pollen storage
6. How is malacophily different from myrmecophily?
three categories depending upon the benefits (rewards) which they provide to the pollinators :
Food providing flowers,
– e.g., Salvia and bees,
humming birds and Bignonia, sun birds and Strelitzia.
Sex providing flowers,
Pollination of flowers by means of bats is called
•
chiropterophily. Bat pollinated flowers are dull-coloured with strong fermenting or fruity smell, abundant nectar and pollen grains. Examples of chiropterophilous plants are Kigelia, Adansonia, etc.
Malacophily
Pollination by snails is called malacophily. This type of
•
Pollen-pistil interaction determines the suitability
–
of pollen for carrying out the process of sexual reproduction.
followed by the process of fertilisation. Fertilisation eventually leads to development of seeds containing embryo.
Organic solvents :
4. “Geitonogamy is genetically equivalent to self pollination but ecologically it is cross pollination”. Justify this statement.
5. Give two characteristic features of entomophilous flowers.
6. How is malacophily different from myrmecophily?
MTBIOLOGY TODAY|JULY ‘15 59 1. The device that guides the pollen tube in the cavity of ovary
is
(a) obturator (b) transmitting tissue (c) placenta (d) synergids.
2. Which one is the female gamete in embryo sac?
(a) Synergid (b) Antipodal cell (c) Oosphere (d) Central cell 3. Embryo sac represents
(a) megaspore (b) megagametophyte (c) megasporophyll (d) megagamete.
4. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule?
(a) It brings about opening of the pollen tube.
(b) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg.
(c) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid.
(d) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac.
5. If there are 4 pollen mother cells in an anther, what will be the number of pollen grains?
(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 4
6. An ovule in which the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angle to the funicle is
(a) hemitropous (b) campylotropous (c) anatropous (d) orthotropous.
7. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of
(a) generative cell (b) vegetative cell (c) microspore mother cell (d) microspore.
8. In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte is derived from a pollen mother cell by
(a) two mitotic divisions
(b) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions (c) three mitotic divisions
(d) a single meiotic division.
9. A plant has 24 chromosomes in “microspore mother cell”.
The number of chromosomes in its endosperm will be (a) 36 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 48.
10. Pollen grains are shed at which stage?
(a) 2 celled (b) 3 celled
(c) Usually at 2-celled, but sometimes at 3-celled (d) Single celled
11. The sequence of development of embryo sac is
(a) archesporium → megaspore → megasporangium → embryo sac
(b) archesporium → megaspore → megaspore mother cell → embryo sac
(c) archesporium → megaspore mother cell → megaspore
→ embryo sac
(d) megaspore mother cell → archesporium → megaspore
→ embryo sac.
12. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is eight nucleate and
(a) single celled (b) four celled (c) seven celled (d) eight celled.
13. Given figure represents the four wall layers (P, Q, R and S) of an anther. Cells of which of the following layers develop fibrous thickenings of a-cellulose on the inner and radial walls, and help in the process of dehiscence?
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S
14. The egg apparatus of angiosperm comprises (a) an egg cell and two antipodals (b) an egg cell and two synergids (c) an egg cell and two polar nuclei (d) an egg cell and the central cell.
15. Exine of pollen grain is made up of a highly resistant fatty substance called
(a) pectocellulose (b) lignocellulose (c) sporopollenin (d) pollen kit.
16. Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false ?
(a) Exine is made up of sporopollenin.
(b) Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic materials.
(c) Exine has apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is present.
(d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids.
17. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into (a) embryo sac (b) ovule
(c) endosperm (d) pollen sac.
18. Pollination by the agency of snails is known as (a) ornithophily (b) chiropterophily (c) entomophily (d) malacophily.
19. One advantage of cleistogamy is (a) it leads to greater genetic diversity
(b) seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread (c) seed set is not dependent on pollinators
(d) each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains.
20. Chiropterophily means
(a) pollination by snails (b) pollination by bats (c) pollination by wind (d) pollination by insects.
21. Wind pollinated flowers are
(a) small, brightly coloured, producing few pollen grains (b) small, producing large number of dry pollen grains (c) large, producing abundant nectar and pollen grains (d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen grains.
22. The type of pollination involving transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of the same flower is known as (a) geitonogamy (b) xenogamy
(c) autogamy (d) apogamy.
23. The type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen grain to the stigma of a plant is called
(a) xenogamy (b) geitonogamy (c) chasmogamy (d) autogamy.
24. Maize and grasses are generally pollinated by (a) bees (b) butterflies
(c) birds (d) wind.
25. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
1. Funicle A. Small opening of ovule 2. Integuments B. Stalk of ovule
3. Chalaza C. Protective envelopes of ovule
4. Hilum D. Junction part of ovule and stalk
5. Micropyle E. Basal part of the ovule (a) 1-B; 2-C; 3-E; 4-D; 5-A
(b) 1-A; 2-C; 3-B; 4-D; 5-E (c) 1-B; 2-C; 3-A; 4-D; 5-E (d) 1-B; 2-D; 3-E; 4-A; 5-C
26. Even in absence of pollinating agents, seed-setting is assured in
(a) Commellina (b) Zostera
(c) Salvia (d) fig.
27. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
(a) Nucellus and antipodal cells (b) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus (c) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells (d) Egg cell and antipodal cells
28. Study the given figure of an embryo sac and select the correct option regarding A, B, C and D.
(a) Cells labelled as ‘A’ are ususally present at micropylar end.
(b) Cells labelled as ‘C’ and ‘D’ are usually present at chalazal end.
(c) ‘B’ represents polar nuclei which may fuse to form a diploid secondary nucleus.
(d) Cells labelled as ‘A’ are diploid cells.
29. Select the incorrect statement regarding sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
(a) Pollen grain is the first cell of male gametophyte.
(b) An ovule represents integumented megasporangium.
(c) Nucellus of the ovule is a diploid structure.
(d) Stamen is equivalent to megasporophyll.
30. Microsporogenesis is the (a) formation of megaspore (b) formation of pollen grain
(c) development of male gametophyte (d) development of female gametophyte.
Answer Key
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
MTBIOLOGY TODAY|July ‘15 61 1. Troublesome American water weed found in India is
(a) Vallisneria (b) Eichhornia (c) Hydrilla (d) Lemna.
2. Endangered plant species are conserved through (a) herbarium (b) cryopreservation (c) gene bank (d) tissue culture.
3. Which of the following regions of our country are known for their rich biodiversity?
(a) Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas (b) Western Ghats and Deccan Plateau (c) Eastern Himalayas and Gangetic Plain (d) Trans Himalayas and Deccan Peninsula 4. The worst threat to wildlife is by
(a) habitat destruction (b) hunting (c) overgrazing (d) exotic species.
5. Breeding place of Flamingo (Hansawar) in India is (a) Sambhar lake (b) Chilka lake (c) Rann of Kutch (d) Ghana Vihar.
6. A woman with blood group “O” has a child with blood group“O”. If she claims a friend of hers with blood group
‘A’ as father of the child, the genotype of the father should be
(a) I OI O (b) I AI B (c) I AI O (d) I BI O.
7. Gene sequencing has been done for a number of organisms.
Among the four organisms given below choose the organism not sequenced.
(a) Drosophila melanogaster (b) Saccharomyces (c) Oryza sativa (d) Solanum tuberosum
8. Stanley Miller and urey proved abiotic origin of life by using one of the following sets of chemicals in the lab.
(a) CH4, H2, NH3 (b) CH4, H2, NH3, O2 (c) CH4 and NH3 (d) CH4, H2, O2
9. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination show
(a) a direct relationship (b) an inverse relationship (c) a parallel relationship (d) no relationship.
10. Fossils act as evidences of organic evolution. Which one of these features does not justify the feature of fossils?
(a) They are remains of hard parts of life forms that existed in the past.
(b) They are the remains of decayed and decomposed body parts.
(c) Fossils present in the lower strata of the earth are older than those present in the upper strata.
(d) Study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which they existed.
11. Development of hybrid varieties of plants and better milk yielding varieties of cows is an example of
(a) natural selection (b) artificial selection (c) mutation (d) divergent evolution.
12. According to the theory of spontaneous generation (a) life originated from outer space
(b) life originated from decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
(c) life came from pre-existing life
(d) life came from both living and non-living matter.
13. The chromosomal pattern of Klinefelter’s syndrome is
(a) XXX (b) XXy
(c) XO (d) Xyy.
14. The most important component of oral contraceptive pill is (a) progesterone (b) growth hormone
(c) thyroxine (d) luteinizing hormone.
15. Papaya is a dioecious plant. This condition prevents (a) both autogamy and geitonogamy
(b) only autogamy (c) only xenogamy (d) geitonogamy.
COMEDK
COMEDK
16. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (i-iv) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:
Method Mode of Action
A. The pill (i) Prevents sperms reaching cervix B. Condom (ii) Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy (iii) Prevents ovulation D. Copper T (iv) Semen contains no sperms (a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) (c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
17. There are various types of reproduction, the type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on
(a) the habitat and morphology of organism (b) morphology of organism
(c) morphology and physiology of organism
(d) the organism’s habitat, physiology and genetic make up.
18. The tissue that nourishes the developing pollen grains is (a) tapetum (b) endothecium
(c) endothelium (d) middle layer.
19. A few plants exhibit unusual flowering phenomenon, which of them flower only once in their life time, generally after 50-100 years and produce large number of fruits?
(a) Strobilanthus kunthiana (b) Bamboo
(c) Calistemon linearis (d) Cymbopogon reptocus 20. The girth or diameter of the stem increases due to the
activity of the following.
(a) Apical meristems (b) Intercalary meristems (c) lateral meristems (d) Parenchyma cells
21. leafy green stems of limited growth modified to perform photosynthesis are called as
(a) phyllode (b) phylloclade (c) cladode (d) foliar stipules.
22. Intercalated discs occur (a) between neurons
(b) between cardiac muscle fibres
(c) at the junction of muscle and nerve cells (d) in stripe muscles.
23. What is the advantage in clinical use of humulin (human insulin produced through rDNA technique) over use of conventional ox or pig insulin?
(a) It does not cause immunological problems.
(b) It is cheaper for the patient.
(c) It is produced by E.coli in our own intestine.
(d) There is no advantage.
24. One of the advantages of developing transgenic mice is that it is very useful
(a) to study vaccine safety
(b) in producing new varieties of mice (c) in developing a show piece example (d) in gene targeting.
25. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram.
(a) A-ori, B-ampR, C-tetR, D-Hind III (b) A-Hind III, B-tetR, C-ampR, D-ori (c) A-ampR, B-tetR, C-Hind III, D-ori (d) A-tetR, B-Hind III, C-ori, D-ampR
26. The biological product created by the introduction of portions of DNA which codes for a-1 antitrypsin, is used to treat
(a) emphysema (b) asthma (c) bronchitis (d) cystic fibrosis.
27. What is true of Bt toxin?
(a) The concerned bacillus has anti toxin.
(b) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the bacillus.
(c) The inactive protein gets converted into active form in the insect gut.
(d) Activate toxin enters ovaries of pest and sterilize them.
28. Which one of these is not a tool of recombinant DNA technology?
(a) Restriction enzyme (b) Vector (c) Polymerase enzyme (d) Introns
29. The breeding of the unrelated animals which may be between individuals of the same breed, (but having no common ancestors), or between different breeds or different species is known as
(a) interspecific hybridisation (b) out-breeding
(c) out-crossing (d) cross-breeding.
30. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in Abelmoschus esculentus was transferred from a wild species and resulted in a new variety called
(a) Sehore (b) Raphanus sativus (c) Parbhani kranti (d) Musa pudica.
MTBIOLOGY TODAY|July ‘15 63 31. The Plasmodium initially multiplies within the liver cells and
then attacks the red blood cells, resulting in their rupture.
The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance
(a) hirudin (b) heparin (c) heptoin (d) haemozoin.
32. When are interferons secreted in the body?
(a) When antibody reacts with antigen in our body.
(b) When serotonin becomes active.
(c) When lymphocytes become active.
(d) When the cells are infected by virus.
33. Dr. Alexander Fleming observed inhibition zone around a blue mould in a contaminated Staphylococcus culture Petri plate. This led to the discovery of
(a) antibiotics (b) antitoxins (c) antibodies (d) antigens.
34. MOET is a programme that is used to increase (a) herd size (b) disease resistance (c) biomass (d) yield.
35. Nomenclature of enzymes is done on the basis of (a) the substrate on which they act
(b) the type of reactions they catalyse (c) the end products formed
(d) the co-factors they are associated with.
36. Some cells in adult animals do not divide. They exit G1 phase and enter an inactive stage which is called as
(a) G2 phase (b) G0 phase (c) S phase (d) M phase.
37. Which of the below mentioned structures does not form a part of the endomembrane system?
(a) Golgi complex (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Mitochondria (d) Vacuoles
38. Which of the 4 names are correctly written as per rules of binomial nomenclature?
(a) SOlANuM MElONGENA (b) Solanum melongena (c) Solanum Melongena (d) solanum melongena
39. Which of the following is correctly matched with its particular toxonomic category?
(a) Triticum aestivum - Species (b) Fishes - Pisces - Phylum (c) Man - Primate - Family (d) Mango - Sapindales - Class
40. The group of fungi that are called fungi imperfecti are (a) Ascomycetes (b) Zygomycetes
(c) Deuteromycetes (d) Basidiomycetes.
41. If the energy produced at the level of the producers is 1000 J, the energy available for the secondary consumers is
(a) 1000 J (b) 100 J
(c) 10 J (d) 1 J.
42. For the sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycles the reservoir is
(a) atmosphere (b) water
(c) earth’s crust (d) living organisms.
43. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from the target organ, the target organ will
(a) continue to respond to hormone (b) not respond to hormone
(c) continue to respond but requires higher concentration (d) continue to respond, but in the opposite direction.
44. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesized in
(a) kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys (b) liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys (c) kidneys but mostly eliminated through liver (d) liver and also eliminated by the same through bile.
45. The flight muscles in an eagle has more of aerobic muscles.
These muscles are also called “Red fibre” because they are rich in
(a) haemoglobin (b) sarcoplasmic reticulum (c) myoglobin (d) globulin.
46. The correct path followed by sound waves from external ear to inner ear is
(a) ear drum - basilar membrane - auditory ossicles - fluid of cochlea - hair cells
(b) ear drum - auditory ossicles - fluid of cochlea - basilar membrane - hair cells
(c) ear drum - fluid of cochlea - auditory ossicles - hair cells - basilar membrane
(d) ear drum - hair cells - auditory ossicles - basilar membrane - fluid of cochlea.
47. The lobe of pituitary that secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone is
(a) anterior lobe (b) posterior lobe (c) intermediate lobe (d) none of above.
48. Transport proteins of endodermal cells are control points, where a plant adjusts the quantity and type of solutes that reach the xylem. Root endodermis is able to actively transport ions in one direction only because of the layer of
(a) actin (b) lignin
(c) suberin (d) cellulose.
49. Water potential gradient between the absorbent and the liquid imbibed is essential for imbibition. In addition, for any substance to imbibe any liquid, one of the following is also a prerequisite.
(a) Affinity between the adsorbant and the liquid (b) Molecular density of the adsorbant
(c) Concentration of the adsorbant (d) Pressure potential of the adsorbant
50. The hormone that promotes rapid elongation of internode or petiole in deep water rice plant is
(a) abscisic acid (b) ethylene (c) cytokinin (d) gibberellin.
51. Which of the below mentioned properties is not true with respect to facilitated transport?
(a) Requires special membrane proteins (b) Transport saturates
(c) uphill transport (d) Highly selective
52. Conversion of pyruvic acid into ethyl alcohol is facilitated by the enzymes
(a) carboxylase (b) phosphatase (c) dehydrogenase
(d) decarboxylase and dehydrogenase.
53. Which of the following is responsible for the production of progesterone, (the hormone responsible for the maintenance of endometrium)?
(a) uterus (b) Graafian follicle (c) Corpus luteum (d) Ovary
54. The number of chromosomes in meiocyte (2n) in apple is
(a) 24 (b) 380
(c) 34 (d) 20.
55. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by (a) blocking Fallopian tube
(b) inhibiting release of FSH and lH (c) stimulating release of FSH and lH
(d) causing immediate degeneration of released ovum.
56. A true fruit is one in which the fleshy part of the fruit is derived from the
(a) thalamus (b) ovary
(c) inflorescence axis (d) apocarpus gynoecium.
57. The sequence of amino acids in a protein is determined by (a) genetic code (b) m-RNA
(c) t-RNA (d) r-RNA.
58. One of the methods by which DNA cannot be transferred to the host cell is by
(a) microinjection (b) gene gun
(c) disarmed pathogen vectors (d) polymerase chain reaction.
59. Which of the following sequence is correct for the origin of lysosome?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi complex → lysosomes (b) Nuclear membrane → Golgi complex → lysosomes (c) Endoplasmic complex → Vacuoles → lysosomes (d) Mitochondria → Golgi complex → lysosomes 60. A patient with bleeding gums is advised to take fresh fruits
and vegetables in diet specially because he suffers from (a) scurvy (b) night blindness (c) beri-beri (d) anaemia.
Answer Key
1. (b) 2. (b, c & d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (None) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a & b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (a)