REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete?
Answer: concrete cylinder sample 2. What is the test to determine the
consistency of concrete? Answer: Slump test
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?
Answer: 3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?
Answer: Reflectorized paint
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black cementitious material in which the predominating substance is bitumen? Answer: asphalt
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?
Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?
Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade 11. What kind of sample is taken for
flexural test?
Answer: concrete beam sample 12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650
cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)?
Answer: 3 grading tests
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as Item 200 if finer than the required materials?
Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?
Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively 16. What is the CBR requirement for Item
201?
Answer: 80% maximum
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
Answer: Blown Asphalt 18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH
Specification (Blue Book)?
Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?
Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201? Answer: by Field Density Test 21. What is the formula in obtaining the
value of PI?
Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical
Analysis
23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an actual moisture content
of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m3?
Answer: 101.86% dry den = wet den/mc+1 deg c =dd/mdd
24. How many concrete cores shall be taken
for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
Answer: 5 holes/km/lane
25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams? 162.5-138.2/138.2 Answer: 17.58%
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Answer: the soil is clayey
27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already oven – dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Answer: 110 ± 5°C
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable? Answer: because it can affect its
weight
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?
Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of an air – dried sample while NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of the original sample from the field.
31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample arepresents?
Answer: 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure using a pump Crete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be?
Answer: Super plasticizer
34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
Answer: as joint filler and water proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Answer: Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water?
Answer: 4 days @ 50°C
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?
Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition 38. Paint is composed of _____
Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing?
Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times. Answer: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 °F ± 3°F
Answer: Twenty – four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Answer: high degree of compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop 46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is
to be used for sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?
Answer: 60 blows/layer if 21in=63blows
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by weight of mix?
Answer: 5.10%
48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Answer: Cut – back asphalt
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate of approximately _____?
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range of asphalt content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this kind of soil?
Answer: 95% degree of compaction
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class “B”?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____? Answer: Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?
Answer: Once the source is identified
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is
the minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?
Answer: 3,000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m as shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload up to _____ percent above the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for strength, segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?
Answer: consistency
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____? Answer: consistency of concrete 62. How many samples should be taken for
an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the following amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.
Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in the project? Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the project? Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests 72. What composed of Materials Quality
Control Monthly Reports?
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how many samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing requirements. What program or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program 76. If sample splitter is not available for use
in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way of reducing sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction materials being used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows. Answer: Liquid Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod. After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of the concrete?
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters water 84. After the soil has been tested in an
Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?
Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers
should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used in field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by what test? Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
Answer: glass plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and also to improve the stability of the slope.
100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m 102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from
30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B
103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm
107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.
Answer: 1 inch
108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.
Answer: 35%
109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.
Answer: 4% to 9% 110. Range of sand size.
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids.
Answer: void ratio
112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids.
Answer: moisture content
113. Significance of grading test are, except Answer: Gives particle size
distribution, measures
permeability, capillarity, measures the potential cohesion of soil
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material, measures the shearing resistance of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except
Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
Answer: Liquidity Index
118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except
Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index
119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beams, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)
120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
124. A mass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load.
Answer: Pile cap
125. An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.
Answer: 150 mm
126. Class of concrete deposited in water. Answer: Class Seal
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts of the structure included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors.
Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in
pre–stressed concrete structures and members.
Answer: Class P
131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit.
Answer: 1.50 m
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings. What Item ______?
Answer: Item 612
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300.
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____.
Answer: 3% to 5 %
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____. Answer: plain bars
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub – base shall spread and compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____.
Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____ Answer: 1,120 kg/m3
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15%.
Answer: 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation.
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between contacts with the surface in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course (Item 206) after the completion of the final rolling, the
surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits 149. In soil classification, 35% or less
passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material. Answer: Group Index
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm Answer: 353 sets
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings.
Answer: 30%
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings.
Answer: 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is ______________. Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 90
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 89
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer
Answer: 95%
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment.
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long 160. At least how many days in – situ
density tests should be carried out for each 500 m2 of each layer of
compacted fill? Answer: three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200 Answer: 12%
162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200 Answer: 35%
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with.
Answer: AASHTO T 96
165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200
Answer: 50%
166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200
Answer: 25%
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193
168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course.
Answer: 100%
169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191
170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non – available, the use _____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202.
Answer: 45%
173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202.
Answer: 50%
174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202.
Answer: 80%
163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200
Answer: 2”
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Answer: 1 ½ inch
176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A
Answer: 2”
175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A
Answer: 1 ½ inch
177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B.
Answer: 1 inch
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)
179. The required plasticity index for Item 203
Answer: 4% to 10%
180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203 Answer: 50%
181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Answer: 2”
182. Item number for water? Answer: Item 714
183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%
184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203 Answer: 100%
185. Required percent compaction for Item 203
Answer: 100%
186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
187. Equipment to be used for final rolling Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type
steel wheel roller
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test flame.
Answer: flash point
189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface profile which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device
190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?
Answer: MC – 3000
192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of the regular piles? Answer: Test Pitting
193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to determine the remaining life of existing pavement.
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer
194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge 196. What is the latest state of the art
equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge 197. It is an instrument used to measure
pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete? This instrument is a non – destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in – situ or pre – cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections. Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete
Tester
199. Soil stabilizing agent
Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil Cement – for sandy soil
200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state. Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called _____.
Answer: tie bars
204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The concrete in the area represented by these high spots _____.
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only.
205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____
Answer: Once a year
206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?
Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes 207. What is the depth of the thermometer
inserted in the bituminous mixture? Answer: 2”
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a specimen will develop at _____
Answer: 60°
210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration
is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt? Answer: 85 – 100
212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint method. Answer: 4.50 MPa
214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____.
Answer: Steel forms of an approved section
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____.
Answer: Within 24 hours 216. Removal of forms of concrete
pavement __________. Answer: 24 hours
217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____. Answer: 1 ½ inches
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed is _____.
Answer: 25% or more
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement
when a single traffic lane is poured? Answer: 1,000 ln.m
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln.m
221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day? Answer: 1 set
223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved? Answer:
80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength
224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel. Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d) 226. What is the slump of concrete Class A
deposited in water? Answer: 10 to 20 cm
228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?
Answer: Item 304
229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%
227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the construction of a bituminous surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat
230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application of aggregate on existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat
239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface course.
Answer: Tack Coat
232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation? Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100mm Ø
231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
Answer: ± 10°C
233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.
Answer: 4 to 6 rpm
234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.
Answer: 5 kph
235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack. Answer: faulting
236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least ______.
Answer: 100 mm
237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____.
Answer: ± 1.0 mass %
238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm
(Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement? Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt? Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the straight edge between any two contacts with the surface?
Answer: 6 mm
243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310? Answer: 1.40 MPa 244. What is the required Index of Retained
Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum
245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve. Answer: ±7
246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive). Answer: ±4
247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve. Answer: ±2
248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability
249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability
250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual settlements and moments of the base and subgrade. Answer: flexibility
252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.
Answer: 92% to 95%
253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test
254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100
255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is performed.
Answer: stability
256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability. Answer: decrease
257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
Answer: armored thermometer 258. Peat and muck soils are considered as: Answer: highly organic soils
259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the construction method.
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road? Answer: excessive asphalt content 261. A good subgrade soil should have the
following:
Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit
262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____
Answer: determine the trend of its strength development 263. What is the test criterion for reinforced
concrete pipe tested in a three – edge bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a constant rate within the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural) 265. Cement which has been in storage for
a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to its quality should: Answer: be retested prior to use 266. It is a process of improving the
properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What will be this test? Answer: referee test
268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to determine the strength. What is the required compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days 269. Tact coat must be at what condition
prior to the application of asphalt mix? Answer: tacky
270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____
Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel
271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or
less is considered _____ Answer: weak subgrade
272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____
Answer: very stable
273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered. Answer: normal
274. What are the three (3) major groups of
soil?
Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil
275. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction.
276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or false?
Answer: true
277. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample?
Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun
278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be used?
Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C
279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4 Method C & D – use sample
passing ¾ inch
and T – 180 compaction test method? Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs)
rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an 18” drop.
281. What is particle size analysis?
Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined analysis
282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?
Answer: distilled water
283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height of _____? Answer: 10 mm
284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated? Answer: 2 rps
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break? Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)
286. What is specific gravity?
Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temperature)
287. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m
288. What Item of work is embankment? Answer: Item 104
289. What kind of material for Item 200? Answer: Aggregate sub – base
course
290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more than 15 mass % will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)
291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Answer: 100%
292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or compaction test? Answer: Maximum dry density
(MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)? Answer: Any clean, dry, free –
flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve 294. What is the standard diameter of an
orifice of an FDT sand cone? Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)
295. What are the apparatus used in FDT? Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4
liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials (tag name) 296. How many hours does a fine
aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition? Answer: It is determined by the use
of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded shape of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry condition 298. What are the tests required for
concrete aggregates?
Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight and abrasion. Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request
299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455 grams
300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams 301. What is significance of abrasion test? Answer: It evaluates the structural
strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or rolling.
302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days
304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?
Answer: R = PL bd2
305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL 2bd2
306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same Ø as the rod.
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units) 308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum 309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum 310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade. 311. What is the significance of bending
test for RSB?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB
312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)
313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt?
Answer: slow – setting emulsified asphalt
314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?
Answer: cut – back asphalt
316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces
317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement? Answer: thickness and density of
pavement
318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are recorded in a _____
Answer: Materials logbook
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is
an in – situ test that measures what? Answer: depth of soil layer
320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called _____
Answer: segregation
321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the pavement was designed to have sub-base and base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the sub-base is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and sub-base courses shall be carried out in?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what? Answer: Test of concrete pipe
samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the sub base course?
Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive _______ or _______. Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture
327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____
Answer: 29ºC
328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provided concrete does not excced specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not exceeded.
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude oil.
332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt 333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type KEROSENE – for medium curing type DIESEL – for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet aggregates and in cold weather. It is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have positive charge. It is a negatively charge electron. 335. What is the bituminous material used
in Item 310?
Answer: asphalt cement
336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?
asphalt
337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
Answer: climatic condition
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job – mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks 339. Who will approve the job – mix
formula?
Answer: DPWH PE and ME 340. The job – mix formula contains
provisions the following: Answer:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of
aggregates and asphalt d. temperature of mixture
upon delivery or time of compaction
341. When tar is used, what is the
temperature that the mixture shall be placed? Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC 342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density? Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable
343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required density? Answer: trial section
344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done? Answer: It should begin from the
sides and proceed longitudinally parallel towards the center line, each trip overlapping one half the roller’s width.
346. After the final rolling, what will be checked?
Answer: degree of compaction
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density
348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?
Answer: when the pavement has
cooled to atmospheric temperature
349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?
Answer: by the use of core drill or saw
350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated? Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm
351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?
Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm
352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds
353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks and 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators 354. How is concrete consolidated?
Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically 355. If the lanes are concreted separately,
what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used?
Answer: longitudinal construction joint
356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars 357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw? Answer: not less than 50 mm
358. The width of the weaken plane joint is
_____. Answer: not less than 6 mm 359. What shall be done if cracks appear
at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?
Answer: sawing shall be omitted 360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____
Answer: asphalt or other materials 361. What is the material that is used as a
load transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface and center line of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel
362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _____
Answer: thin film of bitumen
363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____
Answer: brooming
364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm
365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____
Answer: 72 hours
366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:
Answer:
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the surface
367. When is the right time to seal the joints?
Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic 368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand
369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____? Answer: Materials Engineer of the
DPWH
370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____
Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, accompanied by a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in the project based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness. Answer: asphaltene
373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?
Answer: No. 200
374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____ Answer: pothole patching 375. VMA means
Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates
376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen
Answer: 124ºC
377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is
Answer: 163ºC
378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is
Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC
379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC
380. The maximum absorption content of CHB
Answer: 240 kg/m3
381. The maximum moisture content of CHB
Answer: 45% 382. SPT means
Answer: Standard Penetration Test 383. A tube sampler is used in sampling
undisturbed sample Answer: Shelby tube
384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample Answer: wax
385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
Answer: split spoon sampler
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test 387. A type of coring bit used in rock
coring
Answer: diamond bit 388. CQCA means
Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)
389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from
Answer: 1.01 – 1.04
390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?
Answer: cationic
391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
Answer: fifteen (15)
392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is
Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress
393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is
Answer: 0.06%
394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?
Answer:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa
395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent. Answer: clay content
396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is Answer: air – dried condition
397. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place
Answer: Sand cone method
398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200
399. Which of the following items does not need CBR?
Answer:
a. subbase materials b. surfacing materials c. base course materials
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel spheres. Answer: GRADING A – 12 spheres GRADING B – 11 spheres GRADING C – 8 spheres GRADING D – 6 spheres
401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water is in the drum is Answer: 100 rpm
402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this method is used (Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has set. Answer: 40 kph
404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation.
Answer: 90 minutes
405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete.
406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring
407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates Answer: excessive asphalt
408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine,Ohio (1893) 409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order
to determine the liquid limit of the soil. Answer: Flow curve
410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____. Answer: abrasion loss 411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____. Answer: 2.75
413. The standard packaging weight of cement. Answer: 40 kg/bag
414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound
415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Answer: glass beads
417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units. Answer: Latex
418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
Answer: Triple spot test
419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
Answer: Single spot test
420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel
421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
Answer: good subgrade material 422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course of material to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips
423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its final position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø 424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint. Answer: 2.15
425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint. Answer: 102.5ºC
426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint. Answer: 10 minutes
427. The rate of application of traffic paint. Answer: 0.33 lit/m2
428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint. Answer: 15 – 30 minutes
429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint. Answer: 10 kg
430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper
431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens.
432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen. Answer: gasoline
433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on
Answer: mass of dry aggregates 434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer
436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation
437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
Answer: Softening point
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%
439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.
Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F
440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?
Answer: yellowish brown
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)
443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
Answer: approximately quarter points
444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes
Answer: bleeding
445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
Answer: not greater than 4
446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle.
Answer: raveling
447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken wire.
Answer: alligator cracking
448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number of test of each item of work.
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements
449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 10 mass %
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed Answer: 12 mass %
451. Additives used in concrete mixing. Answer: admixtures
452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test
453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on
454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes
455. The final setting time of Portland cement
Answer: 10 hours
456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
Answer: Ottawa sand
457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
458. A mixture of cement and water is Answer: cement paste
459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle
460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is
Answer: 19.3 MPa
461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave?
Answer: crumbled
462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
Answer: first seven (7) days
463. It is equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall use every precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
Answer: sampling
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples
465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural properties. Answer: thin – walled tube sampling
467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.
Answer: government
468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin – walled tubes that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder
470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete.
Answer: accelerator
471. The best enemy of construction. Answer: water
472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
Answer:
a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass, roots and sewage b. Highly organic soils such
as peat and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural
moisture content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3
f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer
473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 – 12%
474. The rate of application of special curing agent
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m 475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river
