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1 Branch Name (Code) Bengaluru (01)

Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

Test Syllabus Pre-L T (01-100): Anatomy – Embryology

PRE-LECTUTE TEST (01 – 100)

1. The part of the sperm containing proteolytic enzymes to digest the zona pellucida is the: A. Capacitor

B. Head C. Corona D. Acrosome E. Cumulus

2. The ovulated mammalian oocyte is arrested at:

A. Prophase of meiosis I B. Metaphase of meiosis I C. Prophase of meiosis II D. Metaphase of meiosis II E. None of the above 3. The seven-day blastocyst:

A. has a single layer of trophoblast at the embryonic pole

B. has an amniotic cavity

C. is attached to the endometrial epithelium D. is surrounded by a degenerating zona

pellucida

E. is called the hypoblast

4. The first week of human development is characterized by formation of the:

A. Inner cell mass B. Hypoblast C. Trophoblast D. Blastocyst E. All of the above

5. During implantation, the blastocyst: A. Implants in the endometrium

B. Usually attaches to endometrial epithelium at its embryonic pole

C. Usually implants in the posterior wall of the body of the uterus

D. Causes change in the endometrial tissues E. All of the above are correct

6. Capacitation of the sperm:

A. Is caused by the zona pellucida B. Occurs in the male

C. Prevents polyspermy D. Is essential for fertilization E. Removes the head of the sperm

7. The early stages of cleavage are characterized by:

A. Formation of a hollow ball of cells B. Formation of the zona pellucida

C. Increase in the size of the cells in the zygote

D. Increase in the number of cells in the zygote

E. None of the above

8. The most common site for implantation in ectopic pregnancy is:

A. Internal os of the uterus B. Mesentery

C. Ovary D. Uterine tube E. Other

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Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

9. The amniotic cavity develops: A. On the tenth day

B. Within the outer cell mass

C. Within the inner cell mass near the cytotrophoblast

D. In extraembryonic mesoderm E. None of the above

10. During the second week of development, the trophoblast differentiates into:

A. Syncytiotrophoblast B. Ectoderm

C. Intraembryonic mesoderm D. Yolk sac (secondary)

11. The first two intraembryonic germ layers to differentiate are the:

A. Ectoderm and hypoblast B. Epiblast and hypoblast C. Ectoderm and endoderm D. Ectoderm and mesoderm 12. The blastocoele becomes the:

A. Amniotic cavity B. Extraembryonic coelom C. Primary yolk sac D. Chorionic cavity E. Secondary cavity 13. The bilaminar germ disc:

A. consists of epiblast and mesoblast B. is derived from the outer cells of the

morula

C. forms the embryo proper

D. synthesizes human chorionic gonadotropin, HCG

14. The primitive streak first appears at the beginning of the _____ week.

A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth

15. Cells from the primitive streak DO NOT become:

A. Endoderm

B. Intermediate mesoderm C. Paraxial mesoderm D. Lateral plate mesoderm E. Amnioblasts

16. The primitive streak:

a. Is derived from the outer cells of the morula

b. Is formed during the second week in development

c. Persists as the cloacal membrane d. Is the site of involution of epiblast

cells to form mesoderm

e. Was done in a bathing suit, for those who remember streaking

17. In the third week of human embryonic development:

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Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

Test Syllabus Pre-L T (01-100): Anatomy – Embryology B. A bilaminar embryonic disc is

formed

C. The body stalk moves ventrally and joins with the yolk sac stalk to form the umbilical cord

D. The neural plate is induced by the notochordal process and associated mesoderm

E. The uteroplacental circulation is established

18. During development, the notochordal process: A. Arises from involuting endodermal

cells

B. Extends from the prochordal plate to the primitive node

C. Is involved in the induction of the primitive gut

D. Becomes the appendicular skeleton 19. Somites:

A. Differentiate into myotomes which give rise to skeletal muscle in trunk and limbs

B. Differentiate into sclerotomes which give rise to vertebrae

C. Arise from segmentation of the paraxial mesoderm

D. Differentiate into myotomes which give rise to skeletal muscle of the limbs

E. All of the above are correct

20. When the amount of amniotic fluid exceeds two liters, the condition is called:

A. Oligohydramnios

B. Polyhydramnios or hydramnios C. Amniotitis

D. Bag of waters E. Hydrogravida

21. The wall of the chorionic sac is composed of:

A. Cytotrophoblast and

syncytiotrophoblast

B. Two layers of trophoblast lined by extraembryonic somatic mesoderm C. Trophoblast and exocoelomic

membrane

D. Extraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm and both layers of trophoblast

E. None of the above

22. Failure of the brain to grow may result in: A. Plagiocephaly

B. Craniostenosis C. Acrocephaly D. Scaphocephaly E. Microcephaly

23. Somitomeres, paraxial mesoderm cranial to the somites, give rise to much of the skeletal muscle in the head EXCEPT:

A. Extrinsic muscles of the eye B. Temporalis tongue muscles C. Muscles of facial expression D. Muscles of mastication

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Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

24. After folding of the head region, the structure lying just caudal to the pericardial cavity is the: A. Developing heart B. Connecting stalk C. Primitive streak D. Liver E. Septum transversum

25. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the first branchial arch?

A. Malleus

B. Mandibular process

C. Sphenomandibular ligament D. Stylohyoid ligament E. Maxillary process

26. Which structures are derived from the intermaxillary segment of the embryonic face?

A. Philtrum

B. Anterior portion of the palate C. Anterior portion of the upper jaws D. Upper incisor teeth

E. All of the above are correct

27. Many facial malformations are believed to be due to

A. A failure of the oral membrane to rupture

B. A failure to neural crest cells to migrate into the facial processes C. A failure in growth of the head fold

D. An abnormal persistence of the pharyngeal clefts

E. None of the above 28. Each pharyngeal arch includes:

A. Derivatives of ectodermal neural crest cells

B. An aortic arch artery

C. A mesodermal core from paraxial mesoderm

D. A cranial nerve E. All of the above

29. Branchial cysts or lateral cervical cysts A. Are found along the anterior border

of the sternocleidomastoid muscle B. Are formed from a rupture of the

membrane between pharyngeal pouches and branchial clefts

C. Are remnants of the thyroglossal duct

D. Are found in front of the ear

30. The following are true statements with regard to the fetal circulation EXCEPT

A. Since the fetal liver is a hemopoietic organ, it is large and well supplied with oxygenated blood.

B. Fetal brain receives relatively pure arterial blood.

C. Fetal and maternal blood vessels anastomose in the placenta

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Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

Test Syllabus Pre-L T (01-100): Anatomy – Embryology D. In early developmental stages, one

pulmonary vein buds from the left atrium of the heart.

E. Foramen primum of the interatrial septum closes after the formation of the foramen secundum.

31. Which of the following associations are correct?

A. Renal pelvis - ureteric bud B. Ureter - ureteric bud C. Urethra - urogenital sinus

D. Median umbilical ligament - urachus E. All of the above are correct

32. Congenital absence of neural crest cells could result in

A. Absence of sympathetic chain ganglia

B. Facial malformations C. Absence of adrenal medulla D. Absence of pigment cells E. All of the above are correct

33. Turner's syndrome shows all of the following characteristics except

A. Absence of menses

B. Numerous ovarian follicles C. Webbed neck

D. Sterility E. 45, X karyotype

34. The chromosome that bears the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)on its short arm is

A. 6 B. -I2 C. 18 D. 2'I

35. Human male has the karyotype of: A. 20 pairs of autosomes + x and y B. 22 pairs of autosomes + x and y C. 2pairs of autosomes + x and x D. 20 pairs of autosomes + y and y

36. Zygomatic bone gives origin to: A. Ternporalis

B. Frontalis C. Buccinator D. Masseter

37. Difference between cervical and lumbar vertebra is by the presence of:

A. Foramen in each transverse process B. Bifid spinous process

C. Narrow vertebral canal D. Bifid vertebral body

38. First cervical vertebra is characterized by having: A. Nobody

B. No transverse processes C. Bifid SpiIl0USprocesses D. No posterior tubercle

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Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

Test Syllabus Pre-L T (01-100): Anatomy – Embryology 39. Strongest and largest bone of the face is:

A. Maxilla B. Frontal bone C. Occipital bone D. Mandible

40. Coronoid process is a part of which of these bones?

A. Mandible B. Maxilla C. Sphenoid D. Temporal bone

41. Hyoid bones is ossified from: A. 2 centers

B. 4 centers C 6 centers D. 8 centers

42. Glabella is a part of: A. Frontal bone

B. Parietal bone C Temporal bone D. Occipital bone

43. The suture uniting two parietal bones to the occipital bone in the foetal skull Is:

A Coronal B. Lambdoid C Sagittal D. Temporal

44. Atlas vertebra is unique in having: A No body

B. Broad body C Third spine

D. Foramen transversalis

45. Characteristic feature of the second cervical vertebra is:

A. Absence of the spinous process B. Absence of ligamentous attachment C Odontoid process (dens)

D. Transverse process without foramina

46. Common carotid artery bifurcates at what level?

A. 4th cervical vertebra B. 5thcervical vertebra C 6thcervical vertebra D. 1st thoracic vertebra

47. Foramen rotundum transmits: A. Maxillary nerve

B. Maxillary artery C Trigeminal nerve D. Trochlear nerve

48. If you rotate your head as in indicating a “no” response, most of the movement occurs at this joint: A. Atlanto-occipital (skull-C1) B. Atlanto-axial (C1-C2) C. C2-C3 D. C3-C4 E. C7-T1

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Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

Test Syllabus Pre-L T (01-100): Anatomy – Embryology 49. The cricoid cartilage lies at this vertebral level

A. C2 B. C4 C. C6 D. C8 E. T2

50. The highest cervical spinous process that is easily felt is that of A. C1 B. C2 C. C5 D. C7 E. C8

51. The pterygoid process of what bone forms the posterior wall of the pterygopalatine fossa

A. Palatine B. Maxilla C. Sphenoid

D. Inferior nasal conchae E. Pterygoid

52. The number of unpaired bones in the cranium is A. 1

B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

53. The occipital condyles articulate with which bone A. Axis

B. Clavicles

C. Vertebra prominens D. Atlas

54. The number of unpaired bones in the skeleton of the adult human face is two. They are the vomer and the

A. Zygomatic B. Maxilla C. Palatine D. Lacrimal E. Mandible

55. Choose the correct statement concerning the palatine bones

A. They lie immediately posterior to the pterygoid processes of the sphenoid B. They form part of the lateral wall of

the oropharynx

C. They form part of the lateral wall of the nasopharynx

D. They form part of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity (nose)

56. All cervical vertebrae have a(n) A. Spine

B. Bifid spine

C. Foramen transversium D. Body attached to its pedicles

E. Intervertebral disk adjacent to their inferior surface

57. The spinal nerve emerges between this part of adjacent vertebra

A. Lamina B. Pedicle

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Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

Test Syllabus Pre-L T (01-100): Anatomy – Embryology D. Body

E. Spine

58. The articular facets of the superior articular processes of cervical vertebra face

A. Superiorly and posteriorly B. Inferiorly and anteriorly C. Posteriorly and laterally D. Posteriorly and medially E. Anteriorly and medially 59. The intervertebral disks

A. Form about one-fourth the length of the vertebral column

B. Are found between all cervical vertebrae

C. Are important for maintaining normal curvatures of the vertebral column

D. A, b, and c E. Only a and c

60. “Secondary curves” of the vertebral column is (are) in this (these) portion(s) of the column

A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Lumbar D. A, b, and c E. A and c

61. Flexion and extension of the head occur mainly in these joints

A. atlanto-occipital B. atlanto-axial

C. C2-C3 vertebral bodies D. C2-C3 articular processes E. C7-T1 articular processes

62. Which of the following bones do not contribute to the formation of the nasal septum

A. Sphenoid B. Lacrimal C. Palatine D. Ethmoid

63. Difference between typical cervical and thoracic vertebra

A. Has a triangular body B. Has foramen transversarium

C. Superior articular facet directed backwards and upwards

D. Has a large vertebral body

64. Which part of the vertebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards:

A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Sacral D. Coccyx

65. In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at A. Lower border of L1

B. Lower border of L3 C. Lower border of S1 D. Lower border of L5

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Test Date 23-11-2013

Test ID 20150101

QBVC A

Test Syllabus Pre-L T (01-100): Anatomy – Embryology 66. Mandibular nerve passes through the

following foramen: A. Foramen ovale B. Foramen rotundum C. Foramen spinosum D. Foramen lacerum

67. All of the following nerves pass through jugular foramen, except:

A. 9th B. 10th C. 11th D. 12th * * * * * S P A C E F O R R O U G H W O R K