Name: LAB SECTION: Circle your answer on the test sheet: completely erase or block out unwanted answers.

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Biology 100 – Practice Final Exam Spring 2011

Name:__________________________________________________________ LAB SECTION:__________________________________________________

Circle your answer on the test sheet: completely erase or block out unwanted answers.

Once you have completed the exam, transfer your answers to the scantron.

Write your name, version of the test, and lab section on the scantron.

There are a total of 50 questions. The exam is worth 100 points. Turn in both the Scantron and the exam when finished.

Good luck!

1. One mechanism of evolution is:

A. Natural selection B. Sexual selection C. Gene flow D. Genetic drift

E. All of the above are mechanisms of evolution

2. Which of the following is thought to have been the first step in the origin of life?

A. formation of organic polymers B. cooperation among molecules C. formation of polypeptide spheres D. formation of organic monomers E. replication of primitive genes

3. You discover a prokaryote that can make its own food in the absence of light. Nutritionally, you would classify this prokaryote as a ______ .

A. photoautotroph B. chemoheterotroph C. photoheterotroph D. decomposotroph E. chemoautotroph

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4. Which of the following correctly illustrates the sequence of the origin of modern groups of plants?

A. bryophytes, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms B. ferns, gymnosperms, bryophytes, angiosperms C. ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms, bryophytes D. bryophytes, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms E. gymnosperms, ferns, bryophytes, angiosperms

5. At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this? A. cleavage B. morphology C. regeneration D. carcinogenesis E. cellular differentiation

6. What name is given to a region of DNA that varies from person to person?

A. genetic marker B. codon

C. genetic probe D. monoDNA

E. restriction fragment

7. Natural selection can be defined as ______.

A. the accumulation of random mutations

B. changes in gene frequencies attributable to chance

C. the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment D. the relationships among all organisms

E. a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than other individuals

8. Which of the following is a component of the fossil record?

A. the distribution of marsupials in Australia B. the similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats C. molecular sequences

D. bones of extinct whales

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9. Your family is taking a long driving vacation across the midwestern and western United States. As you travel, you notice that the flowers, birds, and trees of the Midwest and the Rocky Mountains are very different. As you ponder why, you remember that such differences in the distribution of species are part of the field of ______.

A. paleontology B. anthropology C. geology D. biogeography E. morphology

10. All of the alleles of all of the genes within a population make up that population's ______.

A. gene pool B. genotype C. heterozygosity D. polymorphism E. gene flow

11. Which one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?

A. Bacteria B. Animalia C. Plantae D. Archaea E. Eukarya

12. Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?

A. butterfly B. automobile C. spoon D. Ferris wheel E. shoe box 13. Animals are:

A. eukaryotic, multicellular and heterotrophic B. prokaryotic, multicellular and heterotrophic

C. eukaryotic, uni- and multicellular and heterotrophic D. eukaryotic, multicellular and autotrophic

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14. Vertebrates include:

A. fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals B. sponges and arthropods

C. tunicates, lancelets and lampreys D. crustaceans and insects

E. fishes, amphibians and reptiles

15. There are three major groups of mammals, categorized on the basis of their __________.

A. method of reproduction B. habitat

C. presence or absence of hair D. method of locomotion E. size

16. The ______ helps plants retain water.

A. hypha B. cuticle C. mycorrhiza D. skin E. lignin

17. Nutritionally, all fungi are ______.

A. heterotrophs B. pathogens C. autotrophs D. chemoautotrophs E. parasites

18. What important role do fungi play in many ecosystems?

A. They decompose organic material. B. They pollinate plants.

C. They disperse the fruits of angiosperms. D. They perform photosynthesis.

E. They produce fossil fuels.

19. What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?

A. DNA B. C6H12O6

C. glucose D. ATP E. fat

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20. The function of cellular respiration is to:

A. synthesize macromolecules from monomers B. produce carbohydrates

C. extract CO2 from the atmosphere

D. reduce CO2

E. extract usable energy from glucose

21. Select the correct sequence of steps as energy is extracted from glucose during cellular respiration.

A. electron transport chain → citric acid cycle → glycolysis → acetyl CoA B. acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain → glycolysis C. glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain D. citric acid cycle → electron transport chain → glycolysis → acetyl CoA E. glycolysis → citric acid cycle → acetyl CoA → electron transport chain

22. The end products of photosynthesis are _____ and _____.

A. glucose ... oxygen B. carbon dioxide ... water C. hydrogen ... oxygen

D. carbon dioxide ... hydrogen E. electrons ... NADPH

23. Photosynthesis is best defined as ______________.

A. the conversion of light energy into chemical energy.

B. the conversion of electromagnetic energy into chemical energy. C. the production of light by plants to make energy.

D. the breakdown of glucose to produce ATP. E. the production of chloroplasts.

24. A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with __________. A. 32 pairs of chromosomes B. 32 chromosomes C. 16 chromosomes D. 64 chromosomes E. 64 pairs of chromosomes

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25. The figure above shows:

A. sugars can move directly into the citric acid cycle

B. amino acids can move directly into the electron transport chain C. our cells can use sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids to produce ATP D. our cells can produce ATP only from glucose

E. our cells can produce ATP from sugars and glycerol, but not fatty acids

26. In a cell containing 10 chromosomes, meiosis results in the formation of daughter cells containing _____ chromosomes. A. 40 B. 0 C. 20 D. 10 E. 5 27. Chromatin consists of ______. A. RNA only B. DNA and protein C. RNA and protein D. protein only E. DNA only

28. Homologous chromosomes ______.

A. carry the same genes B. include only the autosomes

C. are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent D. include only the sex chromosomes

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29. One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.

A. mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not B. mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis

C. meiosis is needed for growth and tissue repair, but mitosis is not D. mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells

E. mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells

30. Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Which is it?

A. the events of meiosis I B. random fertilization C. crossing over

D. independent assortment E. the events of meiosis II

31. Alleles are described as ______.

A. homologous chromosomes

B. environmental factors that affect gene expression C. alternate versions of a gene

D. Punnett squares E. alternate phenotypes

32. A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?

A. The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele. B. All of the offspring are homozygous yellow. C. The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele. D. The alleles are codominant.

E. Yellow is an easier color to produce.

33. Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?

A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100%

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34. In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?

A. dimples B. DD C. Dd D. dd E. DI

35. Translation converts the information stored in ______ to ______.

A. DNA . . . RNA

B. RNA . . . a polypeptide C. protein . . . DNA D. DNA . . . a polypeptide E. RNA . . . DNA

36. Monomers for the synthesis of DNA are called _____.

A. fatty acids B. monosaccharides C. nucleotides D. disaccharides E. amino acids

37. Which of the following is the least complex (i.e., smallest) level of organization within biology? A. Ecosystem B. Biosphere C. Organism D. Cell E. Atom

38. Which of the following is not a property of life?

A. Reproduction

B. Ability to respond to the environment C. Energy utilization (Metabolism) D. Regulation (Homeostasis) E. None of these

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39. Which one of the following organelles is not surrounded by a membrane?

A. ribosomes B. mitochondrion C. nucleus

D. chloroplast E. lysosome

40. How do hypotheses differ from scientific theories?

A. Hypotheses are educated guesses while scientific theories are tentative explanations. B. Hypotheses are facts; theories are opinion.

C. Theories are less comprehensive than hypotheses.

D. Theories must be testable; hypotheses do not need to be testable.

E. Hypotheses are derived by experimentation; theories are derived from observation.

41. Which of the following is the term for a substance that falls between 0-7 on the pH scale?

A. Acid B. Base C. Buffer D. Solvent E. Solute

42. Which of the following is not a correct statement concerning DNA?

A. DNA is located within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.

B. DNA can be found enclosed within a double membrane called the nuclear envelope. C. DNA is located within the nucleus of prokaryotic cells.

D. DNA is the genetic material.

E. DNA is a double stranded compound, composed of a phosphorus backbone, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nucleotide (adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine).

43. Which of the following is a function of phospholipids in an organism’s cellular system?

A. They are a major component of the cells plasma membrane. B. They are a major component of photosynthesis system. C. They are a major component of a chromosome.

D. They are a major component of transport enzymes. E. They are a major components of steroids.

44. Amino acids are the building blocks of __________.

A. Lipids

B. Carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Vitamins E. Minerals

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45. What is a gene?

A. a type of eukaryotic cell B. a type of animal cell

C. an organelle that houses DNA D. a type of prokaryotic cell E. a unit of heredity

46. Science is ______.

A. the explanation of phenomena based on supernatural causation B. the inquiry-based effort to describe and explain nature

C. the search for truth

D. an organized set of principles for how to ethically and morally behave E. all of the above

47. A hypothesis is a(n) ______. A. tentative explanation B. guess C. fact D. observation E. theory

48. In a scientific experiment, the control group ______.

A. serves as a basis of comparison with the experimental group B. is subjected to the factor whose effect is being tested

C. allows for the simultaneous testing of multiple variables D. is required for the validity of discovery science

E. serves to increase the sample size of the experiment

49. Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ______.

A. cell wall and contractile vacuole B. cell wall and central vacuole C. nucleus and cell wall

D. nucleus and contractile vacuole E. cell wall and ribosomes

50. The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______.

A. phenogenesis B. transcription C. gene expression D. recombination E. cleavage

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