Future Business Leaders of America
2015 – 2016 Team Open Testing
PARLIAMENTARY PROCEDURE CONCEPTS –
MIDDLE LEVEL
Your team may work together but you may not refer to other reference materials or
other individuals outside of your team in answering the questions. You must
return your answer sheet within 30 minutes to be eligible.
1. Complete the information requested on the answer sheet or your test will not be graded.
NEATLY PRINT YOUR NAME on the first line following the word “NAME”. If there is more than one member of a team, PRINT all of your names on the back on the signature line.
Write the name of your SCHOOL on the “DATE” line (Spell out your school name).
2. All answers will be recorded on the answer sheet.
3. Read each question carefully before answering. When you have decided which answer is correct, find the space on the answer sheet following the number of the problem. With a pencil, BLACKEN THE ENTIRE SPACE in the proper column. Do not make any other marks on the answer sheet as the scoring machine will reject it.
4. Read each question carefully. You may be asked to give more than one answer per question. 5. Be sure to use a #2 pencil with an eraser.
6. You are allowed 30 minutes for completing the test.
7. If you are given TRUE/FALSE questions, answer True questions in the “A” column and False questions in the “B” column.
8. When you are finished with your test, bring it to your test proctor and you may leave. Ties will be broken based on the order the test was submitted.
DO NOT WRITE ON THIS TEST! This test will be reused.
If you write on it, your team will be disqualified.
Results will be announced at the Fall Leadership Conference for those tests taken at Rally.
2015 Georgia FBLA Team Open Testing – Parliamentary Procedure Concepts – Middle Level
1) A main motion is moved and seconded. Before the motion is stated by the chair, the maker rephrases the motion in a way that is unacceptable to the seconder. The seconder should
A) appeal from the decision of the chair. B) ask for a vote.
C) withdraw his second. D) rise to a point of order.
2) A main motion is still within the control of the assembly after A) the chair votes.
B) rejection by a negative vote. C) adoption.
D) it has been laid on the table.
3) A motion to go into executive session requires A) can only be made by the person in question. B) a majority vote.
C) a majority vote and previous notice. D) previous notice.
4) A quorum is:
A) the minimum number of members entitled to vote who must be present to legally transact business B) usually stated in the bylaws as a majority of the membership
C) at a convention, a majority of delegates elected to attend D) in a mass meeting, a majority of the members present 5) A second implies that the seconder:
A) agrees that the motion should come before the meeting B) agrees that the motion should be entered in the minutes C) will refrain from speaking against the motion
D) agrees that the motion should be implemented without change 6) A special committee
A) is on-going from administration to administration. B) is always created by the chair.
C) is always on the agenda.
D) ceases to exist when it makes its final report. 7) A tie vote:
A) can be considered a majority vote B) adopts the motion
C) requires the chair to break the tie D) permits the chair to break the tie
8) After the presiding officer calls a meeting to order, the next order of business is usually ____. A) Reports of officers
B) Unfinished business
C) Reading and approval of the minutes D) New business
9) All of the following motions can be amended except ____. A) Amend
B) Postpone indefinitely C) Commit
D) Postpone to a certain time
10) All of the privileged motions are: A) Amendable
B) Debatable
C) Able to be laid on the table D) Undebatable
11) All the following subsidiary motions can be amended except: A) Amend
B) Lay on the Table C) Refer to a Committee D) Postpone Definitely
12) An agenda sent to members in advance of a meeting: A) need not be voted upon for adopting
B) must be submitted for adoption C) is provided for information only D) is considered binding as to detail 13) An incidental main motion:
A) marks the beginning of a particular involvement of the assembly in a substantive matter B) always corresponds to secondary motions described by the same or similar names C) is usually presented in writing
D) is a main motion that relates to the business of the assembly, or its past or future action 14) Another name for a “special meeting” is a ____.
A) Regular meeting B) Session
C) Called meg D) Stated meeting
15) Any member has the right to
A) require that a voice vote be retaken as a rising vote when there is some doubt as to which side prevailed.
B) vote at the end of the meeting even though the votes has been taken. C) question the voice vote under any circumstances.
D) demand a counted vote
16) Before a member in a large assembly can speak in debate, he must A) have paid the dues required by the organization.
B) get the attention of the chair by raising his hand. C) voice his concerns to the parliamentarian.
D) obtain the floor
17) Before a motion has been stated by the chair:
A) if the motion is modified, the seconder can withdraw his second B) if the motion is modified, the seconder cannot withdraw his second C) another member cannot ask the maker to modify his motion
D) the mover can withdraw or modify it with permission 18) Before a motion may be discussed, what must it have?
A) Voted on first B) Substance C) Second
D) Agreed to be discussed by the chairperson
19) Business is brought before an assembly by a member making a formal proposal called a(n) ____. A) Memorandum
B) Order C) Agenda D) Motion
20) Corrections to the minutes A) may not be made at all.
B) may be made only immediately after they are read to the assembly. C) may be made at any time a mistake is discovered.
21) Executive session refers to:
A) any meeting or portion thereof at which proceedings are secret B) meetings of the executive committee
C) meetings open to the public D) specially called meetings
22) Fix the time to which to adjourn
A) does not affect when the present meeting will adjourn. B) is always a privileged motion.
C) is made by the chair.
D) is out of order when there is no meeting scheduled later in the same session. 23) How long can a member debate a motion at one time?
A) 10 minutes
B) There is not a limit to the amount of time a person can speak on a motion C) 5 minutes
D) 2 minutes
24) In a meeting, the motion to reconsider: A) may be made by any member
B) may be made by a member who did not vote
C) must be made by one who voted on the prevailing side D) may be made by one who voted on the losing side
25) In order to have a majority vote with 51 votes cast, there must be an affirmative vote of at least ____.
A) 25 B) 34 C) 26 D) 27
26) Members of an assembly
A) may vote only if their dues are paid. B) are required to vote.
C) may make motions, debate, and vote. D) cannot debate.
27) Subsidiary, privileged, and incidental motions are: A) ranking motions
B) privileged motions C) pending motions D) secondary motions
28) The basic device by which a matter is presented to the assembly for possible action is called the ____.
A) Floor
B) Original Main Motion C) Table
D) Chairman
29) The lowest ranking motion is A) Main motion
B) Postpone Indefinitely.
C) Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn. D) To Lay on the Table
30) The maker of a motion:
A) cannot vote against the motion
B) is not limited in the number of times to speak C) cannot speak against the motion
31) The motion to Lay on the Table ____. A) Is an incidental motion
B) Is not permissible C) Is a subsidiary motion D) Is a privileged motion
32) The motion to postpone indefinitely:
A) can be renewed during the same session if the main question is materially amended B) is a secondary motion
C) goes to a committee with the referred main motion
D) is ignored if pending when the main motion is laid on the table 33) The motion: “Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn” has what purpose:
A) establish when the next regular monthly meetings will be held
B) establish a time to continue the current meeting in order to complete business C) set time for ending the current session
D) none of these is the purpose. 34) The order of business:
A) begins with the call to order
B) is separate and distinct from the procedure of calling a meeting to order C) is mandatory in order to proceed with a meeting
D) may not be interrupted by any member 35) The term “meeting” means ____.
A) A single official gathering of the members of an organization B) A quarterly gathering of members of an organization
C) An official assembly of only officers of an organization D) An official assembly of officers and board of directors 36) The termination of a meeting is called a(n) ____.
A) Recess
B) Motion to Lay on the Table C) Question
D) Adjournment 37) To rescind is:
A) an incidental motion B) a privileged motion C) a subsidiary motion D) an incidental main motion
38) Unless there is a rule to the contrary, a member may speak A) twice on the same question on the same day.
B) twice during the same day. C) once during the same day. D) unlimited during the same day.
39) What follows old or unfinished business? A) Committee Reports
B) Call to Order C) Officer Reports D) New Business
40) What is a term to modify or change a motion? A) Question
B) Lay on the Table C) Amend
41) When a motion to Recess is made while another motion is pending, it: A) is a subsidiary motion.
B) is an incidental main motion. C) is a privileged motion. D) is an incidental motion.
42) When a proper motion has been made and seconded, the chair places it before the assembly by A) putting the question.
B) having the motion repeated by the maker of the motion. C) stating the question.
D) having the members vote.
43) When does the chair call the meeting to order?
A) if there is no quorum present, the chair adjourns the meeting B) the chair determines the time for calling the meeting to order
C) when the time for the meeting has arrived, the chair immediately calls the meeting to order D) the chair calls the meeting to order after he has determined that a quorum is present 44) Which of the following is not debatable?
A) to adjourn promptly at 5:00 p.m.
B) to dispense with the reading of the minutes
C) to postpone the pending question to the afternoon meeting D) to discharge a committee
45) Which of the following motions is the most common? A) Incidental
B) Subsidiary C) Privileged D) Main
46) Which series of motions below is arranged from lowest to highest precedence? A) Main motion, postpone indefinitely, amend, recess
B) Amend, main motion, recess, postpone indefinitely C) Recess, amend, postpone indefinitely, main motion D) Postpone indefinitely, amend, main motion, recess
47) Which statement is completely true about the maker of a motion: A) Cannot second, can debate (for or against) and can vote on motion
B) Cannot second, can debate for but not against, and can vote against the motion C) None of the above is correct
D) Can second, debate (for or against), vote on motion
48) Who is responsible for handling outside interruptions of meetings and has responsibility for conduct of members at meetings?
A) The Vice-President B) The sergeant-at-arms C) The treasurer
D) The parliamentarian
49) Who is responsible for running the business meeting? A) The parliamentarian
B) The historian C) The chairperson D) The treasurer
50) Who presides in the absence of the president? A) Secretary
B) Vice-President C) Parliamentarian D) Historian
2015 RALLY – PARLIAMENTARY PROCEDURE CONCEPTS – MIDDLE LEVEL 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) B 10 ) D 11 ) B 12 ) C 13 ) D 14 ) C 15 ) A 16 ) D 17 ) A 18 ) C 19 ) D 20 C ) 21 ) A 22 ) A 23 ) A 24 ) A 25 ) C 26 ) C 27 ) D 28 ) B 29 ) A 30 ) D 31 ) C 32 ) B 33 ) B 34 ) B 35 ) A 36 ) D 37 ) D 38 ) A 39 ) D 40 ) C 41 ) C 42 ) C 43 ) D 44 ) B 45 ) D 46 ) A 47 ) B 48 ) B 49 ) C 50 ) B
