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Homework #5 Solutions

Q1.

The general solution has the following form

Φ(r ,

θ)=

l=0

(

A

l

r

l

+

B

l

r

ll+1

)

P

l

(

cos

θ)

for

θ>π/

2 .

The potential beneath the disk has the same potential form due to symmetry.

Let's separate the space into two regions:

for

r

≥a

,

Φ(

r ,

θ)=

l=0

B

l

r

ll+1

P

l

(

cos

θ)

and

for

r

<

a

Φ(

r ,θ)=

l=0

A

l

P

l

(

cos

θ)

On the other hand, we are able to derive the potential on the z-axis, which has the following form:

Φ(

r ,

0

)=

Q

2

πϵ

0

a

(

1

+

(

r

a

)

2

r

a

)

Now, we know that the Maclaurin series of

1

+

x

2

=

1

+

n=1

(−

1

)

n

(

2n

3

)! !

(

2n

)! !

x

2n

here

(

2n

3

)

! !=

1

3

5...

⋅(

2n

3

)

and

(

2n

)

!!

=

2

4

6 ...

⋅(

2n

)

1

+

(

r

a

)

=

1

+

n=1

(

(−

1

)

n

(

2n

3

)

! !

(

2n

)! !

(

r

a

)

2n

)

For

r

a

,

Φ(

r ,

0

)=

Q

2

πϵ

0

a

(

r

a

1

+

(

a

r

)

2

r

a

)

, there

Φ(

r ,

0

)=

Q

2

πϵ

0

a

[

r

a

+

r

a

+

r

a

n=0

(

(−

1

)

n

(

2n

3

)! !

(

2n

)! !

(

r

a

)

−2n

)

]

=

Q

2

π ϵ

0

a

n=1

(

(−

1

)

n

(

2n

3

)

! !

(

2n

)

!!

(

r

a

)

−2n+1

)

In the region of

r

a

and

θ>π/

2

,

Φ(r ,

θ)=

Q

2

πϵ

0

a

n=1

(

(−

1

)

n

(

2n

3

)

! !

(

2n

)

!!

(

a

r

)

2n−1
(2)

Likewise, in the region

r

a

and

θ>π/

2 ,

Φ(

r ,

θ)=

Q

2

πϵ

0

a

[

1

r

a

cos

θ+

n=1

(

(−

1

)

n

(

2n

3

)

!!

(

2n

)

! !

(

r

a

)

2n

P

2n

(

cos

θ)

)

]

Q2.

We use the Green function method to solve this problem. Recall that for a point charge within a conducting sphere, the Green function is (see Jackson, page 119)

G

D

=

4

π

l=0

m=−l

l

1

2

l

+

l

[

r

<l

r

l>+1

(

r r '

)

l

b

2l+1

]

Y

lm

*

' ,

ϕ

'

)

Y

lm

,

ϕ)

Use the addition theorem of spherical harmonics

P

l

(

cos

γ)=

4

π

2

l

+

1

m=−l

l

Y

lm*

' ,

ϕ

'

)

Y

lm

,

ϕ)

and consider the symmetry of the problem, the Green function

can be written in terms of Legendre polynomials.

G

D

=

l=0

[

r

<l

r

>l+1

(r r '

)

l

b

2l+1

]

P

l

(

cos

θ

'

)

P

l

(

cos

θ)

The integral solution to the Direchlet boundary value problem is:

Φ(⃗

x

)=

1

4

π ϵ

0

ρ(⃗

x '

)

G

D

(⃗

x ,

x '

)

d

τ−

1

4

π

Φ

∂G

D

∂n '

d a

in this problem, the potential on the boundary (

r

=

b

) is 0. Therefore, the potential everywhere is

Φ(⃗

x

)=

1

4

π ϵ

0

ρ( ⃗

x '

)G

D

d

τ

The line charge distribution within the sphere can be written as:

ρ(

r ,

θ

,

ϕ)=

3

Q

8

π

d

3

d

2

r

2

r

2

[δ(

cos

θ−

1

)+δ (

cos

θ+

1

)]

if r < d and

ρ(

r ,

θ

,

ϕ)=

0

if r > d.

The solution becomes:

Φ(⃗

x

)=

1

4

π ϵ

0 2π

0

π

0

ρ(⃗

x '

)

G

D

r '

2

sin

θ

' d r ' d

θ

' d

ϕ

'

Φ(⃗

x

)=

3

Q

16

πϵ

0

d

3

[

0

d

(

d

2

r

2

)

G

D

'

= 0

)

d r '

+

0

d

(

d

2

r

2

)

G

D

'

=

π)

d r '

]

G

D

'

=

0

)=

l=0

[

r

<

l

r

>l+1

(

r r '

)

l

(3)

G

D

'

=

0

)=

l=0

[

r

<l

r

>l+1

(

r r '

)

l

b

2l+1

]

(−

1

)

l

P

l

(

cos

θ)

The final solution is evaluated as:

Φ(⃗

x

)=

3

Q

8

πϵ

0

d

3

l=0,2,4..

P

l

(

cos

θ)

0

d

dr '

(

d

2

r '

2

)

[

r

l<

r

>l+

1

(

r r '

)

l

b

2l+1

]

if r > d

Φ(⃗

x

)=

3

Q

8

πϵ

0

d

3

l=0,2,4..

P

l

(

cos

θ)

0

d

dr '

(

d

2

−r '

2

)

[

r '

l

r

l+1

(

r r '

)

l

b

2l+1

]

Φ(⃗

x

)=

3

Q

8

πϵ

0

d

3

l=0,2,4..

P

l

(

cos

θ)

d

l

(

l+

1

)(

l+

3

)

b

l+1

[

(

b

r

)

l+1

−(

r

b

)

l

]

if r < d

Φ(⃗

x

)=

3

Q

8

πϵ

0

d

3

l=0,2,4..

P

l

(

cos

θ)

[

d

2

(

2

l

+

1

l

(l

+

1

)

)

+

r

2

(

2

l

+

1

(

2

−l

)(

3

+l

)

)

+

r

l

(

1

d

l−2

(

2

l

(l+

2

)

)

(

2

(l

+

3

)(

l+

1

)

d

l+3

b

2l+1

)

)

]

(b) The surface-charge density induced on the shell :

σ=

[

ϵ

0

∂ Φ

r

]

r=b

The potential is needed at the surface

r

=

b

which is greater than d, so we use the

r

>

d

solution

σ=−

3

Q

4

π

b

2

l=0,2,4..

P

l

(

cos

θ)

2

l

+

1

(l

+

1

)(

l+

3

)

(

d

b

)

l

(c)

in the limit that

d

b

,

d

/

b

1

, so

(d

/b)

l

0

except l = 0. The potential becomes:

Φ(⃗

x

)=

Q

4

π ϵ

0

[

1

r

1

b

]

This is just the potential due to a point charge Q at the center of the sphere. The induced charge is

σ=−

Q

4

π

b

2

This is equivalent to a total charge -Q uniformly distributed on a sphere with radius b.

Q3.

(4)

V

, z

)=

m , n

I

m

(

n

π

L

b

)

(

a

nm

sin

m

ϕ+b

mn

cos

m

ϕ

)

sin

(

n

L

π

z

)

The Fourier coefficients are:

a

mn

=

2

π

L I

m

(

n

π

b

/

L

)

0 2π

d

ϕ

o L

d z V

, z)

sin

m

ϕ

sin

(

n

π

L

z

)

b

mn

=

2

π

L I

m

(

n

π

b

/

L

)

0 2π

d

ϕ

o L

d z V

, z)

cos

m

ϕ

sin

(

n

π

L

z

)

(

b

0,n

=

1

π

L I

0

(

n

π

b

/

L

)

0 2π

d

ϕ

o L

d z V

, z

)

sin

(

n

π

L

z

)

)

now, given the potential:

V

, z

)=

V for

−π/

2

<ϕ<π /

2

and

V

, z

)=−

V for

π /

2

<ϕ<

3

π /

2

all the coefficients for

a

mn vanish.

b

mn

=

2

V

π

L I

m

(

n

π

b

/

L

)

[

−π /

2

π /2

π/2 3π /2

]

d

ϕ

cos

m

ϕ

0

L

d z

sin

n

π

z

L

=

2

V

π

2

I

m

(

n

π

b

/

L

)

4 sin

(

m

π/

2

)

m

1

−(−

1

)

n

n

(

m≠

0

)

for m, n=even numbers

b

mn vanishes.

b

mn can be written as

b

2k+1,2l+1

=

16

V

π

2

I

2k+1

((

2l

+

1

b

/

L)

(−

1

)

k

(

2k

+

1

)(

2l

+

1

)

Therefore

Φ=

16

V

π

2

k=0

l=0

(−

1

)

k

(

2

k

+

1

)(

2

l

+

1

)

I

2k+1

(

(

2

l+

1

)πρ

L

)

I

2k+1

(

(

2

l

+

1

b

L

)

cos

(

2

k

+

1

sin

(

2

l

+

1

z

L

(b) For

L

b

both

ρ/

L

and

b

/

L

are much less than 1.0. We utilize a small argument expansion of the modified Bessel function:

L

ν

(

x

)=

1

Γ(ν+

1

)

(

x

2

)

ν

and

sin

(

2

l

+

1

z

L

=

sin

(

l

+

1

2

)π=(−

1

)

l

Hence in this limit, the potential form becomes

Φ=

16

V

π

2

k ,l

(−

1

)

k

2

k

+

1

(−

1

)

l

2

l

+

1

(

ρ

b

)

2k+1

cos

(

2

k

+

1

)ϕ=

16

V

π

2

l=0

[

(−

1

)

l

2

l

+

1

]

[

(−

1

)

k

2

k

+

1

(

ρ

b

e

)

2k+1

]

Taylor expansion for arctan is:

tan

−1

(

z

)=

n

(−

1

)

n

2

n

+

1

z

2n+1
(5)

ϕ=

16

V

π

2

tan

−1

(

1

)ℝ

tan

−1

(

ρ

b

e

iϕ

)=

4

V

π ℝ

tan

−1

(

ρ

b

e

)

Use the following formula to calculate

tan

−1

(

z

)

tan

−1

a

+

tan

−1

b

=

tan

−1

a

+

b

1

a b

tan

−1

(

z)=

1

2

(

tan

−1

z+

tan

−1

z

*

)=

1

2

tan

−1

z

+z

*

1

z

z

*

,hence

Φ=

2

π

V

tan

−1

2

(ρ/

b

)

cos

ϕ

1

−(ρ/b)

2

=

2

V

π

tan

−1

2

b

b

2

ρ

cos

ϕ

−ρ

2

Q4.

From lecture notes (Boundary-Value Problems in Electrostatics II) page 58, we know that the general solution to the Laplace equation in cylindrical coordinates has the form:

Φ(

r ,

ϕ

, z

)=

k1,m

(

A

k1, m

sin

m

ϕ+

B

k1,m

cos

m

ϕ)(

C

k1,m

e

k1z

+

D

k1,m

e

−k1z

)[

F

k1,m

J

m

(

k

1

r

)+

G

k1,m

N

m

(

k

1

r

)]

+

k2,m

(

A

k2,m

sin

m

ϕ+

B

k2,m

cos

m

ϕ)(

C

k2,m

sin

k

2

z

+

D

k2, m

cos

K

2

z

)[

F

k2, m

I

m

(

k

2

r

)+

G

k2, m

K

m

(

k

2

r

)]

As z approaches infinity and

r

=

0

,

Φ

must be finite. Together with the azimuthal symmetry of the solution, the potential becomes:

Φ(r ,

ϕ

, z

)=

k

A

k

J

0

(k r

)e

−k z ,

now in this problem, with no constraint on the radius, k becomes a continuous spectrum and not a discrete set, so

Φ(r ,

ϕ

, z

)=

0

A

(k

)

J

0

(k r

)e

−kz

d k

Apply the last boundary condition

Φ(

z

=

0

)=

V

(

r

)

V

(

r

)=

0

A(k

)

J

0

(

kr)d k

Use the orthogonality of Bessel function:

0

x J

0

(

k x

)

J

0

(k ' x

)d x=

1

k

δ(

k '

−k

)

A

(

k

)=

k

0

V

(

r

)

r J

0

(

k r

)

d r

A(

k

)=V a J

1

(k a)

The final solution is:

Φ(r ,

ϕ

, z

)=V a

0

J

1

(

k a)

J

0

(k r

)e

−k z

d k

(b) The potential a perpendicular distance z above the center of the disc is:

Φ(r=

0

)=V a

0

J

1

(k a

)

J

0

(

0

)

d k

=V a

0

inivity

J

k

(

ka)e

−k z

dk

Use

J

1

(

x

)=

2

1

π

i

0

(6)

Φ(

r

=

0

)=

1

2

π

i

v

0

e

iθ

0

e

(icosθ−z/a)x

dx d

θ=

1

2

π

V

0 2π

e

1

(

cos

θ+

i z

/

a

)

d

θ

Φ(

r

=

0

)=

i

2

π

V

[

0

cos

θ+

sin

θ

z

/

a

(

cos

2

θ+

z

2

/

a

2

)

d

θ+

i

0

cos

θ

z

/

a

+

sin

θ

cos

θ

(

cos

2

θ+

z

2

/

a

2

)

d

θ

]

Fin

The potential can be simplified to:

Φ(r=

0

)=

1

2

π

V

0 2π

cos

2

θ

cos

2

θ+

z

2

/

a

2

d

θ

Substitute

u=

1

1

+a

2

/

z

2

tan

θ

Φ(

r

=

0

)=

V

[

1

2

π

2

z

2

+

a

2

0

1

1

+

u

2

d u

]

Φ(r=

0

)=V

[

1

z

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