is non interest bearing, SR = 0%, and Market Interest rate is 14% (SR<ER). PV factor 1.6467 Present Value or 500,000 x 1.6467
1,000,000 x 0%
Balancing Figure or Total Collection - interest income Book VAlue x ER or 823,350 x 14%
Collection x GPR or ((100,000+384,731) x 13%)
Amount PV factor of 14%
Principal yr 1 500,000 0.8772
Present Value of Principal and interest Principal yr 2 500,000 0.7695
Interest yr 1 120,000 0.8772
Face Value x SR or 1,000,000 x 12%
Balancing Figure or Total Collection - interest income Book VAlue x ER or 974,784 x 14%
NRV of Inventories received from Trade-In
Down Payment PV of Receivable Balancing Figure Int. Received Amt'zn of Principal Int. Income Balancing Figure
(Down Payment+Collection on Receivable) x GPR
PV 438,600 384,750 105,264 46,170 974,784
Franchising
Note1 Continuing Franchise Fee are Recognized as Income when Earned Note2 Continuing Franchise Cost are Recognized as Expense when Incurred Note3 Indirect Franchise Cost are Recognized as Expense when Incurred
Note4 When there's Option to Purchase the Franchisee's Business Initial Franchise Fee is Deferred until the Franchisee's Franchise is repurchased back by the Franchisor. And during the repurchase, the Deferred Initial Franchise Fee is charged to Investment account. All other Franchise Fee and Cost still follows the original treatment.
Franchise Fee
No Substantial Performance Yet
Deferred Method of Accounting
Sales = Initial Franchise Fee
COS = (Direct Franchise Cost)
DGP = Deferred Gross Profit
GP = Zero
Other Inc. = Continuing Franchise Fee
OpEx = (Indirect Franchise Cost)
(Continuing Franchise Cost)
NI = Net Income
Normally, No Continuing Franchise Fee/Cost
and Indirect Franchise Cost yet because
Franchisee has not started operations yet
(If Silent)Collection Reasonably Assured
Accrual Method of Accounting
Sales = Initial Franchise Fee
COS = (Direct Franchise Cost)
GP = Gross Profit
Other Inc. = Continuing Franchise Fee
OpEx = (Indirect Franchise Cost)
(Continuing Franchise Cost)
NI = Net Income
When there's Option to Purchase the Franchisee's Business Initial Franchise Fee is Deferred until the Franchisee's Franchise is repurchased back by the Franchisor. And during the repurchase, the Deferred Initial Franchise Fee is charged to Investment account. All other Franchise Fee and Cost still follows the original treatment.
Franchise Fee
(If Silent) There's Substantial Performance
Already
Franchisee Started Operations already
(If Silent)Collection Reasonably Assured
Accrual Method of Accounting
Sales = Initial Franchise Fee
COS = (Direct Franchise Cost)
GP = Gross Profit
Other Inc. = Continuing Franchise Fee
OpEx = (Indirect Franchise Cost)
(Continuing Franchise Cost)
NI = Net Income
Collection Not Reasonably Assured
Installment Method of Accounting
Sales = Initial Franchise Fee
COS = (Direct Franchise Cost)
DGP = Deferred Gross Profit
GPR xCollection = Gross Profit
Other Inc. = Continuing Franchise Fee
OpEx = (Indirect Franchise Cost)
(Continuing Franchise Cost)
NI = Net Income
P2 Review Home
Cash Down Payment
Receivable (FV of Rec'ble) or (PV of Rec'ble)
Sales Bal. Figure
#
Cash Interest Received (FV of Rec'ble x SR)
Cash Amortization
Interest Income (FV of Rec'ble x SR) or (BV of Rec'ble x ER)
Receivable Bal. Figure Collection on Receivable excluding Interest
#
Valuation of Receivables
Effective Interest Rate <= Stated Interest Rate
Receivable = Face Value of Recivable
Int. Inc. = Int. Rec.
Int. Rec. = Face Value of Rec'ble x Stated Int. Rate
Int. Inc. = Book Value of Rec'ble x Effective Int. Rate
or = Face Value of Rec'ble x Stated Int. Rate
Effective Interest Rate > Stated Interest Rate
Receivable = Book Value of Receivable
Int. Inc. IS NOT = Int. Rec.
Int. Rec. = Face Value of Rec'ble x Stated Int. Rate
Int. Inc. = Book Value of Rec'ble x Effective Int. Rate
(FV of Rec'ble x SR) or (BV of Rec'ble x ER)
Collection on Receivable excluding Interest
Effective Interest Rate <= Stated Interest Rate
Receivable = Face Value of Recivable
Int. Rec. = Face Value of Rec'ble x Stated Int. Rate
Int. Inc. = Book Value of Rec'ble x Effective Int. Rate
or = Face Value of Rec'ble x Stated Int. Rate
Inventory Transfer by HO to Branch at Billed Price (Special Problems)
HO Books Branch Books
Branch 150K Invty/Shipments from HO
Invty/Shipments to Branch 100K Home Office
Unrealized Profit 50K # # Cash Sales # COS Invty #
Unrealized Profit 50K Sales
Realized Profit 50K COS
# Gross Profit
#
When inventories are transferred from HO to Branch at Billed Price, the COST of the inventories transferred by HO is deducted from its CGAS, while its BILLED PRICE is
added to CGAS of Branch. However, the GROSS PROFIT of the HO from this sale is unrealized until the inventories are sold to outsiders by the Branch. Once inventories are sold by the Branch to outsiders, the UNREALIZED GROSS PROFIT should now be recognized as REALIZED. The computation of REALIZED GROSS PROFIT is important to arrive at the TRUE BRANCH INCOME. I have prepared a template to compute for the REALIZED GROSS PROFIT of the Branch which should be added to the FALSE BRANCH INCOME to get the TRUE BRANCH INCOME.
HO HO BRANCH
SALES Amt
BI Amt Amt
PURCH +Amt +Amt
CGAS Amt Amt
Ship to Branch (@ Cost) +@ BP
EI (Amt) (Amt)
COS (Amt)
GP Amt
OPEX (Amt)
Net Income Amt
Realized Gross Profit
HO NET INCOME +
Amt Percent=BPamt/COSTamt Amt
BI from HO
-+Shipments from/to HO/Branch
-=CGAS from HO
-(-) EI from HO
-=COS from HO
-Billed Price Cost
Reciprocal Account
This template is flexible. First, you must understand the relationship among the columns. @BP represents the amount at which the inventories are billed to the Branch. The COST is the
cost of the inventories shipped to the branch. The MARK-UP is the difference between @BP and Cost of the inventories shipped from HO to Branch. The PERCENT is the percent as compared to the COST (ofcourse the cost is always 100% being the basis).
INSTRUCTIONS: When given a problem for this topic. All you have to do is fill up the template with the available datas given in the problem. Then, work your way around the template to arrive at the desired answer for the question in the problem (Suduko Style).
Sample 1:
All in Black Ink are Given in the Problem.
All those in Red Ink were computed using Soduko Style of solving either by Squeeze or by working backwards or by merely following the logic of the Concepts/Notes
Amt Percent Amt
BI from HO
Shipments from HO
59,000
125%CGAS from HO 59,000
EI from HO
(6,000)
COS from HO 53,000 125%
Note: Since what you need is only the Realized Gross Profit, there is no need to finish the entire template
Sales Discount
72,500
Sales Discount(1,470)
Net sales71,030
COS BI-Purch
59,000
EI(6,000)
(53,000) GP 18,030 OPEX(16,500)
Branch Income as far as Branch is concerned 1,530 Realized Gross Profit 10,600
True Branch Income 12,130 Answer D Sample 2:
Billed Price Cost
Problem 4. The Rockwell Company of Makati opened a branch at Cebu on January 1,
2008 to expand the market of its product. Merchandise shipped during 2008 to the
Cebu branch totaled P59,000, and this included a profit of 25% based on cost. At the
end of the year, the inventory was P6,000 at billed price. Sales on account, P72,500;
expenses, P16,500, of which P1,200 were unpaid on December 31, 2008; cash
received from customers on account, P40,000, after allowing cash discounts of P1,470;
cash remitted to the home office during the year, P33,000. What is the income or loss
of the branch during 2008 insofar as the home office is concerned?
A.
P13,600
C. P1,530
B.
P 3,000
D. P12,130
Problem 11. A home office transfers inventory to its branch at a 40% markup. During
2008, shipments to branch account is P1,312,500. At year-end, the home office adjusted
its Allowance for Overvaluation account downward by P325,000. The branch's balance
sheet at the beginning of the year shows P428,750 of inventory acquired from the home
office. How much is the ending inventory per branch books?
A. P806,250
C. P2,266,250
Amt Percent Amt BI from HO
428,750
140% Shipments from HO1,837,500
140%1,312,500
CGAS from HO 2,266,250 EI from HO (1,128,750) answer D COS from HO 1,137,500 140%Note: Since what you need is only the Ending Inventory @BP, there is no need to finish the entire template
Billed Price Cost
Problem 11. A home office transfers inventory to its branch at a 40% markup. During
2008, shipments to branch account is P1,312,500. At year-end, the home office adjusted
its Allowance for Overvaluation account downward by P325,000. The branch's balance
sheet at the beginning of the year shows P428,750 of inventory acquired from the home
office. How much is the ending inventory per branch books?
A. P806,250
C. P2,266,250
Inventory Transfer by HO to Branch at Billed Price (Special Problems)
Invty/Shipments from HO 150K Home Office 150K 150K 150K 150K 150K 150K 150K 0KWhen inventories are transferred from HO to Branch at Billed Price, the COST of the inventories transferred by HO is deducted from its CGAS, while its BILLED PRICE is
added to CGAS of Branch. However, the GROSS PROFIT of the HO from this sale is unrealized until the inventories are sold to outsiders by the Branch. Once inventories are sold by the Branch to outsiders, the UNREALIZED GROSS PROFIT should now be recognized as REALIZED. The computation of REALIZED GROSS PROFIT is important to arrive at the TRUE BRANCH INCOME. I have prepared a template to compute for the REALIZED GROSS PROFIT of the Branch which should be added to the FALSE BRANCH INCOME to get
BRANCH Amt
(Amt) Amt (Amt)
False Branch Income Branch Income as far as Branch is concerned +Realized Gross Profit
True Branch Income = COMBINED NET INCOME
Percent=100% Amt Percent=MUPamt/COSTamt
= = =
= GPR current Yr (FIFO concept)
=
Cost Mark-Up
This template is flexible. First, you must understand the relationship among the columns. @BP represents the amount at which the inventories are billed to the Branch. The COST is the
cost of the inventories shipped to the branch. The MARK-UP is the difference between @BP and Cost of the inventories shipped from HO to Branch. The PERCENT is the percent as compared to INSTRUCTIONS: When given a problem for this topic. All you have to do is fill up the template with the available datas given in the problem. Then, work your way around the template
All those in Red Ink were computed using Soduko Style of solving either by Squeeze or by working backwards or by merely following the logic of the Concepts/Notes
Percent Amt Percent
100% 25%
10,600
25% Note: Since what you need is only the Realized Gross Profit, there is no need to finish the entire template
Cost Mark-Up
Problem 4. The Rockwell Company of Makati opened a branch at Cebu on January 1,
2008 to expand the market of its product. Merchandise shipped during 2008 to the
Cebu branch totaled P59,000, and this included a profit of 25% based on cost. At the
end of the year, the inventory was P6,000 at billed price. Sales on account, P72,500;
expenses, P16,500, of which P1,200 were unpaid on December 31, 2008; cash
received from customers on account, P40,000, after allowing cash discounts of P1,470;
cash remitted to the home office during the year, P33,000. What is the income or loss
of the branch during 2008 insofar as the home office is concerned?
A.
P13,600
C. P1,530
B.
P 3,000
D. P12,130
Problem 11. A home office transfers inventory to its branch at a 40% markup. During
2008, shipments to branch account is P1,312,500. At year-end, the home office adjusted
its Allowance for Overvaluation account downward by P325,000. The branch's balance
sheet at the beginning of the year shows P428,750 of inventory acquired from the home
office. How much is the ending inventory per branch books?
A. P806,250
C. P2,266,250
Percent Amt Percent
100% 40%
100%
325,000
40% Note: Since what you need is only the Ending Inventory @BP, there is no need to finish the entire templateCost Mark-Up
Problem 11. A home office transfers inventory to its branch at a 40% markup. During
2008, shipments to branch account is P1,312,500. At year-end, the home office adjusted
its Allowance for Overvaluation account downward by P325,000. The branch's balance
sheet at the beginning of the year shows P428,750 of inventory acquired from the home
office. How much is the ending inventory per branch books?
A. P806,250
C. P2,266,250
Bal of Unrealized Gross Profit b4 adjustment or Bal of Allowance account b4 adjustments Required End Bal of Unrealized Gross Profit or Adjusted Allowance Account