Core 13: Deliver Pre-Hospital Patient Care Instructor: Precious Ann G. Reyes, RN
Name: __________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: __________ Instruction: Encircle the letter which corresponds to your answer. No Erasures Allowed.
1. Steps taken by EMS providers when approaching the scene of an emergency call; determining scene safety, taking BSI precautions, noting the mechanism of injury (MOI) or patient’s nature of illness (NOI), determining the number of patients, and deciding what, if any additional resources are needed.
a. Critical Assessment b. Scene Size Up c. Initial Assessment d. Secondary Survey
2. The process used to identify and treat life-threatening problems, concentrating on Level of Consciousness, Cervical Spinal Stabilization, Airway, Breathing, and Circulation.
a. Critical Assessment b. Scene Size Up c. Initial Assessment d. Secondary Survey
3. Which does not incude in the process of Initial assessment? a. Form a General Impression
b. Assess Mental Status c. Assess the Airway
d. Rapid Trauma Assessment
4. This is the immediate assessment of the environment and the patient’s problem and the process takes place in seconds. This allows you to prioritize the patient care and to form a plan of action for continuing assessment.
a. Form a General Impression b. Assess Mental Status
c. Identifying any life threatening situation d. Make initial transport decision
5. Maneuver for opening the airway in conscious patients; enables cervical spine stabilization and is often used with medical patients.
a. Jaw Thrust. c. Rocking Maneuver
b. Head Tilt Chin Lift d. Cervical Spine Immobilization
6. Maneuver for opening the airway in unconscious patients; enables cervical spine stabilization and is often used with trauma patients.
c. Jaw Thrust. c. Rocking Maneuver
d. b. Head Tilt Chin Lift d. Cervical Spine Immobilization
7. All responsive patients breathing >24 breaths per minute or <8 breaths per minute should receive high flow oxygen (15 lpm). Which of these could give such amount?
a. Nonrebreather mask with reservoir b. Nasal Cannula
c. Venturi Mask d. Simple Face Mask
8. Establishing the number of patients is an important part of the? a. initial assessment
b. detailed assessment c. scene size-up
d. general impression
9. The main purpose of the primary assessment is to? a. obtain the chief complaint
b. establish scene safety
c. discover and treat immediately life-threatening conditions d. obtain a full set of vital signs and a SAMPLE history 10. The patient’s age, sex, and chief complaint are part of the:
a. general impression b. dispatch information c. patient profile d. scene size-up
11. If assessment reveals pale, cool, clammy skin in conjunction with a significant mechanism of injury, an altered mental status, or severe bleeding, assume that the patient is:
a. having a heart attack b. not a priority
c. having a stroke d. in shock
12. A trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury should receive a: a. focused trauma assessment
b. focused medical assessment c. detailed physical exam d. rapid secondary assessment
13. Which of the following is not normally considered a significant mechanism of injury in adult patients?
a. fall of 10 feet
b. blast injury from an explosion c. seatbelt injury
d. rollover of a vehicle
14. In the rapid trauma assessment, the “B” of DCAP-BTLS stands for: a. breaks
b. burns c. bruises d. bleeding e.
15. During the rapid trauma assessment, check all extremities for a. PMS
b. IRT c. QRS d. JVD
16. When assessing a responsive medical patient’s chief complaint, the “T” of OPQRST stands for:
a. tenderness b. termination c. tension d. time
17. An assessment finding of jugular vein distention may indicate: a. hypotension
b. heart failure c. hypoglycemia d. kidney failure
18. A detailed physical exam should be performed: a. before vital signs are taken
b. before the SAMPLE history
c. only after all life-threatening injuries and conditions have been managed d. only after approval from medical direction has been received
19. The reassessment is most often conducted: a. at the scene of the incident
b. in the back of the ambulance en route to the hospital c. prior to packaging the patient for transport
d. just after packaging the patient for transport
20. Which of the following would usually not require a rapid secondary exam? a. an unresponsive patient
b. a patient with multiple injuries c. a patient with a lacerated foot
d. a patient with a significant mechanism of injury
21. A serious finding during the secondary exam is a pulsating mass in the abdomen, which may indicate:
a. a weakened abdominal aorta b. failure of one or both kidneys c. progressive appendicitis d. liver damage
22. For stable patients, the ongoing assessment should be performed every ____ minutes. a. 5
b. 15 c. 10 d. 20
23. The first step in the reassessment is to: a. check interventions
b. repeat the primary assessment c. reassess and record vital signs d. repeat the focused assessment
24. The chief purposes of the reassessment are to detect any changes in the patient’s condition, to identify any missed injuries or conditions, and to:
a. alert the receiving facility of probable arrival time b. adjust emergency care as needed
c. fill in any gaps in the SAMPLE history d. complete packaging of the patient
25. Which of these signifies a normal condition of the skin? a. Pinkish
b. Cyanotic or blue-gray c. Flushed
d. Jaundice or yellow
26. Normal capillary refill in infant and child patients is usually? a. less than two seconds
b. greater than two seconds c. two seconds
d. three seconds
27. Which of this is not considered a priority patient? a. poor general impression
b. unresponsive patients - no gag or cough c. Responsive, not following commands d. controlled bleeding on lacerated foot 28. Priority patients should be:
a. Reassessed every 15 minutes b. Transported immediately c. Assess for ABC
d. Do detailed physical examination
29. This is used for patients, with no significant mechanism of injury that has been determined to have no life-threatening injuries.
a. Rapid Trauma Assessment b. Rapid Medical Assessment c. Focused Trauma Assessment d. Focused History Exam- Medical
30. This is performed on patients with significant mechanism of injury to determine potential life threatening injuries. In the conscious patient, symptoms should be sought before and during the Rapid Trauma assessment.
a. Rapid Trauma Assessment b. Rapid Medical Assessment c. Focused Trauma Assessment d. Focused History Exam- Medical
31. This is performed on medical patients who are unconscious, confused, or unable to adequately relate their chief complaint. This assessment is used to quickly identify existing or potentially life-threatening conditions.
a. Rapid Trauma Assessment b. Rapid Medical Assessment c. Focused Trauma Assessment d. Focused History Exam- Medical
32. This is used for patients with a medical complaint who are conscious, and able to adequately relate their chief complaint to you, and have no life-threatening conditions.
a. Rapid Trauma Assessment b. Rapid Medical Assessment c. Focused Trauma Assessment d. Focused History Exam- Medical
33. Rapid Trauma assessment should only be performed for? a. 5 minutes
b. 15 minutes c. 60-90 seconds d. 120-180 seconds
34. This is defined as a movement of part of the chest wall in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest wall during inhalation and exhalation’
a. Flail chest b. Crepitus
c. Paradoxical Motion d. Pulmonary Congestion
35. This is defined as the sound and feel of broken bones moving against one another. a. Flail chest
b. Crepitus
c. Paradoxical Motion d. Pulmonary Congestion
36. When auscultating the breath sounds using a stethoscope, the breath sounds should be? a. Present unilaterally
b. Present bilaterally
c. Accessory muscle use should be noted
d. Adventitious sounds and crackles should be heard 37. When assessing the abdomen, the EMS provider should:
a. Palpate for the 9 regions of the abdomen b. Palpate for the 4 quadrants
c. Use finger tips and not the finger pads d. Palpate pulsating masses
38. If a pelvic fracture is suspected, the EMS provider should: a. Not rock the pelvis
b. Press the iliac crest
c. Do flexion and compression
d. Palpate the pelvis and femoral pulses
a. Flexion and Decompression b. Flexion and Compression c. Compression and Extension d. Flexion and Extension
40. For patients with no significant mechanism of injury, the focused history and physical examination at the site of the injury is done. Which of this is not included?
a. a cut finger b. deformed ankle c. bruised knee d. vehicle roll over
41. A mnemonic used by medical professionals to accurately discern reasons for a patient's symptoms and history in the event of an acute illness.
a. DCAP-BTLS b. OPQRST c. AVPU d. SAMPLE
42. Is designed primarily for trauma patients who may have hidden injuries that are not revealed in the initial assessment and is also useful for unresponsive medical patients.
a. Detailed Physical Examination b. Initial Assessment
c. Secondary Survey d. Ongoing Assessment
43. This is performed on all patients while the patient is being transported to the hospital. It is designed to reassess the patient for changes that may require new intervention.
a. Detailed Physical Examination b. Initial Assessment
c. Secondary Survey d. Ongoing Assessment
44. A component of OPQRST, refers to how long the condition has been going on and how it has changed since onset.
a. Onset b. Provocation c. Severity d. Time
45. An airway adjunct inserted into a nostril and designed to prevent airway obstruction by the tongue usually used for conscious patients.
a. nasopharyngeal airway b. oropharyngeal airway c. nasogastrictube d. endotracheal tube
46. A 16 year old patient who injured her wrist denies any other injuries. The best assessment to perform would be:
a. Rapid trauma Assessment b. Focused physical exam
c. There is no need for assessment d. A detailed physical exam
47. The Rapid Trauma Assessment is designed to search for? a. All injuries the patient may have
b. Only injuries to the chest and abdomen c. Injuries to the head and the chest d. Life threatening injuries
48. The scene size-up should be performed: a. Before approaching every scene b. When approaching trauma scenes only c. When approaching medical scenes only
d. When the EMT feels a need to perform size-up
49. When palpating the abdomen, when at rest and lying on a flat surface, most patients will have a ______ abdomen.
a. Flat b. Soft c. Rigid d. Distended
50. During the initial assessment, the patient’s mental status is evaluated. The following acronym is used to categorize the patient’s level of responsiveness:
a. BRIM b.APVU c. AVPU d.AVPO
Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. B 37. B 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. A 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. C