Radio Navigation

Exam 2, 65 Questions. Time allowed: 1hr 30min.

A B C D

1 b 21 b 41 a 61 b

2 b 22 b 42 c 62 b

3 a 23 b 43 d 63 d

4 a 24 a 44 b 64 d

5 a 25 c 45 b 65 b

6 a 26 c 46 c

7 a 27 d 47 d

8 a 28 b 48 b

9 a 29 d 49 d

10 a 30 c 50 b 11 a 31 b 51 d 12 a 32 d 52 c 13 c 33 d 53 d 14 d 34 c 54 a 15 a 35 c 55 c 16 c 36 d 56 a

17 d 37 b 57 c

18 d 38 d 58 b

19 d 39 d 59 a

20 c 40 b 60 d

Exam 3 - 65 Questions, time allowed 90 minutes 1. Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:

(a) 3000 to 30000 MHz (b) 3000 to 30000 KHz (c) 300 to 3000 MHz (d) 300 to 3000 KHz

2. On an HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) used in combination with a VOR receiver

(a) A pictorial presentation of aircraft deviation relative to VOR radials is provided

(b) The lubber line will indicate the reciprocal value of the received radial

(d) There will be no Omni Bearing Selector knob, as this function is automatic on this type of indicator

3. With regard to types of transmission, which statement is true:

(a) continuous wave transmission varies only in amplitude (b) pulse transmission is suitable only for periodic NDB's

(d) continuous wave transmission can be either frequency or amplitude modulated

4. A VOR indication of 240° FROM is given. Variation at the aircraft is 9W and at the VOR is 7W. The heading °(T) in nil wind to reach the station is:

(a) 231 (b) 051 (c) 053 (d) 233

5. An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000° defined by a VOR ahead of the aircraft. Variation at the VOR is 5E. At 60nm to go the QDM is 004. The aircraft's position relative to the airway lateral boundary is:

(a) 3nm inside the airways eastern boundary (b) 1nm inside the airways western boundary (c) 1nm outside the airways western boundary (d) 1nm inside the airways eastern boundary

B A

6 In the propagation diagram above the correct sequence for letters A, B, C and D is:

A B C D

(a) dead space skip distance sky wave ground wave (b) dead space skip distance ground wave sky wave (c) skip distance dead space sky wave ground wave (d) skip distance dead space ground wave sky wave 7. MLS consists of:

(a) a common azimuth and elevation transmitter

(b) overlapping centre-line lobe transmission in azimuth angled to provide glide slope information

(d) an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on a shared frequency and a DME

8. What antennae must be used to obtain an ADF bearing?

(a) Loop (b) Sense

9. For long range NDB's the most common type is:

(a) LF NON AlA (b) LF NON A2A (c) MF NON A1A (d) MF NON A2A

10. The maximum safe 'fly-up' indication on the glidepath needle (assuming a 5-dot indicator) is

(a) 2 dots (b) 1.5 dots (c) 2.5 dots (d) 1 dot

11. An aircraft is tracking the 255° radial inbound to VOR X. With 15° port drift which of the following indications will be correct when crossing the 121°

radial from VOR Y?

12. Attenuation of radio waves means:- (a) the weakening of the radiated waves (b) the atmospheric bending of the waves

13. The geodetic reference system used to define latitude and longitude by GPS equipment is:-

(a) UKGRS 90 (b) GDR 95 (c) OSGB 36

14. Your QUJ is 335° by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same location is 12°W. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable signals in the aircraft's receivers from that VOR?

(a) 323°

(b) 347°

(d) 167°

15. If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: "your true bearing is 256°, class alpha." This means:-

(a) QTE accurate to ± 5°

(b) QUJ accurate to ± 3°

(d) QTE accurate to ± 2°

16. Use the 1 in 60 rule to determine the approximate height of an aircraft 3nm from touchdown on a 2.9° glide slope.

(a) 880 ft (b) 765 ft (c) 840 ft (d) 825 ft

17. The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR

(a) Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR

(b) Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR

(d) Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication

18. The transmission band used by INMARSAT is:

(a) HF

(b) VHF

(d) SHF

19. The maximum range of a primary pulse radar can be affected by:

(a) PRF

(b) pulse width

20. “DME is a ...radar which provides...distances between the aircraft and a ground...” Which sequence most accurately completes the above statement?

(a) primary accurate transmitter (b) secondary earth transmitter (c) secondary slant transponder (d) primary slant transponder 21. If a DME transponder becomes saturated it will;

(a) give preference to the nearest 100 aircraft

(b) give preference to the furthest aircraft up to a maximum of 70 (c) give preference to the aircraft with the strongest transmissions (d) give preference to the first 100 aircraft which interrogated it

22. The tilt angle on Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4°. If the beam width is 5° and the range of the cloud is 40nm, the height of the cloud above the aircraft is approximately:

(a) 3000 ft (b) 6000 ft (c) 4000 ft (d) 9000 ft

23. Which of the ILS signal presentations shown below indicates that the aircraft is at its maximum recommended deviation below the glidepath and is to the right of the centreline?

a) b)

c) d)

24. The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:

(a) 100 m to 10 m (b) 1 m to 100 cms (c) 10 m to 1m

(d) 100 cms to 10 cms

25. 119.70 Mhz is a typical frequency for;

(a) VOR

(b) Approach Control (c) DME

(d) ILS localiser

26. An aircraft bears 036°(T) from a VOR beacon. Its heading is 330°(T) and the variation at the beacon and aircraft is 8°E. What OBS setting would make the CDI needle central with 'TO' showing?

(a) 028°

(b) 208°

(d) 052°

27. In the diagram above the correct action to regain glide slope and centreline is:

(a) fly left and decrease descent rate (b) fly right and decrease descent rate (c) fly left and increase descent rate (d) fly right and increase descent rate

28. The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:- (a) a blue light and 2 dashes per sec of a 400 hz modulated tone (b) a white light and 6 dots per sec of a 30 hz modulated tone

(d) a blue light and 2 dashes per sec of a 1300 hz modulated signal

29. The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR (a) Is always directed towards the aircraft

(b) Is like a figure of 8 (c) Is a pencil beam

(d) Rotates at 30 revolutions per second

30. Microwave Landing Systems allow the aircraft to fix its position accurately in three dimensions by means of:

(a) timing the interval between pulses in azimuth and elevation and timing the delay for pulses to reach the aircraft to define range (b) information from four satellites transmitting microwaves

31. A radar which employs an interrogator/transponder technique is:

(a) primary radar

(b) continuous wave radar (c) secondary radar (d) Doppler radar

32. The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in nm is approximately

(a) 300 (b) 160 (c) 320 (d) 600

33. By using a random PRF the airborne DME can:- (a) prevent interference from random transmissions

(b) recognise a beacons reply among a mass of ground returns (c) reduce the effect of weather interference

(d) distinguish between its own replies and those replies triggered by other aircraft

34. Which sequence completes the following statement?

With regard to AWR, in the cosecant2 or ... beam ...is

progressively ... as distances ... to equalise screen brightness.

(a) weather power increased decrease (b) mapping power decreased decrease (c) weather gain decreased increase (d) mapping gain increased decrease

35. The phase difference between the VOR reference signal and the variable phase signal measured at an aircraft bearing 297°(T) from a VOR, where the magnetic variation is 23E, is:-

(a) 320°

(b) 274°

(d) none of the above

36. With regard to SSR which of the following statements is true:

(a) it is a secondary radar system operating in the UHF frequency band.

(b) mode A is used for identification, with mode C for automatic height information

(c) it is compulsory when flying in Upper Airspace and in the whole of U.K. controlled airspace under IFR to carry Mode A 4096 codes and also Mode C

(d) all of the above

37. What is the height of the cloud if an aircraft is at 5000ft, cloud range is 30nm, the AWR tilt angle is 5° and the beam width is 4°?

(a) 9000ft (b) 14000ft (c) 21000ft (d) 17000ft

38. The rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3° glide-slope at a GS of 140 kt is (a) 325

(b) 640 (c) 710 (d) 520

39. A hyperbolic position line joins all points of (a) equal range between two ground stations (b) zero phase difference between two signals (c) equal difference in range between two stations

(d) equal time taken by two simultaneous transmissions

40. When a Mode C check is carried out, and assuming the equipment is working without error, the Mode C will report an pressure altitude of 35,064 ft as flight level:

(a) 350 (b) 35064 (c) 3506 (d) 351

41. The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is its frequency?

respectively, with ….... suffering more from atmospheric attenuation.

(a) 1500nm l000nm MF (b) l000nm 500nm LF (c) l000nm 300nm MF

(d) 500nm l00nm LF

43. In UK airspace if an ATS unit is unable to verify the altitude of the aircraft or there is more than ... feet between height indication and pilot reported altitude, mode ... should be de-selected

(a) 300 Mode A (b) 200 Mode C (c) 300 Mode C (d) 200 Mode A

44. The needle of a Course Deviation Indicator is showing 3 dots right on a 5 dot OBI, with 268° set and FROM showing. What radial is the a/c on?

(a) 082 (b) 094

(d) 274

45. The AWR screen on the right is operating in the mapping mode.

Given that the magnetic heading is 018° and the

variation is 8°E the true bearing of the aircraft from the island is... and the ...

47. The 95% accuracy for ADF bearings of an NDB by day is:

(a) ± 2°

(b) ± 7°

(d) ± 3°

48. With reference to a VOR, the "cone of confusion" is:

(a) the area outside the DOC (b) the area overhead the VOR

(d) the area in which more than one VOR can be received on the same frequency

49. Accurate glidepath signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle relative to the horizontal. The angle is:-

(a) 0.45 x the glidepath angle (b) 5.25 x the glidepath angle (c) 1.35 x the glidepath angle (d) 1.75 x the glidepath angle

50. If a NDB with a transmitter power of 25KW which has a range of 50nm is adjusted to give a power output of 100KW the range of the NDB will be about

(a) 100 nm (b) 200 nm (c) 50 nm (d) 150 nm

51. The indications of a VOR in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are 075°(M) TO and deviation indicator central. A co-located NDB shows 012° relative. What are the drift and heading in °(M)?

(a) 12°S 087

(b) 12°P 063

(d) 12°P 087

52. The factor which determines the minimum range of a radar is:

(a) PRF

(b) Pulse interval (c) Pulse width

(d) Radio frequency of transmission

53. The max theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps is:

(a) 218 nm (b) 132 nm (c) 200 nm (d) 108 nm

54. When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected OFF for the

(a) tone signal on NONAlA (b) ident signal on NONAlA (c) tone signal on NONA2A (d) ident signal on NONA2A

55. A transmitter using a wavelength of 4 cm moves directly towards a receiver at 240m/sec. The doppler shift is... and of...

(a) negative 60 Hz (b) positive 6 KHz (c) negative 6 KHz (d) positive 60 Hz

56. In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have:

(a) a short pulse length (b) a high frequency (c) a long wavelength (d) a high PRF

57. The range (in nm) at which an aircraft flying at 8500ft wi1l receive a VHF transmission from a station 520ft amsl is:

(a) 115

(b) 144

(d) 131

58. The ILS localiser transmits VHF frequencies between:- (a) 108 and 117.95 Mhz

(b) 112 and 117.95 Mhz (c) 108 and 111.95 Mhz (d) 118 and 136.95 Mhz

59. With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if:

(a) the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country

(b) conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the stations classified limits

60. The ILS localiser signal provides azimuth guidance. The signal is made up of two lobes

(a) on the same frequency with the same modulation (b) on different frequencies with the same modulation (c) on different frequencies with different modulations (d) on the same frequency with different modulations

61. As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground wave will:-

(a) Increase (b) Decrease

62. With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is a:

(a) QDM (b) QDR (c) QUJ

(d) QTE

63. An aircraft is tracking 060° (T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB is 035° at 1300. 12 min later the relative bearing is 070°. If the G/S is 180kt, what is the aircraft's distance from the NDB at 1312

(a) 18 nm (b) 36 nm (c) 24 nm (d) 30 nm

64. A Class B VDF bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus:

(a) 2 degrees (b) 7 degrees (c) 3 degrees (d) 5 degrees

65. Night effect is a quoted NDB error. It refers to the mixing of the:

(a) Groundwave and sky waves from the station being used (b) Groundwave and sky waves from other stations