CHEMISTRY AND BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING
1. Who is J.J Berzelius?
(A) Coined the terms isomer and catalyst (B) First to synthesis an organic compound (C) Discovered chlorine
(D) Established principles of colloidal chemistry
2. What are the coefficients in front of NO3- (aq) and Cu(s) when the following redox equation is
balanced in an acidic solution: NO3- (aq) + Cu(s) NO(g) + Cu2+(aq)
(A) 2,3 (B) 2,6 (C) 3,4 (D) 3,6
3. Charcoal samples taken from holes dug at Stonehenge, England, have a carbon-14 specific activity of 9.50 dpm per gram carbon. Living wood has a specific activity of 15.3 dpm per gram of carbon. Given that the half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 yr, how long ago (in yr) was the wood part of living plant?
(A) 3940 (B) 3550 (C) 9230 (D) 5700
4. A saturated sodium carbonate 00C contains 7.1 g of dissolved sodium carbonate per 100
mL of solution. The solubility product constant for sodium carbonate at this temperature is (A) 1.2
(B) 0.3
(C) 3.0 x 10-4
(D) 0.9
5. Calculate the standard molar enthalpy of formation for Na2O(s), given that the standard
enthalpy of formation for Na2O2 is -505 kJ/mol and the enthalpy change for the following
reaction Na2O(s) + ½ O2(g) Na2O2(s) is -89.0 kJ/mol
(A) 594 kJ/mol (B) 416 kJ/mol (C) -594 kJ/mol (D) -416 kJ/mol
6. What is the chemical formula for aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)?
(A) C10H9O5
(B) C8H9O4
(C) C9H10O5
(D) C10H9O5
7. The percent composition by mass of a compound is 76% C, 12.8% H, and 11.2% O. The molar mass of this compound is 284.5 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
(A) C10H6O
(B) C9H18O
(C) C16H29O4
(D) C18H36O2
8. A 0.8715 g sample of sorbic acid, a compound first obtained from the berries of a certin ash tree, is burned completely in oxygen to give 2.053 g of carbon dioxide and 0.5601 g of water. The empirical formula of sorbic acid is
(A) CH2O
(B) C3H4O
(C) CH4O3
(D) C3H4O2
9. An aqueous fructose solution having a density of 1.049 g/cm3 is found to have an osmotic
pressure of 17.0 atm at 250C. Find the temperature at which this solution freezes.
(A) -1.520C
(B) -1.410C
(C) -1.570C
(D) -1.690C
10. What volume of a 0.150 N KI solution is required to react in basic solution with 34.1mL of a
0.216 N solution of KMnO4? The products include MnO2 and IO3-
(A) 25.4 mL (B) 37.9 mL (C) 49.1 mL (D) 98.2 mL
11. How many grams of solid KF (molar mass = 58.1 g/mol) should be added to 1.00 L of 0.250
(A) 14.5 g (B) 15.4 g (C) 6.95 g (D) 10.2 g
12. A 488 mg sample of CuSO4.nH2O is heated to drive off the waters of hydration and then
reweighed to give a final mass of 319 mg. Given the sample contains 2.0 mmol of Cu, what
is the average number of water if hydration, n, is CuSO4.nH2O?
(A) 2.0 (B) 5.0 (C) 10 (D) 18
13. Calculate the approximate pOH in a solution that is 0.200 M in NaF, Ka for HF is 6.7 x 10 -4.
(A) 8.5 (B) 5.8 (C) 9.6 (D) 6.9
14. Determine the pH range of an indicator given its ka=5x10-8
(A) 6.6-8.0 (B) 3.5-4.5 (C) 9.7-11.1 (D) 12.0-13.0
15. A 25 gram sample of oil as dissolved in 50 mL ethyl alcohol. The sample was titrated with 12mL of 0.08 M KOH using phenolphthalein indicator. Find the acid number.
(A) 2.15 (B) 1.89 (C) 4.80 (D) 4.30
16. Identify the major product in the reaction of ethanoyl chloride with butanol (A) Butlychloride
(B) Ethyl butanoate (C) Butyl ethanoate (D) Butanoic acid
(A) Formalin (B) Wood alcohol (C) Dry Ice
(D) Acetic Acid
18. Which of the following isomers is most acidic? (A) 3,4-hexadione
(B) 2,5-hexanedione (C) 2,4-hexanedione (D) Hexanedial
19. What is the net theoretical yield of ATP from 1 mole of glucose? (A) 38
(B) 36 (C) 32 (D) 30
20. Energy is required to break the hydrogen bond holding the base together. Whoch pair will be the most difficult to separate?
(A) A-T (B) C-G (C) A-C (D) G-T
21. Trypsin cleaves peptide chains mainly at carboxyl side of amino acids ___ and ____ unless either is followed by proline.
(A) Glutamine, threonine (B) Tryptipgan, glycine (C) Leucine, isoleucine (D) Lysine arginine
22. Southern blotting is technique used to detect specific sequences of (A) Protein
(B) mRNA (C) DNA
(D) Polysaccharide
23. The Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to: (A) Amplify a small amount of DNA
(B) Cleave bacterial plasmids
(C) Seal “sticky ends”
(D) Identify large plasmids
24. Which of the following statements is/are true about endoplasmic reticulum (A) It provides structural framework to the cell
(B) It acts as intracellular transporting system (C) Smooth ER is involved in the synthesis of lipid (D) All of the above
25. Process in central dogma wherein DNA is replicated in the form of mRNA (A) Replication
(B) Transcription (C) Translation
(D) Reverse Transcription
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
1. How many chemicals were added last May 2009 to the original list of POPs prohibited by Stockholm Convention?
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12
2. A sanitary landfill has available space of 16.2 ha at an average depth of 10m. 765 cubic meters of solid waste are dumped at the site 5 days per week. This waste is compacted to twice its delivered density. Estimate the expected life of landfill in years.
(A) 8 years (B) 12 years (C) 16 years (D) 24 years
3. It is the convention that convention that formally defined and introduced the concept of ‘Sustainable Development.’
(A) Stockholm Convention (B) Brundtland Commission (C) Copenhagen Talks (D) Basel Convention
4. A specific town has a low-turbidity raw water and is designing its overflow weir at a loading
rate of 150 m3/day-meter. If its plant flow rate is 0.5 m3 per second, how many linear meters
of weir are required? (A) 144 meters (B) 216 meters (C) 288 meters (D) 432 meters
5. It is a tool for the systematic and exhaustive evaluation of the environmental aspects of a product or service system through all the stages of its life stages.
(A) Life Cycle Analysis (B) Life Cycle Evaluation (C) Life Cycle Accommodation (D) Life Cycle Optimization
6. An illegally buried drum of toluene has begun to leak into an unconfined drinking water acquifer. A homeowner’s well is located 60 meters down from the leaking drum. If the soil has a retardation coefficient of 17 for toluene and the linear speed of the water in the
acquifer is 4.7 x 10-6 m/s, how long will it take for the said contaminant to reach well?
(A) 8.7 days (B) 10.3 months (C) 3.4years (D) 6.88 years
7. The hierarchy of solid waste management is:
(A) Treatment – Reduce – Reuse –Recycle – Disposal (B) Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Treatment - Disposal (C) Disposal – Reuse – Reduce – Recycle – Treatment (D) Recycle – Reuse – Reduce – Treatment – Disposal
8. It is the optimum carbon to nitrogen elemental ratio in composing waste materials (A) 20:1
(B) 30:1 (C) 50:1 (D) 60:1
9. Determine the 1 day BOD of a sample wastewater if its BOD5 is 135 mg/L with a rate
constant of 0.23/ day. (A) 197.55 mg/L
(B) 51.09 mg/L (C) 40.59 mg/L
(D) None of the Above
10. It is a type of biological unit processes that remove biodegradable organic substances (whether colloidal or dissolved) in the wastewater either in the presence or absence of oxygen.
(A) Aerobic (B) Anaerobic (C) Diaerobic
(D) None of the above
11. In the process of ozone depletion, it is the element that gets recycled thus rendering its long lifetime in the atmosphere.
(A) Carbon (B) Chlorine (C) Oxygen (D) Fluorine
12. It is an odorless and colorless gas that is lethal to humans with exposure as short as a few minutes to concentrations exceeding 5000 ppm. It reacts with hemoglobin in the blood rendering the latter incapable of carrying oxygen to the body.
(A) Carbon Monoxide (B) Nitrogen Dioxide (C) Sulfur Dioxide (D) Sulfur Trioxide
13. In a BOD determination, 6 mL of wastewater are mixed with 294 mL of diluting water
containing 8.6 mg/ L of dissolved oxygen. After a 5 day incubation at 200C, the dissolved
oxygen content of the mixture is 5.4 mg/L, Calculate the BOD of the wastewater. Assume that the initial DO of the wastewater is zero.
(A) 147.1 mg/L (B) 156.8 mg/L (C) 160 mg/L
(D) None of the above
14. It is the most common wastewater treatment disinfection method used due to its easy and cheap implementation.
(B) Chlorination (C) UV Disinfection
(D) Membrabe Separation
15. According to DENR’s Administrative Order 34 on the Classification and Water Quality
Criteria for bodies of water, industrial water supply and fishery water is considered as class (A) A
(B) B (C) C (D) D
CHE CALCULATIONS
1. It is the fraction of a stream that is bypassed from further processing in order to be subjected to an earlier unit process.
(A) Bypass Ratio
(B) Feed – Product Ratio (C) Product – Feed Ratio (D) None of the above
2. A solid material with 15% w/w water is dried to 7% under the following conditions. Fresh air is mixed with recycled air and it is blown over the solid. The fresh air contains 0.01 lb water/ lb dry air and the recycled air, which is part of the air leaving the dryer, contains 0.1 lb water/ lb dry air. The proportions of fresh and recycled air are adjusted so that the mixture entering the dryer contains 0.03 lbs water/ lb dry air. How many pounds of dry air are in the fresh air feed per 100 lbs of wet materials.
(A) 8.60 (B) 27.34 (C) 95.60
(D) None of the above
3. How many pounds of dry air are recycled per 100 lbs of wet material? (A) 8.60
(B) 27.30 (C) 95.60
(D) None of the above
4. A furnace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture, 18%VCM, 67% FC, and 9% ash. The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23% FC, and 62% ash. The higher heating value of the
coal as fired is 14.300 Btu/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating value of the coal that is lost in the refuse. Assume that the moisture in the refuse is due to the ‘wetting down’ to prevent dusting and not moisture from the original coal/
(A) 4.68% (B) 7.02% (C) 9.36% (D) 15.0%
5. It is the temperature at which the Fahrenheit scale is equal to the Celsius scale. (A) 40
(B) 32 (C) -40 (D) -32
6. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 100 grams of glucose? (A) 107 grams
(B) 112 grams (C) 120 grams
(D) None of the above
7. There are the materials which do not directly participate in the actual process but they do not come out as part of the product.
(A) Premium Materials (B) Ancillary Materials (C) Auxiliary Materials (D) Primary Materials
8. A distillation column separates 10,000 kg/hr of a 50-50 benzene toluene mixture. The product recovered from the condenser at the top of the column contains 95% benzene and the bottom contains 96% toluene. The vapor stream entering the condenser from the top of the column is 8000 kg/hr. A portion of the product from the condenser is returned to the column as reflux and the rest is withdrawn for other use. What is the flow rate at the bottom of the column?
(A) 2950 kg/hr (B) 4950 kg/hr (C) 5050 kg/hr (D) 6450 kg/hr
(A) 46% (B) 58% (C) 60% (D) 78%
10. All of the following are non-separation unit operations except: (A) Ion Exchange
(B) Agglomeration (C) Pelletizing (D) Grinding
11. It is the stream bled off to remove an accumulation of inerts or unwanted material that might otherwise build up in the recycle stream.
(A) Bypass stream (B) Screening stream (C) Separation stream (D) Purge stream
12. Butane is burned with 50% excess air. The percent conversion is 90% and 25% of which reacts to form CO. What is the percentage carbon dioxide in the dry flue gas?
(A) 0.2% (B) 2% (C) 6% (D) 10%
13. What is the percentage of flue gas in ten previous problem? (A) 8.8%
(B) 9.1% (C) 10%
(D) None of the above
14. What is the mass percent of oxygen in E10? (A) 3.7%
(B) 7.4% (C) 10%
15. One thousand kg/hr of wet solid containing 60% moisture is to be dried using 20, 000 kg/hr air, whose humidity is initially at 0.01 kg water/ kg dry air.Find the final humidity of the air if the solid needs to be reduced to 10% moisture.
(A) 0.0191 kg water/ kg dry air (B) 0.0510 kg water/ kg dry air (C) 0.0416 kg water/ kg dry air (D) 0.0382 kg water/ kg dry air
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
The temperature dependence of the vapor pressure of solid and liquid SO2 can be
approximated by the following relationships respectively:
Log (P/Torr) = 10.5916 – 1871.2/ (T/K) Log (P/Torr) = 83186 – 1425.7/ (T/K)
1. Estimate the temperature of the triple point of SO2.
(A) 19.6 K (B) 196 K
(C) 19.60C
(D) 1960C
2. Estimate the pressure of the triple point of SO2.
(A) 111 torr (B) 11.1 torr (C) 1045 torr (D) 1.045 torr
3. If a 10.0 A of current were passed through a alead storage cell for 1.5 hours during a
charging process, how much PbSO4 would decompose?
(A) 85 grams (B) 170 grams (C) 255 grams
(D) None of the above
4. Which of the following is another name for a ‘dry cell’? (A) Galvanic cell
(B) Daniell cell (C) Leclanche cell
(D) None of the above
5. Given ∆G298/kJ-mol-1= 0 for Zn(s) and Cu(s), -147.06 for Zn2+(aq) and 65.49 for
Cu2+(aq), calculate the cell potential at the given condition.
(A) 1.101 V (B) 1.011 V (C) 1.010 V (D) 1.110 V
6. What can be concluded about the previously described cell? (A) It is spontaneous at the given conditions
(B) It is non-spontaneous at the given conditions
(C) It may be both spontaneous and non-spontaneous at the given conditions (D) Its spontaneity cannot be determined at the given conditions.
7. At the triple point of water, ice, liquid water and water vapor are in equilibrium pressure of 4.58 mmHg. At this temperature, the heat of fusion and vaporization of water is 1436 cal/mol and 10, 767 cal/mol respectively. Find the heat of sublimation of ice.
(A) 9331 cal/mole (B) 7895 cal/mole (C) 13, 639 cal/mole (D) 12, 203 cal/mole
8. What is the corresponding entropy of sublimation per mole of the substance? (A) 44.7 eu/mole
(B) 49.93 eu/mole (C) 28.90 eu/mole (D) 34.16 eu/mole
9. Calculate the change in the molar Gibbs free energy of hydrogen gas when it is compressed isothermally from 1 atm to 100 at, at 298K.
(A) 15 kJ/mole (B) 11 kJ/mole (C) -15 kJ/mole (D) -11 kJ/mole
A sample of 3.0 moles of a perfect diatomic gas at 200 K is compressed reversibly and adiabatically until its temperature reaches 250K. Given that Cv = 27.5 J/mol-K,
(A) 0 J
(B) -4.1x103 J
(C) 4.1x103 J
(D) 5.4x103 J
11. Calculate the work associated with the process. (A) 0 J
(B) -4.1x103 J
(C) 4.1x103 J
(D) 5.4x103 J
12. Calculate the change in internal energy of the system. (A) 0J
(B) -4.1x103 J
(C) 4.1x103 J
(D) 5.4x103 J
13. Calculate the change in the enthalpy of the system. (A) 0 J
(B) -4.1x103 J
(C) 4.1x103 J
(D) 5.4x103 J
14. Calculate the entropy suffered by the system. (A) 0 J
(B) -4.1x103 J
(C) 4.1x103 J
(D) 5.4x103 J
15. The fugacity coefficient of a certain gas at 200 K and 50 bar is 0.72. Calculate the difference of its chemical potential from that of a perfect gas in the same state.
(A) -0.25 kJ/mole (B) 0.25 kJ/mole (C) -0.55 kJ/mole (D) 0.55 kJ/mole
PLANT DESIGN
1. In plant and equipment design, our role as chemical engineer are the following except: (A) To design new plant and expansion lines
(C) To develop new technologies
(D) To construct the plant and/or equipment
2. This is the first step in plant and equipment design (A) Feasibility study
(B) Development of optimum economic design (C) Detailed engineering design
(D) Costing
3. The following are parts of a feasibility study, except: (A) Market Research
(B) Technical Feasibility (C) Financial Statement (D) Economics
4. It describes the general sequence of materials, unit operations and processes involved, equipment, and operating parameters.
(A) Qualitative flow diagram (B) Quantitative flow diagram (C) Combined-detail flow diagram (D) Detailed-estimate flow diagram
5. The following are main considerations for choice of material of construction except: (A) Chemical compatibility
(B) Resale Value
(C) Working pressure/ temperature range (D) Cost
6. This is the most suited material of construction for a vessel containing hydrochloric acid: (A) Stainless steel
(B) Monel (C) Aluminum (D) Carbon Steel
7. The general term for steel alloy containing high contents of chromium and nickel is: (A) Galvanized steel
(B) Mild steel (C) Monel
8. The 18-8 stainless steel is the most commonly used stainless steel. It contains: (A) 18% chromium, 8% nickel
(B) 18% nickel, 8% chromium (C) 18% copper, 8% nickel (D) 18% nickel, 8% copper
9. Which is not included in the market study? (A) Present and future demands
(B) Buying habits (C) Competition (D) Location
10. This is the most important part of a feasibility study un the eyes of an investor. (A) Market Study
(B) Technical Study (C) Economic Study (D) Financial Study
CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES (CPI)
1. The main product of a lime-soda process is: (A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Sodium Hydroxide (C) Sodium carbonate (D) Sodium Chloride
2. This is the main source of aluminum in the earth’s crust (A) Bauxite
(B) Hematite (C) Pyrite (D) Sphalerite
3. The following plant nutrients and exclusively found in soil, except: (A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphorus (C) Potassium (D) Carbon
4. The process of refining bauxite to pure alumina is called
(A) Hall’s Process
(B) Wohler Process (C) Devile Process
(D) Baeyer’s Process
5. Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid? (A) Stearic acid
(B) Oleic Acid (C) Linoleic Acid (D) Linolenic Acid
6. The fatty acid has 12 carbons, no double bond, and normally found in coconut oil and palm kernel
(A) Lauric Acid (B) Myristic Acid (C) Palmitic Acid (D) Stearic Acid 7. Polytetrafluoroethylene is known as ______________. (A) Bakelite (B) Teflon (C) Celluloid (D) Dacron
8. This process of metal preparation creates a layer of chromium oxide in stainless steel, making it more resistant to corrosion
(A) Passivation (B) Oxidation (C) Chrome Plating (D) None of the above
9. When you buy RBD oil, it means that the oil has been subjected to (A) Refining, bleaching, degumming
(B) Refining, blanching, degumming
(C) Reconstruction, blanching, deodorization (D) Refining, bleaching, deodorization
(A) Gums (B) Soaps (C) Waxes
(D) All of the above
THERMODYNAMICS
1. As pressure approaches zero, the ratio of fugacity to pressure (f/P) for a gas approaches
(A) Unity (B) Zero (C) Infinity
(D) An indeterminate value
2. When a system is in equilibrium for all possible processes, the differential or finite change of entropy is
(A) None of these (B) <0
(C) =0 (D) >0
3. A supply line carries a two phase liquid vapour mixture of steam at 300 lb/in2. A small
fraction of the flow in the line is diverted through a throttling calorimeter and exhausted
to the atmosphere at 14.7 lb/in2 and a temperature of 2500F. Determine the quality of
the supply steam. (A) 0.74
(B) 0.86 (C) 0.91 (D) 0.96
4. Fifty five gallons of water passes through a heat exchanger and absorbs 28, 000 BTU of heat. The exit temperature is 570 R. What is the inlet water temperature in F?
(A) 68 (B) 56 (C) 49 (D) 42
5. The kind of process does not involve any amount of heat transfer. (A) Isothermal
(B) Reversible (C) Isentropic
(D) None of the Above
6. A system consists of moist air and water inside a closed container. What is this system’s degree of freedom?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
7. Which of the following uses air as a typical working fluid? (A) Carnot Cycle
(B) Rankine Cycle (C) Reheat Cycle (D) Brayton Cycle
8. A tank holds nitrogen gas at 820C and 940mmHg. After releasing 2 grams of the gas,
the remaining contents inside the tank then exerts a pressure of 480 mmHg at 300C.
How much nitrogen gas was originally in the tank? (A) 3.0 g
(B) 5.0 g (C) 139.4 g (D) 154.3 g
9. The state of a thermodynamic system is always defined by its _______. (A) Absolute temperature
(B) Process (C) Pressure (D) Properties
10. If 6 liters of a gas at a pressure of 100 kPa are compressed erversibly according to PV2
= C until the volume is a third of its original amount, how much work was sued for compression?
(A) +600 J
(B) – 600 J
(C) + 1200 J
11. Which of the following processes is accompanied by an increase in entropy? (A) Condensation of water vapor
(B) Formation of ice (C) Melting of Ice
(D) Isothermal compression of air
12. In a constant volume, non-flow process, this quantity may be considered zero. (A) Internal energy
(B) Enthalpy (C) Heat (D) Work
13. What is the maximum thermal efficiency of an ideal reversible heat engine operating
between 15400F and 340 0F?
(A) 22% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 78%
14. The First Law of Thermodynamics states that:
(A) Heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work. (B) Internal energy is due to molecular action
(C) Heat can only be transferred from a body of higher temperature to one that is lower. (D) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
15. The main feature of Carnot refrigeration is that, it (A) Accomplishes the reverse effect of heat engine
(B) Transfers heat form high temperature to low temperature (C) Does not need the addition of external work for its functioning (D) None of these
